Pharmacy Weekly Quiz By Noteskarts Test Series

Weekly Quizzes

Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-1

Oct 02, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

60 Min Duration
50 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-2

Oct 08, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

15 Min Duration
15 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-3

Oct 15, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

25 Min Duration
25 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Human Anatomy and Physiology test For DPEE

Created By: Noteskarts

15 Min Duration
25 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Join our Best MCQs

1836

Created on June 10, 2022 By

Noteskarts

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

2 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

A. Cyclopropane

B. Cyclobutane

C. Cyclopentane

D. Cyclohexane

3 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

A. Crystalluria

B. Peripheral neuropathy

C. Liver damage

D. Metabolic syndrome

4 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

A. Bacteria

B. Spores

C. Fungi

D. Viruses

5 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

A. Crystalluria

B. Hansen's disease

C. Liver cirrhosis

D. Mendel disease

6 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

A. Cotrimoxazole

B. Sulphadiazine

C. Sulphacetamide sodium

D. Sulphamethoxazole

7 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

A. ene

B. ic

C. one

D. yl

8 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

A. Compared to antibiotics

B. Compared to statins

C. Compared to sulpha drugs

D. Compared to antitubercular drugs

9 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

A. Methyl Group

B. Ethynyl group

C. Propionyl group

D. Propargyl group

10 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

A. Pyridine

B. Imidazole

C. Pyrimidine

D. Pyrazine

11 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

A. Hepatic amoebiasis

B. Pulmonary amebiasis

C. Cerebral amobiasis

D. All of the above

12 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

A. Moxifloxacin

B. Dapsone

C. Clofazimine

D. Ethambutol

13 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

A. Alkanes

B. Alkenes

C. Alkynes

D. Alkaloids

14 / 50

DDS stands for......

A. Diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. Diamino divinyl sulphone

C. Dimethyl diphenyl sulphone

D. Diphenyl sulphone

15 / 50

Functional group present in INH

A. Carbohydrazide

B. Carbonyl group

C. Carboxamide

D. Carboxylic group

16 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Dapsone

D. Di-iodohydroxy quinoline

17 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

A. Exactly a double bond

B. Exactly a triple bond

C. Exactly two double bond

D. More than two double bond

18 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethionamide

C. Triacetazone

D. None of the above

19 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphamethoxazole

B. Sulfafuraole

C. Sulphadimidine

D. Sulphapyridine

20 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

A. Amoebic dysentery

B. Helminth infection

C. Fungal infection

D. None of them

21 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

A. Piperidine

B. Pyridine

C. Oxazole

D. Pyrimidine

22 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

A. Benzoyl peroxide

B. Tramadol

C. Zidovudine

D. Fluoxetine

23 / 50

Excystation is _______

A. Formation of trophozoites from cyst

B. Formation of cyst from trophozoites

C. Both of them

D. None of them

24 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

A. Sulphamethoxine

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphamethoxy pyridazine

25 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

A. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase

B. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase

C. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase

D. Activation of DNA gyrase

26 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

A. Ethambutol

B. Diazepam

C. Haldol

D. Isoniazid

27 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

A. Pyrazine-4- carbohydrazide

B. Pyridine-4- carbohydrazide

C. pyrimidine-4- carbohydrazide

D. pyridine-4-carboxamide

28 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Entamoeba subtilis

D. Entamoeba chrysogenum

29 / 50

Antiseptic are

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

30 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

A. Direct contact

B. Formites

C. Contaminated food and drink

D. Rodents

31 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

A. Silver

B. Titanium

C. Lead

D. Tin

32 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

A. Specifying the number of carbon atoms associated with the bond

B. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at beginning of the C=C bond

C. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at end of the C=C bond

D. Specifying the number of carbon atoms in the entire chain

33 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

A. Clofazimine and Rifampicin

B. Dopamine and Rifampicin

C. Clofazimine and ofloxacin

D. All of them

34 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

A. para amino salicylic acid

B. Clofazimine

C. Dapsone

D. Ethambutol

35 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

A. Salicylic acid

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Dapsone

D. Methyl salicylic acid

36 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

A. Aniline

B. Sulfone

C. Amine

D. All of them

37 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

A. Disinfection

B. Antisepsis

C. Sterilization

D. Coronisation

38 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Isoniazid

D. Ethambutol

39 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

A. Damage to DNA

B. Enzyme inhibition

C. Cell wall destruction

D. All of them

40 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

A. Chlorhexidine

B. Diazepam

C. Miglitol

D. Lorazepam

41 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

A. Alcohol

B. Phenol

C. Iodine

D. All of the above

42 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

A. 4,4'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. 2,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

C. 4,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

D. 4,4'-diamino dimethyl sulphone

43 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

A. True

B. False

44 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

A. Sulphadimethoxine

B. Sulphadoxine

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphadimethoxy pyridazine

45 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

A. Temperature below 15°c

B. Temperature above 15°c

C. Temperature should be 30°c

D. Temperature between 15-30°c

46 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

A. Jaundice

B. Diarrhea

C. Peripheral neuropathy

D. All of them

47 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C₃₀H_{62 .}

A. Propdecane

B. Eicosane

C. Triacontane

D. Dodecane

48 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

A. Vicucidal

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacteriostatic

D. Disinfectant

49 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphacetamide

B. Sulphasalazine

C. Sulphapyridine

D. Sulphadoxine

50 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

A. Phenyl and benzyl

B. Propyl and phenyl

C. Methyl and benzyl

D. Butyl and phenyl

Your score is

The average score is 23%

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2752

Created by

Noteskarts

Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

Pregnancy

All of the above

IDDM

Renal insufficiency

2 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Clofibrate

Ethanol

Prednisolone

Salicylates

3 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Ion channel

Enzyme linked

Steroid receptor

GPCR

4 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Pralidoxime

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

Tubocurarine

5 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Ephedrine

Amphetamine

All of the above

Dopamine

6 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Isoprenaline

Noradrenaline

Atropine

Acetylcholine

7 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Insulin

Histamine

Prolactin

Oxytocin

8 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

R and S

Q and R

P and S

Q and S

9 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Both a and b

Physostigmine

Ecothiopate

10 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Darifenacin

Hyoscine

Cyclopentolate

Pirenzepine

11 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M2 antagonist

M3 antagonist

M1 antagonist

M3 agonist

12 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

All of the above

13 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Constipation

Bronchoconstriction

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Block accommodation reflex

14 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Neostigmine

Edrophonium

Pyridostigmine

Physostigmine

15 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Loss of accommodation

Reduced sweating

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Mydriasis

16 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Alcohol

Digoxin

Warfarin

Amitriptyline

17 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Epinephrine

All of the above

Dopamine

Isopropanol

18 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Bradycardia

Tachycardia

Hypertension

Dry mouth

19 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Respiratory difficulty

Cerebral heamorrhage

Tremor

Palpitation

20 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Agranulocytosis

Nephritis

Alopecia

Drug fever

21 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Antagonism

Potentiation

Addition

Synergism

22 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Neostigmine

Atropine

All of the above

Physostigmine

23 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

None of the above

To check the activity straight muscle

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

24 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Mental aberration

Miosis

Increased heart rate

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

25 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Corpus striatum

Heart

Exocrine gland

Cerebral cortex

26 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Dysmenorrhoea

Cerebral thrombosis

Hypertension

Breast Carcinoma

27 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Inhibits GIT motility

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

Prevents miosis

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

28 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

Phenothiazines

All of the above

Scopolamines

Atropine

29 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

α amino acid conjunction

Sulfate conjunction:

Glucuronide conjugation

Methylation

30 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Scopolamine

Atropine

Metoclopramide

Carbamazepine

31 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Competing at receptor sites

Inhibiting release from storage sites

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

All of the above

32 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

A stupor or somnolent state

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

33 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Bethanechol

Physostigmine

Atropine

Pilocarpine

34 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Detect the impurity in a given drug

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

35 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Tubocurarine

All of the above

Pancuronium

Gallamine

36 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

Prolactin

Vasopressin

F S H

37 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

Canrenone

Desmethyl spironolactone

None of the above

Acetylspironolactone

38 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Stimulation of insulin release

None of above

Suppression of glucagon secretion

Suppression of insulin secretion

39 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

Pralidoxime

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

None of the above

40 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

41 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Carbamazepine

Barbiturates

Grape juice

Rifampicin

42 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Succinylcholine

D-tubocurarine

Hexamethonium

Gallamine

43 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinomimetic

Cholinolytics

Cholinesterase inhibitor

Sympathomimetic

44 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Non-competitive antagonism

Competitive antagonism

Antagonist

Partial agonist

45 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

None of above

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

46 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Carbamazepine

Diazepam

Phenytoin

Paraldehyde

47 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Blocking B1 receptor

Blocking B2 receptor

Stimulating B2 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

48 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To stimulate would healing

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

All of the above

To cause haemeostasis

49 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

50 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Ion pair transport

Passive diffusion

Active transport

Facilitated diffusion

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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1770

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. Central Government

b. Election of Registered Pharmacists

c. State Government of Delhi

d. President

2 / 25

2. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Toxins

b. Antigen

c. Sera

d. Capsule

3 / 25

3. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Five years

b. Six years

c. Four years

d. Three years

4 / 25

4. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 25E

b. Form 20

c. Form 21

d. Form 24D

5 / 25

5. Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1995

b. 1948

c. 1919

d. 1940

6 / 25

6. Insulin comes under

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule H

d. Schedule G

7 / 25

7. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form 32

b. Form36

c. Form 31

d. Form 30

8 / 25

8. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule W

c. Schedule X

d. Schedule U

9 / 25

9. Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule W

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule H

d. Schedule G

10 / 25

10. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule U1

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule U

d. Schedule V

11 / 25

11. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 36

b. Form 32

c. Form 24

d. Form 20

12 / 25

12. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Four

b. Five

c. Three

d. Six

13 / 25

13. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

b. To prescribe drug

c. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

d. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

14 / 25

14. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 5

b. 1

c. 3

d. 2

15 / 25

15. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule F

b. Schedule D

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule B

16 / 25

16. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule S

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule E

d. Schedule R

17 / 25

17. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. In cold place

b. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

c. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

d. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

18 / 25

18. Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

19 / 25

19. "Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

b. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

c. Standard for surgical dressing

d. Standard for production of sera

20 / 25

20. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 3

b. 2

c. 4

d. 1

21 / 25

21. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Adulterated drug

b. Misbranded drug

c. Spurious drug

d. Drug

22 / 25

22. Appendix II is about

a. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

b. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

c. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

d. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

23 / 25

23. Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

b. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

c. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

d. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

24 / 25

24. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule M

b. Schedule C

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule R

25 / 25

25. Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 17

b. Section 3B

c. Section 17B

d. Section 17A

Your score is

The average score is 40%

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365

1 / 50

1. If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

a. White

b. Blue

c. Red

d. Yellow

2 / 50

2. MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

a. UK

b. Brazil

c. South Africa

d. Denmark

3 / 50

3. TGA is regulatory agency of………….

a. Australia

b. Denmark

c. India

d. Zimbabwe

4 / 50

4. For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

a. 150 square meters

b. 500 square meters

c. 400 square meters

d. 250 square meters

5 / 50

5. Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

a. 1985

b. 1954

c. 1948

d. 1919

6 / 50

6. Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

a. W

b. X

c. Y

d. V

7 / 50

7. Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

a. Q

b. D

c. FF

d. A

8 / 50

8. The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule M

c. Schedule F

d. Schedule Y

9 / 50

9. For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

a. Symbol H displayed on right top corner of the label.

b. Symbol N is red displayed on left top corner of the label

c. Symbol X given in red

d. Symbol N displayed on left top corner of the label.

10 / 50

10. In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

a. 500 patients

b. 1-10 patients

c. 10-12 patients

d. 100 patients

11 / 50

11. In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

a. President of India

b. Chief Administrator medical officer of state

c. The officer in charge of drugs control organization

d. Government Analyst

12 / 50

12. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

a. Every 5 year

b. Every 2 year

c. Every 3 year

d. Every 6 year

13 / 50

13. As per D and C act schedule T stated about

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Homeopathy drugs

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Allopathy drugs

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Medical device

14 / 50

14. Hatch Waxman Act is related to

a. Dangerous drugs Act

b. Over the counter drugs

c. Banned drugs

d. Spurious drugs Act

15 / 50

15. Dettol comes under

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule Q

c. Schedule N

d. Schedule P

16 / 50

16. Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

a. R

b. S

c. R1

d. O

17 / 50

17. List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

a. X

b. K

c. G

d. H

18 / 50

18. Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

a. B

b. A

c. C and C1

d. X

19 / 50

19. One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

a. Assistant drug controller

b. Chief pharmacist of government hospital

c. Chief administrative medical officer of the state

d. All

20 / 50

20. Injection syringe and needles are covered under

a. Schedule Q

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule B

d. Schedule A

21 / 50

21. As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

a. Ointment formulation

b. Skin cosmetic preparation

c. Ophthalmic preparation

d. Parenteral preparation

22 / 50

22. Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

a. 1

b. 4

c. 2

d. 3

23 / 50

23. In 1954 one of the following act is passed

a. Narcotic and psychotropic substance Act

b. Poisonous Act.

c. The Medical Termination of pregnancy Act

d. Drug and magic Remedies Act

24 / 50

24. Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

a. Phase II

b. Phase V

c. Phase I

d. Phase III

25 / 50

25. The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

a. Drug Controller

b. President, Pharmacy Council of India

c. Ministry of Education

d. Central Government

26 / 50

26. Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

a. Form 25

b. Form 24

c. Form 27

d. Form 26

27 / 50

27. DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

a. Five

b. Four

c. Six

d. Eight

28 / 50

28. Pack size of drug is covered under

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule P1

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule O

29 / 50

29. As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

a. Well closed container, protect from light, in cool place, protect from light

b. A Cold place

c. Temperature not exceeding 5°C

d. A cool place

30 / 50

30. Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

a. Schedule ‘C’ ‘G’ drugs

b. Toilet preparations

c. Ayurvedic drugs

d. Misbranded drugs

31 / 50

31. List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule I

c. Schedule J

d. Schedule G

32 / 50

32. List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule Q

33 / 50

33. Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

a. List of drug exempted from the provision of import of drugs

b. Requirements of factory premises

c. Disease or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure

d. List of prescription drugs

34 / 50

34. If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

a. Spurious Drug

b. True Drug

c. Misbranded Drug

d. Adulterated Drug

35 / 50

35. As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

a. List of maximum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

b. List of minimum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

c. Area for opening retail pharmacy

d. Area required to open wholesale drug store

36 / 50

36. Schedule J is related to

a. Curable disease

b. GMP

c. Pack sizes of drugs.

d. List of disease and ailments which drug cannot claim.

37 / 50

37. Schedule C is related to

a. List of Biological and Immunological product

b. List of Homeopathy product

c. List of Allopathic product

d. List of Ayurvedic product

38 / 50

38. Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

b. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

c. In cold place

d. At the Temperature 2°C to 8°C and it must not allow to freeze

39 / 50

39. Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule K

d. Schedule L

40 / 50

40. Coca, opium and hemp come under:

a. Dangerous Drug Act

b. Insecticide Act

c. Spurious Drug Act

d. Poisons Act

41 / 50

41. Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

a. List of incurable diseases

b. List of generic drugs

c. None of the above

d. Guidelines for clinical Trials

42 / 50

42. Patent Act is established in

a. 1970

b. 1948

c. 1940

d. 1919

43 / 50

43. MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

a. Denmark

b. Brazil

c. South Africa

d. UK

44 / 50

44. Example of Schedule G drug is

a. Barbital

b. Metformin

c. Cefuroxime

d. Enalapril

45 / 50

45. For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

a. 21

b. 20

c. 20B

d. 21B

46 / 50

46. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

a. Seven

b. Five

c. Nine

d. Six

47 / 50

47. The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

a. 1955

b. 1940

c. 1985

d. 1950

48 / 50

48. Aspirin sodium comes under

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule H

d. Schedule J

49 / 50

49. Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

a. Long time adverse effects aster marketing drug

b. Efficacy and Safety of drug in longer number of patients (500 patients)

c. To determine maximum tolerated dose in humans, Pharmacodynamics effects, Adverse effect.

d. Determine Possible therapeutic uses, Effective doses range

50 / 50

50. Schedule N states

a. List of minimum equipment required for manufacturing of drug.

b. Standard for cosmetics

c. Requirement of factory premises and hygienic condition to complied

d. List of minimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy

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The average score is 38%

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