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DPEE Test Series Free Quiz Test

DPEE Test Series Free Quiz Test multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from DPEE Test Series Free Quiz Test Quiz, Pharmacist Exam MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam.

927

Created by

Noteskarts

DPEE Quiz Series-1

1 / 100

What is the name of the enzyme that catalyzes the formation of glucose from lactic acid in the liver?

Lactate dehydrogenase

Pyruvate dehydrogenase

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

Gluconeogenesis

2 / 100

What is the name of the enzyme that catalyzes the formation of pyruvate from glucose in the cytoplasm?

Pyruvate dehydrogenase

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

Phosphofructokinase

Hexokinase

3 / 100

What is the name of the enzyme that catalyzes the formation of glucose from amino acids

Gluconeogenesis

Glutamine synthetase

Transaminase

Glutamate dehydrogenase

4 / 100

What is the name of the enzyme that catalyzes the breakdown of fatty acids in the liver?

Lipoprotein lipase

Hormone-sensitive lipase

Triacylglycerol lipase

Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase

5 / 100

What is the name of the enzyme that catalyzes the formation of urea in the liver?

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase

Ornithine transcarbamoylase

Argininosuccinate synthetase

Arginase

6 / 100

What is the name of the enzyme that catalyzes the breakdown of glucose in the muscle?

Glycogen phosphorylase

Glucose-6-phosphatase

Glucose-6-dehydrogenase

Pyruvate dehydrogenase

7 / 100

What is the name of the enzyme that catalyzes the formation of ATP in the mitochondria?

Pyruvate dehydrogenase

Lactate dehydrogenase

Adenosine triphosphate synthase

Cytochrome c oxidase

8 / 100

What is the main function of the liver in the body?

To produce bile for digestion

To detoxify harmful substances

To produce hormones

To produce enzymes for digestion

9 / 100

What is the name of the protein that is responsible for blood clotting?

Fibrinogen

Prothrombin

Thrombin

Factor IX

10 / 100

What is the main function of the pancreas in the body?

To produce insulin and glucagon

To produce enzymes for digestion

To produce hormones for growth and development

To filter and excrete waste products

11 / 100

Local anesthetics produce:

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

12 / 100

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Clofibrate

Salicylates

Ethanol

Prednisolone

13 / 100

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Drug fever

Agranulocytosis

Alopecia

Nephritis

14 / 100

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

IDDM

Pregnancy

Renal insufficiency

All of the above

15 / 100

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Breast Carcinoma

Cerebral thrombosis

Hypertension

Dysmenorrhoea

16 / 100

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

Prolactin

F S H

Vasopressin

17 / 100

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Bradycardia

Tachycardia

Hypertension

Dry mouth

18 / 100

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Paraldehyde

Phenytoin

Diazepam

Carbamazepine

19 / 100

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Atropine

Scopolamine

Carbamazepine

Metoclopramide

20 / 100

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Respiratory difficulty

Palpitation

Cerebral heamorrhage

Tremor

21 / 100

Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

Form 32

Form 31

Form 30

Form36

22 / 100

Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

Form 24D

Form 25E

Form 20

Form 21

23 / 100

Form 20 states that

Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

24 / 100

Insulin comes under

Schedule H

Schedule J

Schedule G

Schedule O

25 / 100

Spurious drug comes under

Section 17

Section 17A

Section 17B

Section 3B

26 / 100

"Schedule F3" is related with

Standard for surgical dressing

Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

Standard for ophthalmic preparation

Standard for production of sera

27 / 100

Appendix II is about

Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

Format for submission of clinical trial reports

Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

28 / 100

Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

At temperature which not exceed 5°C

At temperature which not exceed 20°C

In cold place

29 / 100

Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

Schedule Y

Schedule U

Schedule U1

Schedule V

30 / 100

In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

31 / 100

What is the pH of tears?

A. 5.0

B. 6.5

C. 7.0

D. 7.4

32 / 100

Contact lens are usually made from

A. Polymethyl methacrylate

B. Polyvinyl chloride

C. Carboxymethyl cellulose

D. Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose

33 / 100

Which of the following substance is used as an inactivating agent for "Sulfonamides".

A. PABA (Para Amino Benzoic Acid)

B. Acetyl Transferase

C. Penicillinase

D. Penicillamine

34 / 100

A per I.P. temperature range for incubation in sterility testing is.

A. 20-25°C

B. 25-30°C

C. 30-35°C

D. 25-40°C

35 / 100

Water for injection differs from sterile distilled water as it is free from ..........................

A. Antioxidant

B. Preservatives

C. Pyrogens

D. Carbon Dioxide

36 / 100

The following ingredient is used as an antioxidant and chelating agent............

A. EDTA

B. Citric Acid

C Ascorbic Acid

Phenyl Mercuric Acetate

37 / 100

DOP used in validation of HEPA filter is ............................

A. Dioetylpthalate

B. Dioetylpyruvate

C. Dioetanepthalazine

D. Dioetahedraphaladehyde

38 / 100

An agent used to clean the surface of teeth & decreases the tooth decay, mouth odour is

A. Dental cone

B. Abrasive

C. Dentifrice

D. Dental paste

39 / 100

Which of the following is not an indication for use of pessary

A. As a therapeutic test

B. When future childbearing is intended in near future

C. Refusal for operation by patient

D. Non healing decubitus ulcer

40 / 100

Castor oil is used in lipsticks for

A. Building viscosity

B. Giving a shine

C. Preventing bleed

D. Dispersing oxide

41 / 100

Which is not one of the parameter of quantitative chemical tests of fixed oils and fat?

Viscosity

Reichert-Meissel value

Peroxide value

Hydroxyl value

42 / 100

Which one is also known as extra-nuclear?

Golgi complex

Plastid

Argon

Mitochondria

43 / 100

All are plant growth promoters except

Abscisic acid

Auxin

Gibberellin

Cytokinin

44 / 100

Which of the following causes fruit ripening?

Auxin

Cytokinin

Gibberellins

Ethylene

45 / 100

Chrysanthemum is mainly used as

Pesticide

Insecticide

Rodenticide

Larvicide

46 / 100

Natural cytokinin is

Kinetin

Zeatin

Adenine

None

47 / 100

Palisade ratio is

Total number of palisade cells beneath each upper epidermal cell

Total number of palisade cells beneath mesophyll

Average number of palisade cells beneath each upper epidermal cells

None of the above

48 / 100

According to Ayurveda PITA (bile) is responsible for:

Transmitting sense impression to the mind

Providing the static energy for holding body tissues together

All digestive and metabolic activities

Lubrication of various points of friction

49 / 100

Halphen's test is used for

Detection of cotton seed oil as an adulterant

Detection of artificial invert sugar

Saponins

Tannins

50 / 100

Aril is

Outgrowth from micropyle and covering the seed

Stiff-bristle like appendages with wavy flowering glume of grasses

Warty out growth from micropyle

Succulent growth from hilum covering entire seed

51 / 100

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

A. Temperature below 15°c

B. Temperature above 15°c

C. Temperature should be 30°c

D. Temperature between 15-30°c

52 / 100

Functional group present in INH

A. Carbohydrazide

B. Carbonyl group

C. Carboxamide

D. Carboxylic group

53 / 100

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethionamide

C. Triacetazone

D. None of the above

54 / 100

Major side effects of INH.....

A. Crystalluria

B. Peripheral neuropathy

C. Liver damage

D. Metabolic syndrome

55 / 100

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Isoniazid

D. Ethambutol

56 / 100

IUPAC name of INH is ...

A. Pyrazine-4- carbohydrazide

B. Pyridine-4- carbohydrazide

C. pyrimidine-4- carbohydrazide

D. pyridine-4-carboxamide

57 / 100

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

A. Clofazimine and Rifampicin

B. Dopamine and Rifampicin

C. Clofazimine and ofloxacin

D. All of them

58 / 100

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

A. Salicylic acid

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Dapsone

D. Methyl salicylic acid

59 / 100

DDS stands for......

A. Diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. Diamino divinyl sulphone

C. Dimethyl diphenyl sulphone

D. Diphenyl sulphone

60 / 100

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

A. Aniline

B. Sulfone

C. Amine

D. All of them

61 / 100

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

A. Pyridine

B. Imidazole

C. Pyrimidine

D. Pyrazine

62 / 100

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

A. Jaundice

B. Diarrhea

C. Peripheral neuropathy

D. All of them

63 / 100

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

A. Ethambutol

B. Diazepam

C. Haldol

D. Isoniazid

64 / 100

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

A. Amoebic dysentery

B. Helminth infection

C. Fungal infection

D. None of them

65 / 100

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Entamoeba subtilis

D. Entamoeba chrysogenum

66 / 100

Extra intestinal infections include

A. Hepatic amoebiasis

B. Pulmonary amebiasis

C. Cerebral amobiasis

D. All of the above

67 / 100

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

A. Direct contact

B. Formites

C. Contaminated food and drink

D. Rodents

68 / 100

Excystation is _______

A. Formation of trophozoites from cyst

B. Formation of cyst from trophozoites

C. Both of them

D. None of them

69 / 100

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Dapsone

D. Di-iodohydroxy quinoline

70 / 100

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

A. Moxifloxacin

B. Dapsone

C. Clofazimine

D. Ethambutol

71 / 100

What is the role of the hospital formulary in drug distribution?

To provide information about drugs

To ensure that the correct drugs are used

To provide information about the hospital's drug policies

To have no role in the process

72 / 100

What is the impact of incorrect drug distribution on patient safety?

No impact

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Increases the cost of healthcare

73 / 100

What is the role of pharmacists in drug distribution for out-patients?

To provide information about drugs

To ensure that the correct drugs are dispensed to the correct patients

To provide information about the hospital formulary

To have no role in the process

74 / 100

What is the role of pharmacists in drug distribution for in-patients?

To provide information about drugs

To ensure that the correct drugs are administered to the correct patients at the correct time

To provide information about the hospital formulary

To have no role in the process

75 / 100

What is the primary difference between drug distribution for in-patients and out-patients?

The type of drugs used

The location of the patients

The frequency of drug administration

The dose of the drugs

76 / 100

What is the impact of effective supply chain management on patient safety?

No impact

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Increases the cost of healthcare

77 / 100

What is the role of pharmacists in supply chain management?

To provide information about drugs

To monitor drug supplies and ensure an adequate supply

To provide information about the hospital formulary

To have no role in the process

78 / 100

What is the impact of poor supply chain management on patient care?

No impact

Increases the risk of drug shortages

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Increases the cost of healthcare

79 / 100

What is the role of inventory control in supply chain management?

To increase the cost of drugs

To reduce the cost of drugs

To maintain an adequate supply of drugs

To increase the sale of drugs

80 / 100

What is the primary objective of supply chain management in hospital pharmacy?

To increase the cost of drugs

To reduce the cost of drugs

To maintain an adequate supply of drugs

To increase the sale of drugs

81 / 100

What is the significance of addressing non-adherence to medication regimens?

To reduce the risk of adverse effects

To improve patient outcomes

To reduce healthcare costs

All of the above

82 / 100

What is medication adherence?

The ability of a patient to follow a medication regimen

The act of taking medication as prescribed

The willingness of a patient to take medication

All of the above

83 / 100

What is the significance of regularly reviewing and updating Patient Information Leaflets (PILs)?

To ensure that the information provided is accurate and up-to-date

To reduce the risk of medication errors

To comply with regulatory requirements

All of the above

84 / 100

What is the significance of non-verbal communication (body language) in patient-pharmacist interactions?

To convey empathy and understanding

To enhance patient trust and rapport

To improve patient satisfaction

All of the above

85 / 100

What is the significance of using appropriate tone and pace when communicating with a patient over the telephone?

To improve patient understanding

To reduce the risk of misinterpretation

To increase patient satisfaction

All of the above

86 / 100

What is the significance of regular training and education for staff in minimizing dispensing errors?

To enhance staff knowledge and skills

To reduce the risk of human error

To comply with regulatory requirements

All of the above

87 / 100

What is the most common type of dispensing error

Medication labeling errors

Medication substitution errors

Medication dosing errors

Medication administration errors

88 / 100

What is a dispensing error?

An error in the preparation or labeling of a medication

An error in the administration of a medication

An error in the prescription or order for a medication

An error in the storage or handling of a medication

89 / 100

What is the role of a community pharmacist in checking for potential drug interactions or allergies?

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

To improve patient outcomes

To monitor medication efficacy

All of the above

90 / 100

What is a prescription?

A written order for medication from a physician or other authorized prescriber

A written order for a diagnostic test or procedure

A written order for physical therapy

A written order for a specialist consultation

91 / 100

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Mydriasis

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Reduced sweating

Loss of accommodation

92 / 100

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Inhibits GIT motility

Prevents miosis

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

93 / 100

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Suppression of insulin secretion

Stimulation of insulin release

Suppression of glucagon secretion

None of above

94 / 100

Darifenacin is a

M1 antagonist

M2 antagonist

M3 agonist

M3 antagonist

95 / 100

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Isopropanol

Epinephrine

Dopamine

All of the above

96 / 100

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

Atropine

All of the above

97 / 100

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

None of above

98 / 100

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Physostigmine

Pralidoxime

Neostigmine

Tubocurarine

99 / 100

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Ephedrine

Amphetamine

Dopamine

All of the above

100 / 100

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Gallamine

Hexamethonium

Succinylcholine

D-tubocurarine

Your score is

The average score is 34%

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1839

Created on June 10, 2022 By

Noteskarts

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

A. Hepatic amoebiasis

B. Pulmonary amebiasis

C. Cerebral amobiasis

D. All of the above

2 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

A. Moxifloxacin

B. Dapsone

C. Clofazimine

D. Ethambutol

3 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphacetamide

B. Sulphasalazine

C. Sulphapyridine

D. Sulphadoxine

4 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

A. Aniline

B. Sulfone

C. Amine

D. All of them

5 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

A. Sulphadimethoxine

B. Sulphadoxine

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphadimethoxy pyridazine

6 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

A. 4,4'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. 2,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

C. 4,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

D. 4,4'-diamino dimethyl sulphone

7 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

A. Crystalluria

B. Hansen's disease

C. Liver cirrhosis

D. Mendel disease

8 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

A. Direct contact

B. Formites

C. Contaminated food and drink

D. Rodents

9 / 50

Excystation is _______

A. Formation of trophozoites from cyst

B. Formation of cyst from trophozoites

C. Both of them

D. None of them

10 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

11 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Entamoeba subtilis

D. Entamoeba chrysogenum

12 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

A. True

B. False

13 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Dapsone

D. Di-iodohydroxy quinoline

14 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

A. Benzoyl peroxide

B. Tramadol

C. Zidovudine

D. Fluoxetine

15 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C₃₀H_{62 .}

A. Propdecane

B. Eicosane

C. Triacontane

D. Dodecane

16 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

A. Sulphamethoxine

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphamethoxy pyridazine

17 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

A. Alcohol

B. Phenol

C. Iodine

D. All of the above

18 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

A. Cotrimoxazole

B. Sulphadiazine

C. Sulphacetamide sodium

D. Sulphamethoxazole

19 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

A. Cyclopropane

B. Cyclobutane

C. Cyclopentane

D. Cyclohexane

20 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

A. Ethambutol

B. Diazepam

C. Haldol

D. Isoniazid

21 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

A. Compared to antibiotics

B. Compared to statins

C. Compared to sulpha drugs

D. Compared to antitubercular drugs

22 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

A. Piperidine

B. Pyridine

C. Oxazole

D. Pyrimidine

23 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

A. Exactly a double bond

B. Exactly a triple bond

C. Exactly two double bond

D. More than two double bond

24 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphamethoxazole

B. Sulfafuraole

C. Sulphadimidine

D. Sulphapyridine

25 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

A. Specifying the number of carbon atoms associated with the bond

B. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at beginning of the C=C bond

C. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at end of the C=C bond

D. Specifying the number of carbon atoms in the entire chain

26 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

A. Silver

B. Titanium

C. Lead

D. Tin

27 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

A. para amino salicylic acid

B. Clofazimine

C. Dapsone

D. Ethambutol

28 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

A. Chlorhexidine

B. Diazepam

C. Miglitol

D. Lorazepam

29 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

A. Alkanes

B. Alkenes

C. Alkynes

D. Alkaloids

30 / 50

Functional group present in INH

A. Carbohydrazide

B. Carbonyl group

C. Carboxamide

D. Carboxylic group

31 / 50

Antiseptic are

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

32 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

A. Vicucidal

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacteriostatic

D. Disinfectant

33 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

A. Disinfection

B. Antisepsis

C. Sterilization

D. Coronisation

34 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

A. Temperature below 15°c

B. Temperature above 15°c

C. Temperature should be 30°c

D. Temperature between 15-30°c

35 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

A. Methyl Group

B. Ethynyl group

C. Propionyl group

D. Propargyl group

36 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethionamide

C. Triacetazone

D. None of the above

37 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

A. ene

B. ic

C. one

D. yl

38 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

A. Clofazimine and Rifampicin

B. Dopamine and Rifampicin

C. Clofazimine and ofloxacin

D. All of them

39 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

A. Jaundice

B. Diarrhea

C. Peripheral neuropathy

D. All of them

40 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

A. Pyrazine-4- carbohydrazide

B. Pyridine-4- carbohydrazide

C. pyrimidine-4- carbohydrazide

D. pyridine-4-carboxamide

41 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

A. Salicylic acid

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Dapsone

D. Methyl salicylic acid

42 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

A. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase

B. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase

C. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase

D. Activation of DNA gyrase

43 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Isoniazid

D. Ethambutol

44 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

A. Damage to DNA

B. Enzyme inhibition

C. Cell wall destruction

D. All of them

45 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

A. Bacteria

B. Spores

C. Fungi

D. Viruses

46 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

A. Phenyl and benzyl

B. Propyl and phenyl

C. Methyl and benzyl

D. Butyl and phenyl

47 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

A. Crystalluria

B. Peripheral neuropathy

C. Liver damage

D. Metabolic syndrome

48 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

A. Pyridine

B. Imidazole

C. Pyrimidine

D. Pyrazine

49 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

A. Amoebic dysentery

B. Helminth infection

C. Fungal infection

D. None of them

50 / 50

DDS stands for......

A. Diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. Diamino divinyl sulphone

C. Dimethyl diphenyl sulphone

D. Diphenyl sulphone

Your score is

The average score is 23%

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2764

Created by

Noteskarts

Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinesterase inhibitor

Cholinolytics

Cholinomimetic

Sympathomimetic

2 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Bradycardia

Hypertension

Tachycardia

Dry mouth

3 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Active transport

Passive diffusion

Facilitated diffusion

Ion pair transport

4 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Alopecia

Agranulocytosis

Nephritis

Drug fever

5 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

All of the above

Amphetamine

Ephedrine

Dopamine

6 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Hexamethonium

Succinylcholine

D-tubocurarine

Gallamine

7 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

To check the activity straight muscle

None of the above

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

8 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

Phenothiazines

Atropine

Scopolamines

All of the above

9 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

10 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Epinephrine

All of the above

Dopamine

Isopropanol

11 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

IDDM

Renal insufficiency

All of the above

Pregnancy

12 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Pralidoxime

Tubocurarine

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

13 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

Q and S

Q and R

P and S

R and S

14 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Atropine

Isoprenaline

Acetylcholine

Noradrenaline

15 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

All of the above

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

Competing at receptor sites

Inhibiting release from storage sites

16 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M3 antagonist

M2 antagonist

M1 antagonist

M3 agonist

17 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

None of above

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

18 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

Prolactin

F S H

Vasopressin

19 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Stimulation of insulin release

Suppression of insulin secretion

Suppression of glucagon secretion

None of above

20 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

A stupor or somnolent state

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

21 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Metoclopramide

Atropine

Carbamazepine

Scopolamine

22 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Reduced sweating

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Loss of accommodation

Mydriasis

23 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Stimulating B2 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

Blocking B2 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

24 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Breast Carcinoma

Hypertension

Cerebral thrombosis

Dysmenorrhoea

25 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

26 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Ecothiopate

Physostigmine

Both a and b

Dispropyl flurophosphate

27 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Cyclopentolate

Pirenzepine

Hyoscine

Darifenacin

28 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

All of the above

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

29 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

All of the above

Atropine

30 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Gallamine

Pancuronium

Tubocurarine

All of the above

31 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Antagonism

Potentiation

Addition

Synergism

32 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Bethanechol

Atropine

Pilocarpine

Physostigmine

33 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Block accommodation reflex

Bronchoconstriction

Constipation

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

34 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Enzyme linked

Ion channel

Steroid receptor

GPCR

35 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Phenytoin

Paraldehyde

Carbamazepine

Diazepam

36 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

To stimulate would healing

To cause haemeostasis

All of the above

37 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Inhibits GIT motility

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

Prevents miosis

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

38 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

None of the above

Acetylspironolactone

Desmethyl spironolactone

Canrenone

39 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

None of the above

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

Pralidoxime

40 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Exocrine gland

Corpus striatum

Cerebral cortex

Heart

41 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Salicylates

Prednisolone

Clofibrate

Ethanol

42 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Barbiturates

Carbamazepine

Grape juice

Rifampicin

43 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Increased heart rate

Mental aberration

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Miosis

44 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Tremor

Cerebral heamorrhage

Palpitation

Respiratory difficulty

45 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Competitive antagonism

Antagonist

Non-competitive antagonism

Partial agonist

46 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Alcohol

Digoxin

Amitriptyline

Warfarin

47 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Insulin

Prolactin

Oxytocin

Histamine

48 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Detect the impurity in a given drug

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

49 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Methylation

Sulfate conjunction:

α amino acid conjunction

Glucuronide conjugation

50 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Edrophonium

Pyridostigmine

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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1770

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 2

b. 3

c. 5

d. 1

2 / 25

2. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 1

b. 4

c. 3

d. 2

3 / 25

3. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule M

b. Schedule C

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule R

4 / 25

4. Appendix II is about

a. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

b. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

c. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

d. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

5 / 25

5. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Five

b. Four

c. Three

d. Six

6 / 25

6. Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

7 / 25

7. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule U1

b. Schedule U

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule V

8 / 25

8. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 32

b. Form 24

c. Form 20

d. Form 36

9 / 25

9. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form 31

b. Form 30

c. Form36

d. Form 32

10 / 25

10. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

b. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

c. In cold place

d. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

11 / 25

11. Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

b. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

c. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

d. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

12 / 25

12. "Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for production of sera

b. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

c. Standard for surgical dressing

d. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

13 / 25

13. Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule W

14 / 25

14. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule W

c. Schedule U

d. Schedule X

15 / 25

15. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 25E

b. Form 21

c. Form 20

d. Form 24D

16 / 25

16. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Sera

b. Antigen

c. Capsule

d. Toxins

17 / 25

17. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Four years

b. Six years

c. Three years

d. Five years

18 / 25

18. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

b. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

c. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

d. To prescribe drug

19 / 25

19. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule B

c. Schedule F

d. Schedule D

20 / 25

20. Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 3B

b. Section 17B

c. Section 17A

d. Section 17

21 / 25

21. Insulin comes under

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule J

d. Schedule G

22 / 25

22. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. Central Government

b. Election of Registered Pharmacists

c. President

d. State Government of Delhi

23 / 25

23. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule E

b. Schedule S

c. Schedule R

d. Schedule O

24 / 25

24. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Spurious drug

b. Drug

c. Misbranded drug

d. Adulterated drug

25 / 25

25. Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1995

b. 1948

c. 1919

d. 1940

Your score is

The average score is 40%

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366

1 / 50

1. If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

a. Yellow

b. Blue

c. White

d. Red

2 / 50

2. For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

a. 21B

b. 21

c. 20B

d. 20

3 / 50

3. List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

a. H

b. X

c. K

d. G

4 / 50

4. Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

a. 1985

b. 1954

c. 1919

d. 1948

5 / 50

5. Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

a. Schedule L

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule K

6 / 50

6. Schedule J is related to

a. GMP

b. Curable disease

c. List of disease and ailments which drug cannot claim.

d. Pack sizes of drugs.

7 / 50

7. MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

a. Denmark

b. South Africa

c. UK

d. Brazil

8 / 50

8. Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

a. A

b. D

c. FF

d. Q

9 / 50

9. DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

a. Six

b. Four

c. Five

d. Eight

10 / 50

10. Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

a. X

b. C and C1

c. B

d. A

11 / 50

11. Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

a. Determine Possible therapeutic uses, Effective doses range

b. Efficacy and Safety of drug in longer number of patients (500 patients)

c. Long time adverse effects aster marketing drug

d. To determine maximum tolerated dose in humans, Pharmacodynamics effects, Adverse effect.

12 / 50

12. Schedule N states

a. Requirement of factory premises and hygienic condition to complied

b. Standard for cosmetics

c. List of minimum equipment required for manufacturing of drug.

d. List of minimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy

13 / 50

13. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

a. Seven

b. Six

c. Nine

d. Five

14 / 50

14. In 1954 one of the following act is passed

a. Drug and magic Remedies Act

b. The Medical Termination of pregnancy Act

c. Narcotic and psychotropic substance Act

d. Poisonous Act.

15 / 50

15. Patent Act is established in

a. 1919

b. 1948

c. 1940

d. 1970

16 / 50

16. Hatch Waxman Act is related to

a. Dangerous drugs Act

b. Spurious drugs Act

c. Banned drugs

d. Over the counter drugs

17 / 50

17. List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

a. Schedule J

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule I

18 / 50

18. Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

a. S

b. R

c. O

d. R1

19 / 50

19. As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

a. List of minimum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

b. List of maximum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

c. Area for opening retail pharmacy

d. Area required to open wholesale drug store

20 / 50

20. MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

a. Denmark

b. South Africa

c. UK

d. Brazil

21 / 50

21. Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

a. None of the above

b. List of incurable diseases

c. List of generic drugs

d. Guidelines for clinical Trials

22 / 50

22. TGA is regulatory agency of………….

a. India

b. Australia

c. Zimbabwe

d. Denmark

23 / 50

23. Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

a. 4

b. 3

c. 1

d. 2

24 / 50

24. The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

a. Schedule F

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule M

25 / 50

25. Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

a. In cold place

b. At the Temperature 2°C to 8°C and it must not allow to freeze

c. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

d. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

26 / 50

26. For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

a. Symbol X given in red

b. Symbol N is red displayed on left top corner of the label

c. Symbol H displayed on right top corner of the label.

d. Symbol N displayed on left top corner of the label.

27 / 50

27. List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

a. Schedule Q

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule O

28 / 50

28. As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

a. A cool place

b. A Cold place

c. Temperature not exceeding 5°C

d. Well closed container, protect from light, in cool place, protect from light

29 / 50

29. Dettol comes under

a. Schedule N

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule Q

d. Schedule P

30 / 50

30. If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

a. Misbranded Drug

b. Adulterated Drug

c. True Drug

d. Spurious Drug

31 / 50

31. Schedule C is related to

a. List of Homeopathy product

b. List of Ayurvedic product

c. List of Biological and Immunological product

d. List of Allopathic product

32 / 50

32. Coca, opium and hemp come under:

a. Dangerous Drug Act

b. Insecticide Act

c. Spurious Drug Act

d. Poisons Act

33 / 50

33. Pack size of drug is covered under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule R

d. Schedule P1

34 / 50

34. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

a. Every 5 year

b. Every 3 year

c. Every 2 year

d. Every 6 year

35 / 50

35. The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

a. 1940

b. 1985

c. 1950

d. 1955

36 / 50

36. Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

a. Toilet preparations

b. Misbranded drugs

c. Schedule ‘C’ ‘G’ drugs

d. Ayurvedic drugs

37 / 50

37. In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

a. 500 patients

b. 10-12 patients

c. 100 patients

d. 1-10 patients

38 / 50

38. The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

a. Drug Controller

b. Central Government

c. President, Pharmacy Council of India

d. Ministry of Education

39 / 50

39. Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

a. Form 24

b. Form 27

c. Form 25

d. Form 26

40 / 50

40. Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

a. W

b. X

c. Y

d. V

41 / 50

41. Injection syringe and needles are covered under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule Q

c. Schedule B

d. Schedule A

42 / 50

42. Example of Schedule G drug is

a. Cefuroxime

b. Enalapril

c. Metformin

d. Barbital

43 / 50

43. Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

a. Phase I

b. Phase III

c. Phase V

d. Phase II

44 / 50

44. Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

a. List of prescription drugs

b. Requirements of factory premises

c. List of drug exempted from the provision of import of drugs

d. Disease or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure

45 / 50

45. As per D and C act schedule T stated about

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Homeopathy drugs

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Allopathy drugs

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Medical device

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs

46 / 50

46. One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

a. All

b. Chief administrative medical officer of the state

c. Chief pharmacist of government hospital

d. Assistant drug controller

47 / 50

47. For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

a. 250 square meters

b. 400 square meters

c. 500 square meters

d. 150 square meters

48 / 50

48. In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

a. Government Analyst

b. The officer in charge of drugs control organization

c. President of India

d. Chief Administrator medical officer of state

49 / 50

49. As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

a. Skin cosmetic preparation

b. Ointment formulation

c. Ophthalmic preparation

d. Parenteral preparation

50 / 50

50. Aspirin sodium comes under

a. Schedule J

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule G

Your score is

The average score is 38%

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