Pharmacy Weekly Quiz By Noteskarts Test Series

Weekly Quizzes

Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-1

Oct 02, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

60 Min Duration
50 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-2

Oct 08, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

15 Min Duration
15 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-3

Oct 15, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

25 Min Duration
25 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Human Anatomy and Physiology test For DPEE

Created By: Noteskarts

15 Min Duration
25 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Join our Best MCQs

1857

Created on June 10, 2022 By

Noteskarts

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

A. Compared to antibiotics

B. Compared to statins

C. Compared to sulpha drugs

D. Compared to antitubercular drugs

2 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

A. Specifying the number of carbon atoms associated with the bond

B. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at beginning of the C=C bond

C. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at end of the C=C bond

D. Specifying the number of carbon atoms in the entire chain

3 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

A. Pyridine

B. Imidazole

C. Pyrimidine

D. Pyrazine

4 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

A. Bacteria

B. Spores

C. Fungi

D. Viruses

5 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Entamoeba subtilis

D. Entamoeba chrysogenum

6 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

A. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase

B. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase

C. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase

D. Activation of DNA gyrase

7 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

A. Alcohol

B. Phenol

C. Iodine

D. All of the above

8 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

A. Chlorhexidine

B. Diazepam

C. Miglitol

D. Lorazepam

9 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

A. Hepatic amoebiasis

B. Pulmonary amebiasis

C. Cerebral amobiasis

D. All of the above

10 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Dapsone

D. Di-iodohydroxy quinoline

11 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

A. Piperidine

B. Pyridine

C. Oxazole

D. Pyrimidine

12 / 50

Functional group present in INH

A. Carbohydrazide

B. Carbonyl group

C. Carboxamide

D. Carboxylic group

13 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

A. True

B. False

14 / 50

Antiseptic are

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

15 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

A. 4,4'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. 2,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

C. 4,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

D. 4,4'-diamino dimethyl sulphone

16 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

A. Exactly a double bond

B. Exactly a triple bond

C. Exactly two double bond

D. More than two double bond

17 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

A. Silver

B. Titanium

C. Lead

D. Tin

18 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

A. para amino salicylic acid

B. Clofazimine

C. Dapsone

D. Ethambutol

19 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

A. Crystalluria

B. Hansen's disease

C. Liver cirrhosis

D. Mendel disease

20 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

A. Benzoyl peroxide

B. Tramadol

C. Zidovudine

D. Fluoxetine

21 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

A. Moxifloxacin

B. Dapsone

C. Clofazimine

D. Ethambutol

22 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethionamide

C. Triacetazone

D. None of the above

23 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

A. Alkanes

B. Alkenes

C. Alkynes

D. Alkaloids

24 / 50

Excystation is _______

A. Formation of trophozoites from cyst

B. Formation of cyst from trophozoites

C. Both of them

D. None of them

25 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

A. Sulphadimethoxine

B. Sulphadoxine

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphadimethoxy pyridazine

26 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

A. Phenyl and benzyl

B. Propyl and phenyl

C. Methyl and benzyl

D. Butyl and phenyl

27 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

A. Temperature below 15°c

B. Temperature above 15°c

C. Temperature should be 30°c

D. Temperature between 15-30°c

28 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

A. Methyl Group

B. Ethynyl group

C. Propionyl group

D. Propargyl group

29 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

A. Cotrimoxazole

B. Sulphadiazine

C. Sulphacetamide sodium

D. Sulphamethoxazole

30 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

A. Amoebic dysentery

B. Helminth infection

C. Fungal infection

D. None of them

31 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

A. Ethambutol

B. Diazepam

C. Haldol

D. Isoniazid

32 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

A. Salicylic acid

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Dapsone

D. Methyl salicylic acid

33 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

A. Disinfection

B. Antisepsis

C. Sterilization

D. Coronisation

34 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

A. Crystalluria

B. Peripheral neuropathy

C. Liver damage

D. Metabolic syndrome

35 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

A. Direct contact

B. Formites

C. Contaminated food and drink

D. Rodents

36 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

A. Jaundice

B. Diarrhea

C. Peripheral neuropathy

D. All of them

37 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphamethoxazole

B. Sulfafuraole

C. Sulphadimidine

D. Sulphapyridine

38 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

A. ene

B. ic

C. one

D. yl

39 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

40 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

A. Sulphamethoxine

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphamethoxy pyridazine

41 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C₃₀H_{62 .}

A. Propdecane

B. Eicosane

C. Triacontane

D. Dodecane

42 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphacetamide

B. Sulphasalazine

C. Sulphapyridine

D. Sulphadoxine

43 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

A. Cyclopropane

B. Cyclobutane

C. Cyclopentane

D. Cyclohexane

44 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Isoniazid

D. Ethambutol

45 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

A. Damage to DNA

B. Enzyme inhibition

C. Cell wall destruction

D. All of them

46 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

A. Aniline

B. Sulfone

C. Amine

D. All of them

47 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

A. Vicucidal

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacteriostatic

D. Disinfectant

48 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

A. Pyrazine-4- carbohydrazide

B. Pyridine-4- carbohydrazide

C. pyrimidine-4- carbohydrazide

D. pyridine-4-carboxamide

49 / 50

DDS stands for......

A. Diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. Diamino divinyl sulphone

C. Dimethyl diphenyl sulphone

D. Diphenyl sulphone

50 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

A. Clofazimine and Rifampicin

B. Dopamine and Rifampicin

C. Clofazimine and ofloxacin

D. All of them

Your score is

The average score is 23%

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Created by

Noteskarts

Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Bronchoconstriction

Constipation

Block accommodation reflex

2 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Phenytoin

Carbamazepine

Diazepam

Paraldehyde

3 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

Q and S

R and S

Q and R

P and S

4 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

Atropine

Phenothiazines

All of the above

Scopolamines

5 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Salicylates

Prednisolone

Ethanol

Clofibrate

6 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Carbamazepine

Scopolamine

Atropine

Metoclopramide

7 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

D-tubocurarine

Succinylcholine

Gallamine

Hexamethonium

8 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Potentiation

Addition

Synergism

Antagonism

9 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinomimetic

Cholinesterase inhibitor

Cholinolytics

Sympathomimetic

10 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Nephritis

Alopecia

Agranulocytosis

Drug fever

11 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Cerebral thrombosis

Hypertension

Breast Carcinoma

Dysmenorrhoea

12 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

To check the activity straight muscle

None of the above

13 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

Desmethyl spironolactone

Acetylspironolactone

Canrenone

None of the above

14 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Physostigmine

Atropine

Bethanechol

Pilocarpine

15 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Warfarin

Alcohol

Amitriptyline

Digoxin

16 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Rifampicin

Grape juice

Carbamazepine

Barbiturates

17 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Pancuronium

All of the above

Gallamine

Tubocurarine

18 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Bradycardia

Hypertension

Dry mouth

Tachycardia

19 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

20 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

21 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To stimulate would healing

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

All of the above

To cause haemeostasis

22 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

A stupor or somnolent state

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

23 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Antagonist

Competitive antagonism

Partial agonist

Non-competitive antagonism

24 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Loss of accommodation

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Mydriasis

Reduced sweating

25 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Palpitation

Tremor

Respiratory difficulty

Cerebral heamorrhage

26 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Pirenzepine

Darifenacin

Hyoscine

Cyclopentolate

27 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Neostigmine

Pralidoxime

Physostigmine

Tubocurarine

28 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M1 antagonist

M2 antagonist

M3 antagonist

M3 agonist

29 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Suppression of insulin secretion

Stimulation of insulin release

None of above

Suppression of glucagon secretion

30 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

Vasopressin

F S H

Prolactin

31 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Detect the impurity in a given drug

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

32 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Inhibits GIT motility

Prevents miosis

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

33 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

All of the above

Ephedrine

Dopamine

Amphetamine

34 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Methylation

Glucuronide conjugation

Sulfate conjunction:

α amino acid conjunction

35 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Physostigmine

Ecothiopate

Both a and b

Dispropyl flurophosphate

36 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

All of the above

Atropine

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

37 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Prolactin

Oxytocin

Insulin

Histamine

38 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Facilitated diffusion

Ion pair transport

Active transport

Passive diffusion

39 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Cerebral cortex

Exocrine gland

Corpus striatum

Heart

40 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Increased heart rate

Miosis

Mental aberration

41 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

All of the above

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

42 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Atropine

Isoprenaline

Acetylcholine

Noradrenaline

43 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

Neostigmine

Pralidoxime

Physostigmine

None of the above

44 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

Pregnancy

Renal insufficiency

IDDM

All of the above

45 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Stimulating B2 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

Blocking B2 receptor

46 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Edrophonium

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

Pyridostigmine

47 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

All of the above

Inhibiting release from storage sites

Competing at receptor sites

48 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

None of above

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

49 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Enzyme linked

GPCR

Steroid receptor

Ion channel

50 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Isopropanol

Epinephrine

Dopamine

All of the above

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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1783

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. In cold place

b. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

c. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

d. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

2 / 25

2. Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule W

3 / 25

3. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule X

b. Schedule U

c. Schedule W

d. Schedule Y

4 / 25

4. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 32

b. Form 20

c. Form 36

d. Form 24

5 / 25

5. Insulin comes under

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule O

6 / 25

6. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Adulterated drug

b. Drug

c. Spurious drug

d. Misbranded drug

7 / 25

7. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 25E

b. Form 21

c. Form 20

d. Form 24D

8 / 25

8. Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1995

b. 1919

c. 1948

d. 1940

9 / 25

9. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

b. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

c. To prescribe drug

d. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

10 / 25

10. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Five

b. Three

c. Four

d. Six

11 / 25

11. Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

b. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

c. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

d. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

12 / 25

12. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule S

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule E

13 / 25

13. Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 3B

b. Section 17

c. Section 17B

d. Section 17A

14 / 25

14. Appendix II is about

a. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

b. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

c. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

d. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

15 / 25

15. "Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for surgical dressing

b. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

c. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

d. Standard for production of sera

16 / 25

16. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. President

b. State Government of Delhi

c. Central Government

d. Election of Registered Pharmacists

17 / 25

17. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule D

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule F

d. Schedule B

18 / 25

18. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 5

b. 1

c. 3

d. 2

19 / 25

19. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 4

b. 3

c. 2

d. 1

20 / 25

20. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Capsule

b. Antigen

c. Toxins

d. Sera

21 / 25

21. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule U

b. Schedule V

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule U1

22 / 25

22. Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

23 / 25

23. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Five years

b. Three years

c. Four years

d. Six years

24 / 25

24. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form36

b. Form 30

c. Form 31

d. Form 32

25 / 25

25. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule C

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule M

Your score is

The average score is 40%

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369

1 / 50

1. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

a. Six

b. Nine

c. Seven

d. Five

2 / 50

2. The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

a. 1950

b. 1955

c. 1985

d. 1940

3 / 50

3. Dettol comes under

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule N

c. Schedule Q

d. Schedule P

4 / 50

4. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

a. Every 3 year

b. Every 6 year

c. Every 2 year

d. Every 5 year

5 / 50

5. Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

a. To determine maximum tolerated dose in humans, Pharmacodynamics effects, Adverse effect.

b. Long time adverse effects aster marketing drug

c. Determine Possible therapeutic uses, Effective doses range

d. Efficacy and Safety of drug in longer number of patients (500 patients)

6 / 50

6. MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

a. South Africa

b. UK

c. Brazil

d. Denmark

7 / 50

7. Schedule N states

a. List of minimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy

b. Requirement of factory premises and hygienic condition to complied

c. List of minimum equipment required for manufacturing of drug.

d. Standard for cosmetics

8 / 50

8. Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

b. In cold place

c. At the Temperature 2°C to 8°C and it must not allow to freeze

d. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

9 / 50

9. The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

a. Drug Controller

b. President, Pharmacy Council of India

c. Central Government

d. Ministry of Education

10 / 50

10. Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

a. B

b. A

c. C and C1

d. X

11 / 50

11. One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

a. Chief administrative medical officer of the state

b. Chief pharmacist of government hospital

c. All

d. Assistant drug controller

12 / 50

12. As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

a. Well closed container, protect from light, in cool place, protect from light

b. A Cold place

c. A cool place

d. Temperature not exceeding 5°C

13 / 50

13. DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

a. Four

b. Five

c. Six

d. Eight

14 / 50

14. For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

a. 21

b. 20

c. 21B

d. 20B

15 / 50

15. If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

a. White

b. Blue

c. Red

d. Yellow

16 / 50

16. Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

a. List of generic drugs

b. None of the above

c. Guidelines for clinical Trials

d. List of incurable diseases

17 / 50

17. The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule M

c. Schedule F

d. Schedule O

18 / 50

18. Schedule C is related to

a. List of Ayurvedic product

b. List of Homeopathy product

c. List of Allopathic product

d. List of Biological and Immunological product

19 / 50

19. List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule H

d. Schedule I

20 / 50

20. List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

a. H

b. X

c. K

d. G

21 / 50

21. Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

a. Schedule ‘C’ ‘G’ drugs

b. Ayurvedic drugs

c. Toilet preparations

d. Misbranded drugs

22 / 50

22. MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

a. UK

b. South Africa

c. Denmark

d. Brazil

23 / 50

23. Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

a. S

b. R1

c. O

d. R

24 / 50

24. Example of Schedule G drug is

a. Metformin

b. Barbital

c. Cefuroxime

d. Enalapril

25 / 50

25. Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

a. V

b. X

c. Y

d. W

26 / 50

26. As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

a. Area required to open wholesale drug store

b. List of maximum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

c. Area for opening retail pharmacy

d. List of minimum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

27 / 50

27. Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

a. Q

b. A

c. D

d. FF

28 / 50

28. Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

a. Disease or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure

b. List of prescription drugs

c. List of drug exempted from the provision of import of drugs

d. Requirements of factory premises

29 / 50

29. Pack size of drug is covered under

a. Schedule P1

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule O

30 / 50

30. Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

a. Form 27

b. Form 26

c. Form 24

d. Form 25

31 / 50

31. Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

a. 1985

b. 1954

c. 1919

d. 1948

32 / 50

32. Aspirin sodium comes under

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule H

33 / 50

33. Patent Act is established in

a. 1970

b. 1940

c. 1919

d. 1948

34 / 50

34. Schedule J is related to

a. List of disease and ailments which drug cannot claim.

b. Curable disease

c. Pack sizes of drugs.

d. GMP

35 / 50

35. List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule Q

36 / 50

36. TGA is regulatory agency of………….

a. India

b. Australia

c. Denmark

d. Zimbabwe

37 / 50

37. For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

a. 400 square meters

b. 500 square meters

c. 150 square meters

d. 250 square meters

38 / 50

38. Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

a. Phase II

b. Phase I

c. Phase V

d. Phase III

39 / 50

39. Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

a. Schedule J

b. Schedule K

c. Schedule L

d. Schedule P

40 / 50

40. Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 1

41 / 50

41. In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

a. Government Analyst

b. Chief Administrator medical officer of state

c. President of India

d. The officer in charge of drugs control organization

42 / 50

42. In 1954 one of the following act is passed

a. The Medical Termination of pregnancy Act

b. Poisonous Act.

c. Narcotic and psychotropic substance Act

d. Drug and magic Remedies Act

43 / 50

43. Coca, opium and hemp come under:

a. Dangerous Drug Act

b. Poisons Act

c. Spurious Drug Act

d. Insecticide Act

44 / 50

44. Injection syringe and needles are covered under

a. Schedule B

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule Q

d. Schedule A

45 / 50

45. Hatch Waxman Act is related to

a. Banned drugs

b. Spurious drugs Act

c. Dangerous drugs Act

d. Over the counter drugs

46 / 50

46. If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

a. Spurious Drug

b. Adulterated Drug

c. Misbranded Drug

d. True Drug

47 / 50

47. As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

a. Ophthalmic preparation

b. Skin cosmetic preparation

c. Parenteral preparation

d. Ointment formulation

48 / 50

48. For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

a. Symbol H displayed on right top corner of the label.

b. Symbol N is red displayed on left top corner of the label

c. Symbol N displayed on left top corner of the label.

d. Symbol X given in red

49 / 50

49. As per D and C act schedule T stated about

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Medical device

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Allopathy drugs

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Homeopathy drugs

50 / 50

50. In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

a. 1-10 patients

b. 100 patients

c. 10-12 patients

d. 500 patients

Your score is

The average score is 38%

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