Pharmacy Quiz Competition 2023 | Pharmacy Weakly Test-3 Noteskarts

Pharmacy quiz competition 2023 | Pharmacy Weakly Test-3

Pharmacy quiz competition 2023 | Pharmacy Weakly Test-3 multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from Pharmacy quiz competition 2023 | Pharmacy Weakly Test-3 Quiz, Pharmacist Exam MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam.

Created on October 15, 2023 By

Noteskarts

pharmacy weekly quiz-3

1 / 25

_________ is an example of Hepato cellular jaundice

Hook worm infection

Malaria

Snake bite

Weil’s disease

2 / 25

Nitroglycerine is administered by which route?

Topical application

Parenteral route

Enteral route

Sublingual route

3 / 25

Solanaceous type stoma is present in ________.

datura

vasaka

peppermint

senna

4 / 25

The enzyme involved in the conversion of tyrosine to DOPA is:

decarboxylase

hydroxy methyltransferase

tyrosine hydroxylase

dopamine β −hydroxylase

5 / 25

Which of the following is NOT a Lewis acid?

Barium chloride

Copper (II) chloride

Aluminium chloride

Boron trifluoride

6 / 25

The British register of adverse reactions was established in:

1961

1972

1964

1975

7 / 25

_________ is a freeware, cross-platform, cloud-based instant messaging (IM) service that provides end-to-end encrypted video calling, VoIP, file sharing, etc

DuckDuckGo

Baidu

Vivaldi

8 / 25

Isoelectric point of type B gelatine derived from an alkali treated precursor is:

pH 4.7

pH 7.2

pH 6.5

pH 9

9 / 25

Which of the following is NOT a semisynthetic penicillin?

Penicillin G

Penicillin V

Ampicillin

Amoxicillin

10 / 25

What qualification is essential to become drug inspectors?

Chemical engineer

D.Pharma

Degree in pharmacy

Government technician

11 / 25

The synthesis of urea occurs in the:

lungs

brain

kidney

liver

12 / 25

The process of movement of a drug from the site of administration to the systemic circulation is called:

drug absorption

drug elimination

biotransformation

drug distribution

13 / 25

In pharmaceutical marketing, ethical products are NOT promoted through:

physician’s prescriptions

advertising in medical journals

medical representatives

direct advertising

14 / 25

Which of the following phytoconstituent is soluble in water?

Hesperetin

Naringenin

Ergometrine

Quercetin

15 / 25

Which pollution of water occurs when hot water from factories and thermal plants is drained into rivers and ponds before cooling?

Thermal

Sound

Electrical

Chemical

16 / 25

Which of the following equipment is recommended for the manufacture of powders?

Hot air dry oven

Rolling machine

Sifter

Cutting equipment

17 / 25

___________ is a derivative of imidazole.

Clioquinol

Diloxanide

Metronidazole

Emetine

18 / 25

Potassium permanganate is used as an antimicrobial agent by the mechanism of:

halogenation

reduction

oxidation

protein precipitation

19 / 25

The keyboard shortcut _________ is used to centre align text in MS Word

A. Ctrl + E

Ctrl + Shift + C

C. Alt + C

B. Ctrl + Shift + E

20 / 25

Where is the sinoatrial node located?

Right atrium

Left ventricle

Left atrium

Right ventricle

21 / 25

Chemical test used for the detection of tropane alkaloid is:

Vitali’s test

Halphen’s test

Murexide test

Van Urk’s test

22 / 25

Gelatine is a product obtained by __________.

hydration of collagenous materials

dehydration of collagenous materials

partial hydrolysis of collagenous materials

hydrolysis of polymer

23 / 25

Ergot is used as:

astringent

antitussive

oxytocic

carminative

24 / 25

_________ is an example of extended spectrum penicillin.

Ampicillin

Methicillin

Cloxacillin

Penicillin-G

25 / 25

An enzyme, hexokinase belongs to the class of _______________.

hydrolases

ligases

oxidoreductases

transferases

Your score is

The average score is 54%

Noteskarts Test Series

Pharmaceutics Quiz

June 01, 2022

Created By: Noteskarts

60 Min Duration
100 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

Start

Diploma in Pharmacy Exit Examination

Created By: Noteskarts

60 Min Duration
100 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

Start

Pharmacology Quiz

Created By: Noteskarts

60 Min Duration
50 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

Start

GPAT Quiz 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

60 Min Duration
100 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

Start

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Quiz

Created By: Noteskarts

30 Min Duration
50 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

Start

Human Anatomy and Physiology test For DPEE

Created By: Noteskarts

15 Min Duration
25 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

Start

Join Our Other Free Service

Join Our YouTube Channel

Join Now

Join our Best MCQs

1837

Created on June 10, 2022 By

Noteskarts

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

A. Sulphadimethoxine

B. Sulphadoxine

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphadimethoxy pyridazine

2 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

A. Chlorhexidine

B. Diazepam

C. Miglitol

D. Lorazepam

3 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

A. Exactly a double bond

B. Exactly a triple bond

C. Exactly two double bond

D. More than two double bond

4 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

A. Temperature below 15°c

B. Temperature above 15°c

C. Temperature should be 30°c

D. Temperature between 15-30°c

5 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Isoniazid

D. Ethambutol

6 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

A. Sulphamethoxine

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphamethoxy pyridazine

7 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

A. Cyclopropane

B. Cyclobutane

C. Cyclopentane

D. Cyclohexane

8 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphamethoxazole

B. Sulfafuraole

C. Sulphadimidine

D. Sulphapyridine

9 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

A. Aniline

B. Sulfone

C. Amine

D. All of them

10 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

A. Crystalluria

B. Hansen's disease

C. Liver cirrhosis

D. Mendel disease

11 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C₃₀H_{62 .}

A. Propdecane

B. Eicosane

C. Triacontane

D. Dodecane

12 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphacetamide

B. Sulphasalazine

C. Sulphapyridine

D. Sulphadoxine

13 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

A. Pyridine

B. Imidazole

C. Pyrimidine

D. Pyrazine

14 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

A. Compared to antibiotics

B. Compared to statins

C. Compared to sulpha drugs

D. Compared to antitubercular drugs

15 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

A. para amino salicylic acid

B. Clofazimine

C. Dapsone

D. Ethambutol

16 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

A. Amoebic dysentery

B. Helminth infection

C. Fungal infection

D. None of them

17 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

A. Damage to DNA

B. Enzyme inhibition

C. Cell wall destruction

D. All of them

18 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

A. Bacteria

B. Spores

C. Fungi

D. Viruses

19 / 50

Excystation is _______

A. Formation of trophozoites from cyst

B. Formation of cyst from trophozoites

C. Both of them

D. None of them

20 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

A. Cotrimoxazole

B. Sulphadiazine

C. Sulphacetamide sodium

D. Sulphamethoxazole

21 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

A. Phenyl and benzyl

B. Propyl and phenyl

C. Methyl and benzyl

D. Butyl and phenyl

22 / 50

DDS stands for......

A. Diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. Diamino divinyl sulphone

C. Dimethyl diphenyl sulphone

D. Diphenyl sulphone

23 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethionamide

C. Triacetazone

D. None of the above

24 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

A. Silver

B. Titanium

C. Lead

D. Tin

25 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

A. Moxifloxacin

B. Dapsone

C. Clofazimine

D. Ethambutol

26 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

27 / 50

Functional group present in INH

A. Carbohydrazide

B. Carbonyl group

C. Carboxamide

D. Carboxylic group

28 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

A. True

B. False

29 / 50

Antiseptic are

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

30 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

A. Salicylic acid

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Dapsone

D. Methyl salicylic acid

31 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

A. Clofazimine and Rifampicin

B. Dopamine and Rifampicin

C. Clofazimine and ofloxacin

D. All of them

32 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

A. Disinfection

B. Antisepsis

C. Sterilization

D. Coronisation

33 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

A. Pyrazine-4- carbohydrazide

B. Pyridine-4- carbohydrazide

C. pyrimidine-4- carbohydrazide

D. pyridine-4-carboxamide

34 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

A. Piperidine

B. Pyridine

C. Oxazole

D. Pyrimidine

35 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

A. Direct contact

B. Formites

C. Contaminated food and drink

D. Rodents

36 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

A. Specifying the number of carbon atoms associated with the bond

B. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at beginning of the C=C bond

C. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at end of the C=C bond

D. Specifying the number of carbon atoms in the entire chain

37 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

A. Alkanes

B. Alkenes

C. Alkynes

D. Alkaloids

38 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

A. Hepatic amoebiasis

B. Pulmonary amebiasis

C. Cerebral amobiasis

D. All of the above

39 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Dapsone

D. Di-iodohydroxy quinoline

40 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

A. Vicucidal

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacteriostatic

D. Disinfectant

41 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Entamoeba subtilis

D. Entamoeba chrysogenum

42 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

A. Ethambutol

B. Diazepam

C. Haldol

D. Isoniazid

43 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

A. Jaundice

B. Diarrhea

C. Peripheral neuropathy

D. All of them

44 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

A. Crystalluria

B. Peripheral neuropathy

C. Liver damage

D. Metabolic syndrome

45 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

A. ene

B. ic

C. one

D. yl

46 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

A. Methyl Group

B. Ethynyl group

C. Propionyl group

D. Propargyl group

47 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

A. Alcohol

B. Phenol

C. Iodine

D. All of the above

48 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

A. Benzoyl peroxide

B. Tramadol

C. Zidovudine

D. Fluoxetine

49 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

A. 4,4'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. 2,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

C. 4,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

D. 4,4'-diamino dimethyl sulphone

50 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

A. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase

B. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase

C. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase

D. Activation of DNA gyrase

Your score is

The average score is 23%

LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte

2757

Created by

Noteskarts

Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Inhibits GIT motility

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Prevents miosis

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

2 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Neostigmine

Atropine

All of the above

Physostigmine

3 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

None of above

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

4 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Increased heart rate

Miosis

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Mental aberration

5 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Stimulating B1 receptor

Stimulating B2 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

Blocking B2 receptor

6 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Synergism

Addition

Potentiation

Antagonism

7 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Competing at receptor sites

All of the above

Inhibiting release from storage sites

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

8 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

To check the activity straight muscle

None of the above

9 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Cerebral thrombosis

Hypertension

Dysmenorrhoea

Breast Carcinoma

10 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

None of the above

Canrenone

Acetylspironolactone

Desmethyl spironolactone

11 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Pralidoxime

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

Tubocurarine

12 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M3 agonist

M2 antagonist

M1 antagonist

M3 antagonist

13 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Carbamazepine

Atropine

Metoclopramide

Scopolamine

14 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

P and S

Q and S

Q and R

R and S

15 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Prolactin

Insulin

Oxytocin

Histamine

16 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Sulfate conjunction:

Methylation

Glucuronide conjugation

α amino acid conjunction

17 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

Scopolamines

All of the above

Phenothiazines

Atropine

18 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Hexamethonium

D-tubocurarine

Gallamine

Succinylcholine

19 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Paraldehyde

Diazepam

Phenytoin

Carbamazepine

20 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Barbiturates

Rifampicin

Carbamazepine

Grape juice

21 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

All of the above

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

22 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Physostigmine

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Both a and b

Ecothiopate

23 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Respiratory difficulty

Tremor

Cerebral heamorrhage

Palpitation

24 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Acetylcholine

Isoprenaline

Noradrenaline

Atropine

25 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Corpus striatum

Cerebral cortex

Exocrine gland

Heart

26 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Dry mouth

Hypertension

Tachycardia

Bradycardia

27 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

28 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinolytics

Cholinesterase inhibitor

Cholinomimetic

Sympathomimetic

29 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Gallamine

Pancuronium

Tubocurarine

All of the above

30 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

31 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Salicylates

Clofibrate

Ethanol

Prednisolone

32 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Agranulocytosis

Nephritis

Alopecia

Drug fever

33 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

None of the above

Neostigmine

Pralidoxime

Physostigmine

34 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Constipation

Block accommodation reflex

Bronchoconstriction

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

35 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Pirenzepine

Cyclopentolate

Hyoscine

Darifenacin

36 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Amphetamine

Dopamine

Ephedrine

All of the above

37 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Physostigmine

Atropine

Bethanechol

Pilocarpine

38 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Neostigmine

Pyridostigmine

Physostigmine

Edrophonium

39 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Reduced sweating

Loss of accommodation

Mydriasis

40 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

41 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Alcohol

Amitriptyline

Warfarin

Digoxin

42 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

None of above

Suppression of insulin secretion

Stimulation of insulin release

Suppression of glucagon secretion

43 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Competitive antagonism

Non-competitive antagonism

Antagonist

Partial agonist

44 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Detect the impurity in a given drug

45 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Ion pair transport

Facilitated diffusion

Active transport

Passive diffusion

46 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

Pregnancy

All of the above

Renal insufficiency

IDDM

47 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

All of the above

To stimulate would healing

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

To cause haemeostasis

48 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Isopropanol

All of the above

Dopamine

Epinephrine

49 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

Prolactin

Vasopressin

F S H

50 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Steroid receptor

GPCR

Ion channel

Enzyme linked

Your score is

The average score is 30%

LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte

1770

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule S

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule E

d. Schedule R

2 / 25

2. Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

3 / 25

3. Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule W

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule H

4 / 25

4. "Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

b. Standard for production of sera

c. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

d. Standard for surgical dressing

5 / 25

5. Appendix II is about

a. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

b. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

c. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

d. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

6 / 25

6. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

b. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

c. To prescribe drug

d. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

7 / 25

7. Insulin comes under

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule H

8 / 25

8. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Six

b. Five

c. Three

d. Four

9 / 25

9. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule X

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule U

d. Schedule W

10 / 25

10. Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

b. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

c. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

d. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

11 / 25

11. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule B

b. Schedule D

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule F

12 / 25

12. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 36

b. Form 24

c. Form 20

d. Form 32

13 / 25

13. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Misbranded drug

b. Spurious drug

c. Adulterated drug

d. Drug

14 / 25

14. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. State Government of Delhi

b. Central Government

c. Election of Registered Pharmacists

d. President

15 / 25

15. Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 17

b. Section 17B

c. Section 3B

d. Section 17A

16 / 25

16. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 21

b. Form 25E

c. Form 20

d. Form 24D

17 / 25

17. Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1948

b. 1995

c. 1940

d. 1919

18 / 25

18. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule U1

c. Schedule U

d. Schedule V

19 / 25

19. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Five years

b. Four years

c. Six years

d. Three years

20 / 25

20. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 3

b. 4

c. 1

d. 2

21 / 25

21. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 5

b. 1

c. 3

d. 2

22 / 25

22. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Capsule

b. Antigen

c. Sera

d. Toxins

23 / 25

23. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

b. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

c. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

d. In cold place

24 / 25

24. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule M

b. Schedule C

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule R

25 / 25

25. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form 30

b. Form36

c. Form 32

d. Form 31

Your score is

The average score is 40%

LinkedIn Facebook VKontakte

365

1 / 50

1. Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

a. Schedule L

b. Schedule K

c. Schedule J

d. Schedule P

2 / 50

2. List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

a. Schedule Q

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule P

3 / 50

3. Example of Schedule G drug is

a. Metformin

b. Barbital

c. Enalapril

d. Cefuroxime

4 / 50

4. Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

a. Misbranded drugs

b. Toilet preparations

c. Schedule ‘C’ ‘G’ drugs

d. Ayurvedic drugs

5 / 50

5. Schedule J is related to

a. Curable disease

b. Pack sizes of drugs.

c. GMP

d. List of disease and ailments which drug cannot claim.

6 / 50

6. The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

a. 1940

b. 1955

c. 1985

d. 1950

7 / 50

7. The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule F

c. Schedule M

d. Schedule Y

8 / 50

8. For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

a. 250 square meters

b. 150 square meters

c. 400 square meters

d. 500 square meters

9 / 50

9. List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

a. Schedule J

b. Schedule I

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule H

10 / 50

10. As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

a. A cool place

b. Well closed container, protect from light, in cool place, protect from light

c. Temperature not exceeding 5°C

d. A Cold place

11 / 50

11. Patent Act is established in

a. 1940

b. 1919

c. 1948

d. 1970

12 / 50

12. Injection syringe and needles are covered under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule A

c. Schedule B

d. Schedule Q

13 / 50

13. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

a. Nine

b. Six

c. Seven

d. Five

14 / 50

14. Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

a. A

b. B

c. C and C1

d. X

15 / 50

15. Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

a. A

b. D

c. FF

d. Q

16 / 50

16. List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

a. H

b. X

c. K

d. G

17 / 50

17. MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

a. Brazil

b. South Africa

c. UK

d. Denmark

18 / 50

18. One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

a. All

b. Chief pharmacist of government hospital

c. Chief administrative medical officer of the state

d. Assistant drug controller

19 / 50

19. Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

a. R

b. R1

c. O

d. S

20 / 50

20. Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

a. 1948

b. 1985

c. 1954

d. 1919

21 / 50

21. If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

a. Red

b. Blue

c. Yellow

d. White

22 / 50

22. As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

a. Area required to open wholesale drug store

b. Area for opening retail pharmacy

c. List of maximum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

d. List of minimum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

23 / 50

23. Coca, opium and hemp come under:

a. Insecticide Act

b. Poisons Act

c. Spurious Drug Act

d. Dangerous Drug Act

24 / 50

24. Schedule C is related to

a. List of Ayurvedic product

b. List of Homeopathy product

c. List of Allopathic product

d. List of Biological and Immunological product

25 / 50

25. For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

a. Symbol H displayed on right top corner of the label.

b. Symbol N is red displayed on left top corner of the label

c. Symbol N displayed on left top corner of the label.

d. Symbol X given in red

26 / 50

26. Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

a. None of the above

b. List of generic drugs

c. Guidelines for clinical Trials

d. List of incurable diseases

27 / 50

27. Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

a. List of drug exempted from the provision of import of drugs

b. Requirements of factory premises

c. List of prescription drugs

d. Disease or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure

28 / 50

28. Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

a. 3

b. 4

c. 1

d. 2

29 / 50

29. Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

a. Form 24

b. Form 26

c. Form 25

d. Form 27

30 / 50

30. As per D and C act schedule T stated about

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Homeopathy drugs

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Allopathy drugs

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Medical device

31 / 50

31. TGA is regulatory agency of………….

a. Australia

b. India

c. Zimbabwe

d. Denmark

32 / 50

32. As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

a. Ophthalmic preparation

b. Skin cosmetic preparation

c. Ointment formulation

d. Parenteral preparation

33 / 50

33. Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

a. Long time adverse effects aster marketing drug

b. To determine maximum tolerated dose in humans, Pharmacodynamics effects, Adverse effect.

c. Determine Possible therapeutic uses, Effective doses range

d. Efficacy and Safety of drug in longer number of patients (500 patients)

34 / 50

34. The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

a. Ministry of Education

b. President, Pharmacy Council of India

c. Central Government

d. Drug Controller

35 / 50

35. In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

a. 500 patients

b. 1-10 patients

c. 100 patients

d. 10-12 patients

36 / 50

36. Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

a. At the Temperature 2°C to 8°C and it must not allow to freeze

b. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

c. In cold place

d. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

37 / 50

37. In 1954 one of the following act is passed

a. Poisonous Act.

b. Drug and magic Remedies Act

c. Narcotic and psychotropic substance Act

d. The Medical Termination of pregnancy Act

38 / 50

38. Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

a. Phase I

b. Phase V

c. Phase III

d. Phase II

39 / 50

39. MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

a. South Africa

b. Brazil

c. Denmark

d. UK

40 / 50

40. Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

a. V

b. Y

c. X

d. W

41 / 50

41. DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

a. Six

b. Eight

c. Five

d. Four

42 / 50

42. Dettol comes under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule Q

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule N

43 / 50

43. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

a. Every 3 year

b. Every 6 year

c. Every 2 year

d. Every 5 year

44 / 50

44. Pack size of drug is covered under

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule P1

d. Schedule O

45 / 50

45. Schedule N states

a. List of minimum equipment required for manufacturing of drug.

b. Requirement of factory premises and hygienic condition to complied

c. Standard for cosmetics

d. List of minimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy

46 / 50

46. Aspirin sodium comes under

a. Schedule J

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule G

47 / 50

47. Hatch Waxman Act is related to

a. Over the counter drugs

b. Spurious drugs Act

c. Dangerous drugs Act

d. Banned drugs

48 / 50

48. For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

a. 21

b. 20B

c. 20

d. 21B

49 / 50

49. If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

a. True Drug

b. Spurious Drug

c. Adulterated Drug

d. Misbranded Drug

50 / 50

50. In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

a. Chief Administrator medical officer of state

b. President of India

c. Government Analyst

d. The officer in charge of drugs control organization