Pharmacy Weekly Quiz By Noteskarts Test Series

Weekly Quizzes

Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-1

Oct 02, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

60 Min Duration
50 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

Start

Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-2

Oct 08, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

15 Min Duration
15 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

Start

Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-3

Oct 15, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

25 Min Duration
25 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

Start

Human Anatomy and Physiology test For DPEE

Created By: Noteskarts

15 Min Duration
25 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

Start

Join our Best MCQs

1338

Created on June 10, 2022 By

NotesKarts

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

A. Sulphadimethoxine

B. Sulphadoxine

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphadimethoxy pyridazine

2 / 50

Functional group present in INH

A. Carbohydrazide

B. Carbonyl group

C. Carboxamide

D. Carboxylic group

3 / 50

DDS stands for......

A. Diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. Diamino divinyl sulphone

C. Dimethyl diphenyl sulphone

D. Diphenyl sulphone

4 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

A. Moxifloxacin

B. Dapsone

C. Clofazimine

D. Ethambutol

5 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

A. Direct contact

B. Formites

C. Contaminated food and drink

D. Rodents

6 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

A. ene

B. ic

C. one

D. yl

7 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C₃₀H_{62 .}

A. Propdecane

B. Eicosane

C. Triacontane

D. Dodecane

8 / 50

Excystation is _______

A. Formation of trophozoites from cyst

B. Formation of cyst from trophozoites

C. Both of them

D. None of them

9 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

A. 4,4'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. 2,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

C. 4,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

D. 4,4'-diamino dimethyl sulphone

10 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

A. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase

B. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase

C. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase

D. Activation of DNA gyrase

11 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

A. Vicucidal

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacteriostatic

D. Disinfectant

12 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Dapsone

D. Di-iodohydroxy quinoline

13 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

A. Jaundice

B. Diarrhea

C. Peripheral neuropathy

D. All of them

14 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Entamoeba subtilis

D. Entamoeba chrysogenum

15 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

A. Salicylic acid

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Dapsone

D. Methyl salicylic acid

16 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

A. Chlorhexidine

B. Diazepam

C. Miglitol

D. Lorazepam

17 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

A. True

B. False

18 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Isoniazid

D. Ethambutol

19 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

A. Hepatic amoebiasis

B. Pulmonary amebiasis

C. Cerebral amobiasis

D. All of the above

20 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

A. Phenyl and benzyl

B. Propyl and phenyl

C. Methyl and benzyl

D. Butyl and phenyl

21 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphamethoxazole

B. Sulfafuraole

C. Sulphadimidine

D. Sulphapyridine

22 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

A. Sulphamethoxine

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphamethoxy pyridazine

23 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

A. Silver

B. Titanium

C. Lead

D. Tin

24 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

A. Amoebic dysentery

B. Helminth infection

C. Fungal infection

D. None of them

25 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

A. Compared to antibiotics

B. Compared to statins

C. Compared to sulpha drugs

D. Compared to antitubercular drugs

26 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

A. Crystalluria

B. Peripheral neuropathy

C. Liver damage

D. Metabolic syndrome

27 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

A. Ethambutol

B. Diazepam

C. Haldol

D. Isoniazid

28 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

A. Cotrimoxazole

B. Sulphadiazine

C. Sulphacetamide sodium

D. Sulphamethoxazole

29 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphacetamide

B. Sulphasalazine

C. Sulphapyridine

D. Sulphadoxine

30 / 50

Antiseptic are

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

31 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

A. Alkanes

B. Alkenes

C. Alkynes

D. Alkaloids

32 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

A. Pyrazine-4- carbohydrazide

B. Pyridine-4- carbohydrazide

C. pyrimidine-4- carbohydrazide

D. pyridine-4-carboxamide

33 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

A. Temperature below 15°c

B. Temperature above 15°c

C. Temperature should be 30°c

D. Temperature between 15-30°c

34 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

A. Piperidine

B. Pyridine

C. Oxazole

D. Pyrimidine

35 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

A. Aniline

B. Sulfone

C. Amine

D. All of them

36 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

A. para amino salicylic acid

B. Clofazimine

C. Dapsone

D. Ethambutol

37 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

38 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

A. Benzoyl peroxide

B. Tramadol

C. Zidovudine

D. Fluoxetine

39 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

A. Clofazimine and Rifampicin

B. Dopamine and Rifampicin

C. Clofazimine and ofloxacin

D. All of them

40 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

A. Alcohol

B. Phenol

C. Iodine

D. All of the above

41 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethionamide

C. Triacetazone

D. None of the above

42 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

A. Disinfection

B. Antisepsis

C. Sterilization

D. Coronisation

43 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

A. Damage to DNA

B. Enzyme inhibition

C. Cell wall destruction

D. All of them

44 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

A. Crystalluria

B. Hansen's disease

C. Liver cirrhosis

D. Mendel disease

45 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

A. Specifying the number of carbon atoms associated with the bond

B. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at beginning of the C=C bond

C. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at end of the C=C bond

D. Specifying the number of carbon atoms in the entire chain

46 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

A. Bacteria

B. Spores

C. Fungi

D. Viruses

47 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

A. Methyl Group

B. Ethynyl group

C. Propionyl group

D. Propargyl group

48 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

A. Exactly a double bond

B. Exactly a triple bond

C. Exactly two double bond

D. More than two double bond

49 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

A. Cyclopropane

B. Cyclobutane

C. Cyclopentane

D. Cyclohexane

50 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

A. Pyridine

B. Imidazole

C. Pyrimidine

D. Pyrazine

Your score is

The average score is 22%

LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte

1887

Created by

NotesKarts

Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

All of the above

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

2 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Salicylates

Ethanol

Prednisolone

Clofibrate

3 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Mental aberration

Increased heart rate

Miosis

4 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

5 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Atropine

Isoprenaline

Acetylcholine

Noradrenaline

6 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Grape juice

Barbiturates

Carbamazepine

Rifampicin

7 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Blocking B1 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

Stimulating B2 receptor

Blocking B2 receptor

8 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Cerebral thrombosis

Dysmenorrhoea

Hypertension

Breast Carcinoma

9 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Glucuronide conjugation

α amino acid conjunction

Methylation

Sulfate conjunction:

10 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Passive diffusion

Active transport

Ion pair transport

Facilitated diffusion

11 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

All of the above

Phenothiazines

Scopolamines

Atropine

12 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Dopamine

All of the above

Amphetamine

Ephedrine

13 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

Canrenone

Desmethyl spironolactone

None of the above

Acetylspironolactone

14 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Block accommodation reflex

Constipation

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Bronchoconstriction

15 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

R and S

Q and R

Q and S

P and S

16 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

None of the above

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

Pralidoxime

17 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Cyclopentolate

Darifenacin

Hyoscine

Pirenzepine

18 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

To check the activity straight muscle

None of the above

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

19 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Competitive antagonism

Antagonist

Non-competitive antagonism

Partial agonist

20 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Atropine

Pilocarpine

Bethanechol

Physostigmine

21 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

22 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

F S H

Prolactin

Vasopressin

23 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

All of the above

Dopamine

Epinephrine

Isopropanol

24 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

IDDM

Pregnancy

Renal insufficiency

All of the above

25 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Ion channel

GPCR

Steroid receptor

Enzyme linked

26 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Paraldehyde

Carbamazepine

Phenytoin

Diazepam

27 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

To cause haemeostasis

To stimulate would healing

All of the above

28 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Scopolamine

Carbamazepine

Atropine

Metoclopramide

29 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Physostigmine

Both a and b

Ecothiopate

Dispropyl flurophosphate

30 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Digoxin

Warfarin

Amitriptyline

Alcohol

31 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Gallamine

Succinylcholine

D-tubocurarine

Hexamethonium

32 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

All of the above

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

Inhibiting release from storage sites

Competing at receptor sites

33 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Detect the impurity in a given drug

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

34 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Suppression of glucagon secretion

Suppression of insulin secretion

Stimulation of insulin release

None of above

35 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Pralidoxime

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

Tubocurarine

36 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

37 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

None of above

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

38 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Exocrine gland

Corpus striatum

Heart

Cerebral cortex

39 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Antagonism

Addition

Potentiation

Synergism

40 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

Inhibits GIT motility

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Prevents miosis

41 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Tachycardia

Bradycardia

Dry mouth

Hypertension

42 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Respiratory difficulty

Tremor

Palpitation

Cerebral heamorrhage

43 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Neostigmine

Edrophonium

Pyridostigmine

Physostigmine

44 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Sympathomimetic

Cholinolytics

Cholinomimetic

Cholinesterase inhibitor

45 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Reduced sweating

Loss of accommodation

Mydriasis

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

46 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

All of the above

Atropine

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

47 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M1 antagonist

M3 antagonist

M3 agonist

M2 antagonist

48 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Insulin

Histamine

Oxytocin

Prolactin

49 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Nephritis

Alopecia

Agranulocytosis

Drug fever

50 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Gallamine

All of the above

Pancuronium

Tubocurarine

Your score is

The average score is 30%

LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte

1287

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Six

b. Five

c. Three

d. Four

2 / 25

2. Appendix II is about

a. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

b. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

c. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

d. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

3 / 25

3. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule V

b. Schedule U

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule U1

4 / 25

4. Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

b. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

c. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

d. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

5 / 25

5. Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 3B

b. Section 17

c. Section 17A

d. Section 17B

6 / 25

6. "Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

b. Standard for production of sera

c. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

d. Standard for surgical dressing

7 / 25

7. Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1948

b. 1995

c. 1919

d. 1940

8 / 25

8. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule E

b. Schedule S

c. Schedule R

d. Schedule O

9 / 25

9. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 2

b. 5

c. 3

d. 1

10 / 25

10. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 20

b. Form 36

c. Form 24

d. Form 32

11 / 25

11. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

b. In cold place

c. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

d. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

12 / 25

12. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule F

b. Schedule D

c. Schedule B

d. Schedule G

13 / 25

13. Insulin comes under

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule J

14 / 25

14. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Antigen

b. Capsule

c. Toxins

d. Sera

15 / 25

15. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 21

b. Form 25E

c. Form 24D

d. Form 20

16 / 25

16. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule M

b. Schedule C

c. Schedule R

d. Schedule P

17 / 25

17. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule X

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule W

d. Schedule U

18 / 25

18. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. State Government of Delhi

b. Election of Registered Pharmacists

c. President

d. Central Government

19 / 25

19. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form 30

b. Form 32

c. Form 31

d. Form36

20 / 25

20. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Spurious drug

b. Adulterated drug

c. Misbranded drug

d. Drug

21 / 25

21. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To prescribe drug

b. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

c. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

d. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

22 / 25

22. Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule W

23 / 25

23. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Five years

b. Six years

c. Three years

d. Four years

24 / 25

24. Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

25 / 25

25. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 4

b. 1

c. 2

d. 3

Your score is

The average score is 38%

LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte

295

1 / 50

1. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

a. Every 2 year

b. Every 5 year

c. Every 3 year

d. Every 6 year

2 / 50

2. For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

a. 250 square meters

b. 500 square meters

c. 400 square meters

d. 150 square meters

3 / 50

3. Schedule J is related to

a. Curable disease

b. List of disease and ailments which drug cannot claim.

c. GMP

d. Pack sizes of drugs.

4 / 50

4. As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

a. Parenteral preparation

b. Ointment formulation

c. Ophthalmic preparation

d. Skin cosmetic preparation

5 / 50

5. Hatch Waxman Act is related to

a. Over the counter drugs

b. Dangerous drugs Act

c. Spurious drugs Act

d. Banned drugs

6 / 50

6. Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule L

c. Schedule J

d. Schedule K

7 / 50

7. TGA is regulatory agency of………….

a. Denmark

b. India

c. Australia

d. Zimbabwe

8 / 50

8. As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

a. List of minimum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

b. Area for opening retail pharmacy

c. Area required to open wholesale drug store

d. List of maximum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

9 / 50

9. For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

a. Symbol H displayed on right top corner of the label.

b. Symbol N displayed on left top corner of the label.

c. Symbol N is red displayed on left top corner of the label

d. Symbol X given in red

10 / 50

10. Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

a. List of drug exempted from the provision of import of drugs

b. List of prescription drugs

c. Disease or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure

d. Requirements of factory premises

11 / 50

11. DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

a. Five

b. Eight

c. Six

d. Four

12 / 50

12. Injection syringe and needles are covered under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule B

c. Schedule A

d. Schedule Q

13 / 50

13. Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

a. Phase I

b. Phase III

c. Phase II

d. Phase V

14 / 50

14. Schedule N states

a. Standard for cosmetics

b. List of minimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy

c. List of minimum equipment required for manufacturing of drug.

d. Requirement of factory premises and hygienic condition to complied

15 / 50

15. MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

a. Brazil

b. Denmark

c. UK

d. South Africa

16 / 50

16. As per D and C act schedule T stated about

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Allopathy drugs

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Homeopathy drugs

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Medical device

17 / 50

17. Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

a. To determine maximum tolerated dose in humans, Pharmacodynamics effects, Adverse effect.

b. Determine Possible therapeutic uses, Effective doses range

c. Long time adverse effects aster marketing drug

d. Efficacy and Safety of drug in longer number of patients (500 patients)

18 / 50

18. Example of Schedule G drug is

a. Cefuroxime

b. Barbital

c. Metformin

d. Enalapril

19 / 50

19. The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

a. Schedule M

b. Schedule F

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule Y

20 / 50

20. Dettol comes under

a. Schedule N

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule Q

d. Schedule O

21 / 50

21. Aspirin sodium comes under

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule J

22 / 50

22. Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

a. Misbranded drugs

b. Ayurvedic drugs

c. Schedule ‘C’ ‘G’ drugs

d. Toilet preparations

23 / 50

23. Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

a. O

b. R

c. R1

d. S

24 / 50

24. In 1954 one of the following act is passed

a. The Medical Termination of pregnancy Act

b. Drug and magic Remedies Act

c. Poisonous Act.

d. Narcotic and psychotropic substance Act

25 / 50

25. Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

a. Y

b. X

c. V

d. W

26 / 50

26. Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

a. Form 26

b. Form 24

c. Form 27

d. Form 25

27 / 50

27. If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

a. Misbranded Drug

b. Spurious Drug

c. True Drug

d. Adulterated Drug

28 / 50

28. As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

a. A cool place

b. Temperature not exceeding 5°C

c. A Cold place

d. Well closed container, protect from light, in cool place, protect from light

29 / 50

29. Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

a. A

b. C and C1

c. B

d. X

30 / 50

30. Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

a. A

b. D

c. Q

d. FF

31 / 50

31. Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

a. Guidelines for clinical Trials

b. None of the above

c. List of generic drugs

d. List of incurable diseases

32 / 50

32. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

a. Five

b. Six

c. Nine

d. Seven

33 / 50

33. The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

a. 1940

b. 1955

c. 1950

d. 1985

34 / 50

34. List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule Q

c. Schedule R

d. Schedule P

35 / 50

35. One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

a. All

b. Chief administrative medical officer of the state

c. Assistant drug controller

d. Chief pharmacist of government hospital

36 / 50

36. In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

a. 500 patients

b. 10-12 patients

c. 100 patients

d. 1-10 patients

37 / 50

37. Coca, opium and hemp come under:

a. Insecticide Act

b. Poisons Act

c. Spurious Drug Act

d. Dangerous Drug Act

38 / 50

38. Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

b. In cold place

c. At the Temperature 2°C to 8°C and it must not allow to freeze

d. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

39 / 50

39. Schedule C is related to

a. List of Biological and Immunological product

b. List of Allopathic product

c. List of Ayurvedic product

d. List of Homeopathy product

40 / 50

40. Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

a. 1985

b. 1954

c. 1919

d. 1948

41 / 50

41. List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

a. Schedule J

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule I

d. Schedule G

42 / 50

42. MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

a. Denmark

b. Brazil

c. UK

d. South Africa

43 / 50

43. If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

a. Blue

b. Yellow

c. Red

d. White

44 / 50

44. Patent Act is established in

a. 1919

b. 1940

c. 1948

d. 1970

45 / 50

45. For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

a. 20B

b. 20

c. 21B

d. 21

46 / 50

46. Pack size of drug is covered under

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule P1

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule O

47 / 50

47. In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

a. President of India

b. The officer in charge of drugs control organization

c. Government Analyst

d. Chief Administrator medical officer of state

48 / 50

48. The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

a. Ministry of Education

b. Central Government

c. Drug Controller

d. President, Pharmacy Council of India

49 / 50

49. List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

a. H

b. G

c. K

d. X

50 / 50

50. Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

a. 2

b. 4

c. 3

d. 1

Your score is

The average score is 36%

LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte

Join our Free Service

Join Our YouTube Channel

Join Now

What's in for You?

Noteskarts Test Series

Join this Test Series for improve your Knowledge

Go to test

AKTU Paper

Download Previous Year Paper PDF

Go to Paper

Drugs Notes

Know About Drugs

Go To Drugs Notes

Noteskarts D.Pharma App

Install Our App From Play Store

Install Now

OUR STUDENTS LOVE US ❤

Sir apki notes ki vajah se D pharmacy final year me 4th number pe aya hu. Thank you sir for your support❤🙏

Praful

D.pharm notes nice 👍 thank you so much 🥰

Karuppasamy Mala

Sochne se matlab nhi bhaai... Ager aap B-Pharma ke notes provide kroge toh ham krenge...❤

Saif Ansari

Watch Now | Noteskarts, D.Pharma Notes PDF, D.Pharma 1st year Notes, Pharmacy Notes Noteskarts Pharmacy Weekly Quiz By Noteskarts test series

message | Noteskarts, D.Pharma Notes PDF, D.Pharma 1st year Notes, Pharmacy Notes Noteskarts Pharmacy Weekly Quiz By Noteskarts test series

JOIN US

Telegram Youtube Instagram Whatsapp Android Facebook-f