Pharmacology & Toxicology Top 50 MCQ with solution

Pharmacology And Toxicology Top 50 MCQ with solution by www.noteskarts.com

1. Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of
a. Acetylcholine
b. Isoprenaline
c. Noradrenaline
d. Atropine
Ans: Noradrenaline

2. Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

a. R and S
b. Q and R
c. Q and S
d. P and S
Ans: Q and R

3. Following statement are true for facilitated diffusion :
(P) It is unsaturable
(Q) It is selective
(R) It is energy dependent
(S) It is energy independent

a. P and R
b. Q and R
c. Q and S
d. P and S
Ans: Q and S

4.Most of the drug is absorbed through
a. Active transport
b. Facilitated diffusion
c. Passive diffusion
d. Ion pair transport
Ans: Passive diffusion

5. Morphine affects the eyes by:
a. Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve
b. Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system
c. Decreasing pupillary responses to light
d. Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris
Ans: Decreasing pupillary responses to light

6. Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is
a. Desmethyl spironolactone
b. Canrenone
c. Acetylspironolactone
d. None of the above
Ans: Canrenone

7. Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.
a. Synergism
b. Addition
c. Potentiation
d. Antagonism
Ans: Potentiation

8. In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.
a. Insulin
b. Histamine
c. Prolactin
d. Oxytocin
Ans: Insulin

9. ………………drug having highest volume of distribution.
a. Warfarin
b. Amitriptyline
c. Digoxin
d. Alcohol
Ans: Alcohol

10. Isolated rabbit jejunum is used
a. To check adrenergic activity and mechanism
b. To check the activity of skeletal muscle
c. To check the activity straight muscle
d. None of the above
Ans: To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

11. Bioassays are carried out to:
a. Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug
b. Avoid clinical trials for new drugs
c. Detect the impurity in a given drug
d. Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs
Ans: Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

12. Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?
a. Grape juice
b. Rifampicin
c. Barbiturates
d. Carbamazepine
Ans: Grape juice

13. Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?
a. GPCR
b. Ion channel
c. Enzyme linked
d. Steroid receptor
Ans:- Steroid receptor

14. Most common Phase -2nd reaction is
a. Sulfate conjunction:
b. Glucuronide conjugation
c. α amino acid conjunction
d. Methylation
Ans: Glucuronide conjugation

15. Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called
a. Partial agonist
b. Antagonist
c. Non-competitive antagonism
d. Competitive antagonism
Ans: Partial agonist

16. In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:
a. Pirenzepine
b. Cyclopentolate
c. Darifenacin
d. Hyoscine
Ans: Darifenacin

17. In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is
a. Pyridostigmine
b. Edrophonium
c. Physostigmine
d. Neostigmine
Ans: Edrophonium

18. Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?
a. Bethanechol
b. Physostigmine
c. Atropine
d. Pilocarpine
Ans: Atropine

19. Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics
a. To cause haemeostasis
b. To prolong the action of local anaesthetics
c. To stimulate would healing
d. All of the above
Ans: To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

20. Neostigmine may cause all of the following except
a. Block accommodation reflex
b. Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase
c. Constipation
d. Bronchoconstriction
Ans: Constipation

21. Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except
a. Miosis
b. Increased heart rate
c. Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle
d. Mental aberration
Ans: Miosis
22. Pilocarpine is classified as
a. Cholinesterase inhibitor
b. Sympathomimetic
c. Cholinomimetic
d. Cholinolytics
Ans: Cholinomimetic

23. Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is
a. Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase
b. Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase
c. Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase
d. Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase
Ans: Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterases

24. Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by
a. Tubocurarine
b. Gallamine
c. Pancuronium
d. All of the above
Ans: All of the above

25. All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except
a. Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound
b. Neostigmine is medium duration of action
c. Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions
d. All of the above
Ans: All of the above

26. Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at
a. Exocrine gland
b. Cerebral cortex
c. Heart
d. Corpus striatum
Ans: Corpus striatum

27. Antidote of atropine is
a. Neostigmine
b. Pralidoxime
c. Physostigmine
d. None of the above
Ans: Physostigmine

28. Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by
a. Inhibiting synthesis of ACH
b. Inhibiting release from storage sites
c. Competing at receptor sites
d. All of the above

29. Sweating is inhibited by
a. Atropine
b. Phenothiazines
c. Scopolamines
D. All of the above
Ans: All of the above

30. Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by
a. Blocking B1 receptor
b. Blocking B2 receptor
c. Stimulating B1 receptor
d. Stimulating B2 receptor
Ans: Stimulating B2 receptor

31. Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.
a. Dispropyl flurophosphate
b. Ecothiopate
c. Both a and b
d. Physostigmine
Ans: Both a and b

32. Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of
a. Gallamine
b. Hexamethonium
c. Succinylcholine
d. D-tubocurarine
Ans: D-tubocurarine

33. Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?
a. Ephedrine
b. Amphetamine
c. Dopamine
d. All of the above
Ans : Dopamine

34. Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is
a. Physostigmine
b. Pralidoxime
c. Neostigmine
d. Tubocurarine
Ans: Pralidoxime

35. Action of D-tubocurarine is
a. Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors
b. Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors
c. Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor
d. None of above
Ans: Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

36. Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?
a. Physostigmine
b. Neostigmine
c. Atropine
d. All of the above
Ans: Neostigmine

37. Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is
a. Isopropanol
b. Epinephrine
c. Dopamine
d. All of the above
Ans: Dopamine

38. Darifenacin is a
a. M1 antagonist
b. M2 antagonist
c. M3 agonist
d. M3 antagonist
Ans: M3 antagonist

39. Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes
a. Suppression of insulin secretion
b. Stimulation of insulin release
c. Suppression of glucagon secretion
d. None of above
Ans: Suppression of insulin secretion

40. Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anaesthetics agent due to become it
a. Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract
b. Inhibits GIT motility
c. Prevents miosis
d. Cause skeletal muscle relaxation
Ans: Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

41. Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except
a. Mydriasis
b. Inhibit erection and ejaculation
c. Reduced sweating
d. Loss of accommodation
Ans: Inhibit erection and ejaculation

42. Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is
a. Respiratory difficulty
b. Palpitation
c. Cerebral heamorrhage
d. Tremor
Ans: Cerebral heamorrhage

43. Drug of choice in motion sickness is
a. Atropine
b. Scopolamine
c. Carbamazepine
d. Metoclopramide
Ans: Scopolamine

44. In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by
a. Paraldehyde
b. Phenytoin
c. Diazepam
d. Carbamazepine
Ans: Diazepam

45. Major adverse effect of clonidine is
a. Bradycardia
b. Tachycardia
c. Hypertension
d. Dry mouth
Ans: Dry mouth

46. Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except
a. Prolactin 
b. F S H
c. LH
d.Vasopressin

Ans: Vasopressin

47. Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except
a. Breast Carcinoma
b. Cerebral thrombosis
c. Hypertension
d. Dysmenorrhoea
Ans: Dysmenorrhoea

48. Tolbutamide is contraindicated in 
a. IDDM
b. Pregnancy
c. Renal insufficiency 
d. All of the above
Ans: All of the above

49. Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is 
a. Drug fever
b. Agranulocytosis
c. Alopecia
d. Nephritis
Ans: Agranulocytosis

50. All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except
a. Clofibrate
b. Salicylates
c. Ethanol
d. Prednisolone
Ans: Prednisolone

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