Pharmacy Weekly Quiz By Noteskarts Test Series

Weekly Quizzes

Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-1

Oct 02, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

60 Min Duration
50 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-2

Oct 08, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

15 Min Duration
15 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-3

Oct 15, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

25 Min Duration
25 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Human Anatomy and Physiology test For DPEE

Created By: Noteskarts

15 Min Duration
25 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Join our Best MCQs

1097

Created on June 10, 2022 By

NotesKarts

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

A. Ethambutol

B. Diazepam

C. Haldol

D. Isoniazid

2 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

A. Methyl Group

B. Ethynyl group

C. Propionyl group

D. Propargyl group

3 / 50

DDS stands for......

A. Diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. Diamino divinyl sulphone

C. Dimethyl diphenyl sulphone

D. Diphenyl sulphone

4 / 50

Antiseptic are

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

5 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

A. Crystalluria

B. Hansen's disease

C. Liver cirrhosis

D. Mendel disease

6 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

A. Benzoyl peroxide

B. Tramadol

C. Zidovudine

D. Fluoxetine

7 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

A. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase

B. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase

C. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase

D. Activation of DNA gyrase

8 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

A. Jaundice

B. Diarrhea

C. Peripheral neuropathy

D. All of them

9 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphamethoxazole

B. Sulfafuraole

C. Sulphadimidine

D. Sulphapyridine

10 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

A. True

B. False

11 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

A. Temperature below 15°c

B. Temperature above 15°c

C. Temperature should be 30°c

D. Temperature between 15-30°c

12 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

A. Vicucidal

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacteriostatic

D. Disinfectant

13 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

A. Alkanes

B. Alkenes

C. Alkynes

D. Alkaloids

14 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

A. Salicylic acid

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Dapsone

D. Methyl salicylic acid

15 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

A. Pyridine

B. Imidazole

C. Pyrimidine

D. Pyrazine

16 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

A. Moxifloxacin

B. Dapsone

C. Clofazimine

D. Ethambutol

17 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

A. Sulphamethoxine

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphamethoxy pyridazine

18 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

A. Amoebic dysentery

B. Helminth infection

C. Fungal infection

D. None of them

19 / 50

Functional group present in INH

A. Carbohydrazide

B. Carbonyl group

C. Carboxamide

D. Carboxylic group

20 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

A. Disinfection

B. Antisepsis

C. Sterilization

D. Coronisation

21 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

A. Pyrazine-4- carbohydrazide

B. Pyridine-4- carbohydrazide

C. pyrimidine-4- carbohydrazide

D. pyridine-4-carboxamide

22 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Entamoeba subtilis

D. Entamoeba chrysogenum

23 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

A. Cotrimoxazole

B. Sulphadiazine

C. Sulphacetamide sodium

D. Sulphamethoxazole

24 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

A. Chlorhexidine

B. Diazepam

C. Miglitol

D. Lorazepam

25 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

A. Exactly a double bond

B. Exactly a triple bond

C. Exactly two double bond

D. More than two double bond

26 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

A. Crystalluria

B. Peripheral neuropathy

C. Liver damage

D. Metabolic syndrome

27 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

A. para amino salicylic acid

B. Clofazimine

C. Dapsone

D. Ethambutol

28 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

A. Aniline

B. Sulfone

C. Amine

D. All of them

29 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

A. Specifying the number of carbon atoms associated with the bond

B. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at beginning of the C=C bond

C. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at end of the C=C bond

D. Specifying the number of carbon atoms in the entire chain

30 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

A. Direct contact

B. Formites

C. Contaminated food and drink

D. Rodents

31 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Isoniazid

D. Ethambutol

32 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

A. Alcohol

B. Phenol

C. Iodine

D. All of the above

33 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

A. Damage to DNA

B. Enzyme inhibition

C. Cell wall destruction

D. All of them

34 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C₃₀H_{62 .}

A. Propdecane

B. Eicosane

C. Triacontane

D. Dodecane

35 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphacetamide

B. Sulphasalazine

C. Sulphapyridine

D. Sulphadoxine

36 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

A. Cyclopropane

B. Cyclobutane

C. Cyclopentane

D. Cyclohexane

37 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethionamide

C. Triacetazone

D. None of the above

38 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

A. 4,4'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. 2,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

C. 4,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

D. 4,4'-diamino dimethyl sulphone

39 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

A. Hepatic amoebiasis

B. Pulmonary amebiasis

C. Cerebral amobiasis

D. All of the above

40 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

A. Clofazimine and Rifampicin

B. Dopamine and Rifampicin

C. Clofazimine and ofloxacin

D. All of them

41 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

A. Piperidine

B. Pyridine

C. Oxazole

D. Pyrimidine

42 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Dapsone

D. Di-iodohydroxy quinoline

43 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

A. Bacteria

B. Spores

C. Fungi

D. Viruses

44 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

A. ene

B. ic

C. one

D. yl

45 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

A. Sulphadimethoxine

B. Sulphadoxine

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphadimethoxy pyridazine

46 / 50

Excystation is _______

A. Formation of trophozoites from cyst

B. Formation of cyst from trophozoites

C. Both of them

D. None of them

47 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

A. Phenyl and benzyl

B. Propyl and phenyl

C. Methyl and benzyl

D. Butyl and phenyl

48 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

A. Compared to antibiotics

B. Compared to statins

C. Compared to sulpha drugs

D. Compared to antitubercular drugs

49 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

50 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

A. Silver

B. Titanium

C. Lead

D. Tin

Your score is

The average score is 21%

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1446

Created by

NotesKarts

Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Suppression of insulin secretion

Suppression of glucagon secretion

None of above

Stimulation of insulin release

2 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

P and S

Q and R

R and S

Q and S

3 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

All of the above

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

4 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Loss of accommodation

Mydriasis

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Reduced sweating

5 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Passive diffusion

Active transport

Facilitated diffusion

Ion pair transport

6 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Physostigmine

Tubocurarine

Pralidoxime

Neostigmine

7 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Dry mouth

Bradycardia

Tachycardia

Hypertension

8 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

9 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Inhibits GIT motility

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Prevents miosis

10 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Salicylates

Ethanol

Prednisolone

Clofibrate

11 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Succinylcholine

Hexamethonium

Gallamine

D-tubocurarine

12 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

A stupor or somnolent state

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

13 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

All of the above

Tubocurarine

Pancuronium

Gallamine

14 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

Desmethyl spironolactone

Canrenone

Acetylspironolactone

None of the above

15 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Isoprenaline

Noradrenaline

Atropine

Acetylcholine

16 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

Pralidoxime

Physostigmine

None of the above

Neostigmine

17 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

None of the above

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

To check the activity straight muscle

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

18 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Diazepam

Paraldehyde

Phenytoin

Carbamazepine

19 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Prolactin

Oxytocin

Histamine

Insulin

20 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Non-competitive antagonism

Competitive antagonism

Antagonist

Partial agonist

21 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Physostigmine

Bethanechol

Pilocarpine

Atropine

22 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

23 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Mental aberration

Miosis

Increased heart rate

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

24 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Carbamazepine

Scopolamine

Atropine

Metoclopramide

25 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

None of above

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

26 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Neostigmine

Edrophonium

Pyridostigmine

Physostigmine

27 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Heart

Exocrine gland

Corpus striatum

Cerebral cortex

28 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

Detect the impurity in a given drug

29 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Nephritis

Agranulocytosis

Drug fever

Alopecia

30 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

α amino acid conjunction

Sulfate conjunction:

Glucuronide conjugation

Methylation

31 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Potentiation

Synergism

Addition

Antagonism

32 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Rifampicin

Carbamazepine

Barbiturates

Grape juice

33 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Dopamine

Amphetamine

All of the above

Ephedrine

34 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Constipation

Bronchoconstriction

Block accommodation reflex

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

35 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Stimulating B2 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

Blocking B2 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

36 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M3 agonist

M3 antagonist

M2 antagonist

M1 antagonist

37 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Physostigmine

Both a and b

Ecothiopate

38 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

Atropine

All of the above

39 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Sympathomimetic

Cholinomimetic

Cholinesterase inhibitor

Cholinolytics

40 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Hyoscine

Pirenzepine

Darifenacin

Cyclopentolate

41 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

F S H

Vasopressin

Prolactin

42 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Respiratory difficulty

Palpitation

Cerebral heamorrhage

Tremor

43 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

All of the above

Dopamine

Epinephrine

Isopropanol

44 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

All of the above

Scopolamines

Atropine

Phenothiazines

45 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

All of the above

Competing at receptor sites

Inhibiting release from storage sites

46 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Steroid receptor

Ion channel

GPCR

Enzyme linked

47 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

All of the above

IDDM

Pregnancy

Renal insufficiency

48 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Warfarin

Digoxin

Amitriptyline

Alcohol

49 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

All of the above

To cause haemeostasis

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

To stimulate would healing

50 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Hypertension

Breast Carcinoma

Cerebral thrombosis

Dysmenorrhoea

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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1072

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule S

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule E

d. Schedule O

2 / 25

2. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Adulterated drug

b. Drug

c. Spurious drug

d. Misbranded drug

3 / 25

3. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 21

b. Form 25E

c. Form 24D

d. Form 20

4 / 25

4. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form 30

b. Form36

c. Form 32

d. Form 31

5 / 25

5. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. Central Government

b. President

c. Election of Registered Pharmacists

d. State Government of Delhi

6 / 25

6. Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1995

b. 1948

c. 1940

d. 1919

7 / 25

7. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 24

b. Form 20

c. Form 32

d. Form 36

8 / 25

8. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

b. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

c. To prescribe drug

d. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

9 / 25

9. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 5

b. 2

c. 1

d. 3

10 / 25

10. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule M

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule C

11 / 25

11. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule X

c. Schedule W

d. Schedule U

12 / 25

12. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

b. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

c. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

d. In cold place

13 / 25

13. Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 3B

b. Section 17B

c. Section 17A

d. Section 17

14 / 25

14. Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

15 / 25

15. Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule W

d. Schedule Y

16 / 25

16. "Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for surgical dressing

b. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

c. Standard for production of sera

d. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

17 / 25

17. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule U

c. Schedule U1

d. Schedule V

18 / 25

18. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Toxins

b. Antigen

c. Capsule

d. Sera

19 / 25

19. Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

b. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

c. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

d. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

20 / 25

20. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Five years

b. Three years

c. Four years

d. Six years

21 / 25

21. Insulin comes under

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule J

22 / 25

22. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule D

b. Schedule B

c. Schedule F

d. Schedule G

23 / 25

23. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Five

b. Three

c. Six

d. Four

24 / 25

24. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 1

b. 4

c. 3

d. 2

25 / 25

25. Appendix II is about

a. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

b. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

c. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

d. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

Your score is

The average score is 38%

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243

1 / 50

1. For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

a. Symbol N is red displayed on left top corner of the label

b. Symbol N displayed on left top corner of the label.

c. Symbol H displayed on right top corner of the label.

d. Symbol X given in red

2 / 50

2. Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

a. 1985

b. 1954

c. 1919

d. 1948

3 / 50

3. Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

a. To determine maximum tolerated dose in humans, Pharmacodynamics effects, Adverse effect.

b. Efficacy and Safety of drug in longer number of patients (500 patients)

c. Determine Possible therapeutic uses, Effective doses range

d. Long time adverse effects aster marketing drug

4 / 50

4. For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

a. 250 square meters

b. 500 square meters

c. 400 square meters

d. 150 square meters

5 / 50

5. Pack size of drug is covered under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule P1

6 / 50

6. Dettol comes under

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule N

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule Q

7 / 50

7. Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

a. Phase III

b. Phase V

c. Phase II

d. Phase I

8 / 50

8. As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

a. Ophthalmic preparation

b. Parenteral preparation

c. Ointment formulation

d. Skin cosmetic preparation

9 / 50

9. Hatch Waxman Act is related to

a. Banned drugs

b. Dangerous drugs Act

c. Spurious drugs Act

d. Over the counter drugs

10 / 50

10. DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

a. Six

b. Eight

c. Five

d. Four

11 / 50

11. The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

a. Schedule F

b. Schedule M

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule O

12 / 50

12. As per D and C act schedule T stated about

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Medical device

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Allopathy drugs

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Homeopathy drugs

13 / 50

13. Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

a. List of incurable diseases

b. None of the above

c. Guidelines for clinical Trials

d. List of generic drugs

14 / 50

14. One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

a. All

b. Assistant drug controller

c. Chief pharmacist of government hospital

d. Chief administrative medical officer of the state

15 / 50

15. Schedule N states

a. List of minimum equipment required for manufacturing of drug.

b. Requirement of factory premises and hygienic condition to complied

c. List of minimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy

d. Standard for cosmetics

16 / 50

16. The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

a. 1950

b. 1985

c. 1940

d. 1955

17 / 50

17. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

a. Six

b. Five

c. Seven

d. Nine

18 / 50

18. If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

a. True Drug

b. Spurious Drug

c. Misbranded Drug

d. Adulterated Drug

19 / 50

19. Schedule C is related to

a. List of Homeopathy product

b. List of Biological and Immunological product

c. List of Allopathic product

d. List of Ayurvedic product

20 / 50

20. Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

a. O

b. R1

c. R

d. S

21 / 50

21. Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

a. 2

b. 4

c. 1

d. 3

22 / 50

22. If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

a. White

b. Yellow

c. Blue

d. Red

23 / 50

23. Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

a. Form 27

b. Form 25

c. Form 26

d. Form 24

24 / 50

24. MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

a. UK

b. Denmark

c. Brazil

d. South Africa

25 / 50

25. MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

a. South Africa

b. Brazil

c. UK

d. Denmark

26 / 50

26. As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

a. A Cold place

b. Temperature not exceeding 5°C

c. A cool place

d. Well closed container, protect from light, in cool place, protect from light

27 / 50

27. Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

a. Misbranded drugs

b. Ayurvedic drugs

c. Toilet preparations

d. Schedule ‘C’ ‘G’ drugs

28 / 50

28. Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

a. List of drug exempted from the provision of import of drugs

b. Requirements of factory premises

c. Disease or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure

d. List of prescription drugs

29 / 50

29. List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

a. X

b. H

c. G

d. K

30 / 50

30. In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

a. 10-12 patients

b. 1-10 patients

c. 100 patients

d. 500 patients

31 / 50

31. TGA is regulatory agency of………….

a. Denmark

b. India

c. Australia

d. Zimbabwe

32 / 50

32. Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

a. D

b. A

c. Q

d. FF

33 / 50

33. Schedule J is related to

a. GMP

b. Pack sizes of drugs.

c. List of disease and ailments which drug cannot claim.

d. Curable disease

34 / 50

34. As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

a. Area for opening retail pharmacy

b. Area required to open wholesale drug store

c. List of maximum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

d. List of minimum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

35 / 50

35. Aspirin sodium comes under

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule J

d. Schedule Y

36 / 50

36. Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

a. Y

b. X

c. W

d. V

37 / 50

37. For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

a. 21

b. 20

c. 21B

d. 20B

38 / 50

38. Injection syringe and needles are covered under

a. Schedule Q

b. Schedule A

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule B

39 / 50

39. In 1954 one of the following act is passed

a. Poisonous Act.

b. Drug and magic Remedies Act

c. The Medical Termination of pregnancy Act

d. Narcotic and psychotropic substance Act

40 / 50

40. The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

a. President, Pharmacy Council of India

b. Central Government

c. Drug Controller

d. Ministry of Education

41 / 50

41. In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

a. President of India

b. Chief Administrator medical officer of state

c. Government Analyst

d. The officer in charge of drugs control organization

42 / 50

42. Coca, opium and hemp come under:

a. Spurious Drug Act

b. Insecticide Act

c. Poisons Act

d. Dangerous Drug Act

43 / 50

43. Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

b. At the Temperature 2°C to 8°C and it must not allow to freeze

c. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

d. In cold place

44 / 50

44. Patent Act is established in

a. 1940

b. 1970

c. 1919

d. 1948

45 / 50

45. Example of Schedule G drug is

a. Barbital

b. Enalapril

c. Cefuroxime

d. Metformin

46 / 50

46. List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

a. Schedule Q

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule R

d. Schedule P

47 / 50

47. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

a. Every 3 year

b. Every 2 year

c. Every 6 year

d. Every 5 year

48 / 50

48. Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

a. Schedule J

b. Schedule K

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule L

49 / 50

49. List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule I

50 / 50

50. Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

a. A

b. B

c. X

d. C and C1

Your score is

The average score is 35%

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