Pharmacy Weekly Quiz By Noteskarts Test Series

Weekly Quizzes

Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-1

Oct 02, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

60 Min Duration
50 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-2

Oct 08, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

15 Min Duration
15 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-3

Oct 15, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

25 Min Duration
25 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Human Anatomy and Physiology test For DPEE

Created By: Noteskarts

15 Min Duration
25 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Join our Best MCQs

1798

Created on June 10, 2022 By

NotesKarts

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Isoniazid

D. Ethambutol

2 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

A. Silver

B. Titanium

C. Lead

D. Tin

3 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

A. Crystalluria

B. Peripheral neuropathy

C. Liver damage

D. Metabolic syndrome

4 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

A. Crystalluria

B. Hansen's disease

C. Liver cirrhosis

D. Mendel disease

5 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

A. Specifying the number of carbon atoms associated with the bond

B. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at beginning of the C=C bond

C. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at end of the C=C bond

D. Specifying the number of carbon atoms in the entire chain

6 / 50

Excystation is _______

A. Formation of trophozoites from cyst

B. Formation of cyst from trophozoites

C. Both of them

D. None of them

7 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

A. Hepatic amoebiasis

B. Pulmonary amebiasis

C. Cerebral amobiasis

D. All of the above

8 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C₃₀H_{62 .}

A. Propdecane

B. Eicosane

C. Triacontane

D. Dodecane

9 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

10 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

A. para amino salicylic acid

B. Clofazimine

C. Dapsone

D. Ethambutol

11 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

A. Cyclopropane

B. Cyclobutane

C. Cyclopentane

D. Cyclohexane

12 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

A. Pyridine

B. Imidazole

C. Pyrimidine

D. Pyrazine

13 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

A. Moxifloxacin

B. Dapsone

C. Clofazimine

D. Ethambutol

14 / 50

Antiseptic are

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

15 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

A. Compared to antibiotics

B. Compared to statins

C. Compared to sulpha drugs

D. Compared to antitubercular drugs

16 / 50

Functional group present in INH

A. Carbohydrazide

B. Carbonyl group

C. Carboxamide

D. Carboxylic group

17 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

A. ene

B. ic

C. one

D. yl

18 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

A. Disinfection

B. Antisepsis

C. Sterilization

D. Coronisation

19 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

A. Salicylic acid

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Dapsone

D. Methyl salicylic acid

20 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

A. Ethambutol

B. Diazepam

C. Haldol

D. Isoniazid

21 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

A. Methyl Group

B. Ethynyl group

C. Propionyl group

D. Propargyl group

22 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

A. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase

B. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase

C. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase

D. Activation of DNA gyrase

23 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

A. Vicucidal

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacteriostatic

D. Disinfectant

24 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

A. 4,4'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. 2,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

C. 4,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

D. 4,4'-diamino dimethyl sulphone

25 / 50

DDS stands for......

A. Diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. Diamino divinyl sulphone

C. Dimethyl diphenyl sulphone

D. Diphenyl sulphone

26 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphacetamide

B. Sulphasalazine

C. Sulphapyridine

D. Sulphadoxine

27 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

A. Exactly a double bond

B. Exactly a triple bond

C. Exactly two double bond

D. More than two double bond

28 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

A. Sulphadimethoxine

B. Sulphadoxine

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphadimethoxy pyridazine

29 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

A. True

B. False

30 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

A. Direct contact

B. Formites

C. Contaminated food and drink

D. Rodents

31 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

A. Piperidine

B. Pyridine

C. Oxazole

D. Pyrimidine

32 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

A. Aniline

B. Sulfone

C. Amine

D. All of them

33 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

A. Temperature below 15°c

B. Temperature above 15°c

C. Temperature should be 30°c

D. Temperature between 15-30°c

34 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

A. Sulphamethoxine

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphamethoxy pyridazine

35 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethionamide

C. Triacetazone

D. None of the above

36 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

A. Jaundice

B. Diarrhea

C. Peripheral neuropathy

D. All of them

37 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

A. Alcohol

B. Phenol

C. Iodine

D. All of the above

38 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

A. Alkanes

B. Alkenes

C. Alkynes

D. Alkaloids

39 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

A. Clofazimine and Rifampicin

B. Dopamine and Rifampicin

C. Clofazimine and ofloxacin

D. All of them

40 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

A. Pyrazine-4- carbohydrazide

B. Pyridine-4- carbohydrazide

C. pyrimidine-4- carbohydrazide

D. pyridine-4-carboxamide

41 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

A. Damage to DNA

B. Enzyme inhibition

C. Cell wall destruction

D. All of them

42 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphamethoxazole

B. Sulfafuraole

C. Sulphadimidine

D. Sulphapyridine

43 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

A. Phenyl and benzyl

B. Propyl and phenyl

C. Methyl and benzyl

D. Butyl and phenyl

44 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

A. Bacteria

B. Spores

C. Fungi

D. Viruses

45 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Entamoeba subtilis

D. Entamoeba chrysogenum

46 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

A. Benzoyl peroxide

B. Tramadol

C. Zidovudine

D. Fluoxetine

47 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

A. Chlorhexidine

B. Diazepam

C. Miglitol

D. Lorazepam

48 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

A. Amoebic dysentery

B. Helminth infection

C. Fungal infection

D. None of them

49 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Dapsone

D. Di-iodohydroxy quinoline

50 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

A. Cotrimoxazole

B. Sulphadiazine

C. Sulphacetamide sodium

D. Sulphamethoxazole

Your score is

The average score is 23%

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2711

Created by

NotesKarts

Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Synergism

Potentiation

Antagonism

Addition

2 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Paraldehyde

Diazepam

Carbamazepine

Phenytoin

3 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

Pralidoxime

None of the above

4 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Glucuronide conjugation

Methylation

α amino acid conjunction

Sulfate conjunction:

5 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Pilocarpine

Bethanechol

Physostigmine

Atropine

6 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

None of the above

To check the activity straight muscle

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

7 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

All of the above

IDDM

Renal insufficiency

Pregnancy

8 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Insulin

Histamine

Oxytocin

Prolactin

9 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Cerebral thrombosis

Dysmenorrhoea

Hypertension

Breast Carcinoma

10 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

Competing at receptor sites

All of the above

Inhibiting release from storage sites

11 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

None of above

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

12 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Atropine

Isoprenaline

Acetylcholine

Noradrenaline

13 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Suppression of glucagon secretion

None of above

Stimulation of insulin release

Suppression of insulin secretion

14 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M2 antagonist

M3 agonist

M1 antagonist

M3 antagonist

15 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

16 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Atropine

Scopolamine

Carbamazepine

Metoclopramide

17 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

18 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Cyclopentolate

Pirenzepine

Darifenacin

Hyoscine

19 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Partial agonist

Competitive antagonism

Non-competitive antagonism

Antagonist

20 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Steroid receptor

GPCR

Enzyme linked

Ion channel

21 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Passive diffusion

Active transport

Facilitated diffusion

Ion pair transport

22 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinolytics

Sympathomimetic

Cholinomimetic

Cholinesterase inhibitor

23 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Tubocurarine

Physostigmine

Pralidoxime

Neostigmine

24 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To stimulate would healing

All of the above

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

To cause haemeostasis

25 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Block accommodation reflex

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Bronchoconstriction

Constipation

26 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Inhibits GIT motility

Prevents miosis

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

27 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

All of the above

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

28 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

All of the above

Amphetamine

Dopamine

Ephedrine

29 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Palpitation

Cerebral heamorrhage

Tremor

Respiratory difficulty

30 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Pancuronium

All of the above

Tubocurarine

Gallamine

31 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

Desmethyl spironolactone

None of the above

Acetylspironolactone

Canrenone

32 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

33 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Rifampicin

Barbiturates

Carbamazepine

Grape juice

34 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Mental aberration

Increased heart rate

Miosis

35 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Hypertension

Tachycardia

Bradycardia

Dry mouth

36 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

Vasopressin

Prolactin

F S H

37 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

Q and R

R and S

Q and S

P and S

38 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Salicylates

Clofibrate

Prednisolone

Ethanol

39 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Edrophonium

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

Pyridostigmine

40 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

Detect the impurity in a given drug

41 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Agranulocytosis

Nephritis

Drug fever

Alopecia

42 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Hexamethonium

D-tubocurarine

Gallamine

Succinylcholine

43 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Reduced sweating

Loss of accommodation

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Mydriasis

44 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Physostigmine

Both a and b

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Ecothiopate

45 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Isopropanol

Epinephrine

All of the above

Dopamine

46 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Neostigmine

Atropine

Physostigmine

All of the above

47 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

Phenothiazines

All of the above

Atropine

Scopolamines

48 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Blocking B1 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

Blocking B2 receptor

Stimulating B2 receptor

49 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Digoxin

Amitriptyline

Warfarin

Alcohol

50 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Cerebral cortex

Corpus striatum

Exocrine gland

Heart

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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1758

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

2 / 25

2. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 36

b. Form 32

c. Form 20

d. Form 24

3 / 25

3. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule C

d. Schedule M

4 / 25

4. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Spurious drug

b. Misbranded drug

c. Adulterated drug

d. Drug

5 / 25

5. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 3

b. 4

c. 1

d. 2

6 / 25

6. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule F

b. Schedule D

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule B

7 / 25

7. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule S

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule E

8 / 25

8. Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule W

d. Schedule G

9 / 25

9. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. Central Government

b. President

c. Election of Registered Pharmacists

d. State Government of Delhi

10 / 25

10. Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 17A

b. Section 3B

c. Section 17B

d. Section 17

11 / 25

11. Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

b. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

c. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

d. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

12 / 25

12. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form36

b. Form 30

c. Form 32

d. Form 31

13 / 25

13. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Six

b. Four

c. Three

d. Five

14 / 25

14. "Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for production of sera

b. Standard for surgical dressing

c. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

d. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

15 / 25

15. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule X

b. Schedule W

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule U

16 / 25

16. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 24D

b. Form 20

c. Form 25E

d. Form 21

17 / 25

17. Insulin comes under

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule G

18 / 25

18. Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1919

b. 1940

c. 1948

d. 1995

19 / 25

19. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Antigen

b. Capsule

c. Toxins

d. Sera

20 / 25

20. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Three years

b. Four years

c. Five years

d. Six years

21 / 25

21. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To prescribe drug

b. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

c. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

d. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

22 / 25

22. Appendix II is about

a. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

b. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

c. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

d. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

23 / 25

23. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

b. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

c. In cold place

d. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

24 / 25

24. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule V

b. Schedule U1

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule U

25 / 25

25. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 2

b. 1

c. 3

d. 5

Your score is

The average score is 39%

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358

1 / 50

1. For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

a. 21

b. 21B

c. 20

d. 20B

2 / 50

2. Aspirin sodium comes under

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule J

d. Schedule Y

3 / 50

3. As per D and C act schedule T stated about

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Medical device

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Allopathy drugs

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Homeopathy drugs

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs

4 / 50

4. MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

a. South Africa

b. Brazil

c. UK

d. Denmark

5 / 50

5. Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

a. D

b. FF

c. A

d. Q

6 / 50

6. In 1954 one of the following act is passed

a. Drug and magic Remedies Act

b. The Medical Termination of pregnancy Act

c. Poisonous Act.

d. Narcotic and psychotropic substance Act

7 / 50

7. Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

a. List of generic drugs

b. List of incurable diseases

c. Guidelines for clinical Trials

d. None of the above

8 / 50

8. The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

a. Drug Controller

b. Central Government

c. President, Pharmacy Council of India

d. Ministry of Education

9 / 50

9. Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

a. Form 24

b. Form 26

c. Form 27

d. Form 25

10 / 50

10. In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

a. President of India

b. The officer in charge of drugs control organization

c. Chief Administrator medical officer of state

d. Government Analyst

11 / 50

11. Dettol comes under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule N

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule Q

12 / 50

12. For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

a. Symbol N displayed on left top corner of the label.

b. Symbol N is red displayed on left top corner of the label

c. Symbol H displayed on right top corner of the label.

d. Symbol X given in red

13 / 50

13. MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

a. South Africa

b. Denmark

c. UK

d. Brazil

14 / 50

14. DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

a. Six

b. Eight

c. Five

d. Four

15 / 50

15. Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

a. Toilet preparations

b. Schedule ‘C’ ‘G’ drugs

c. Ayurvedic drugs

d. Misbranded drugs

16 / 50

16. For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

a. 500 square meters

b. 250 square meters

c. 400 square meters

d. 150 square meters

17 / 50

17. Schedule C is related to

a. List of Ayurvedic product

b. List of Homeopathy product

c. List of Allopathic product

d. List of Biological and Immunological product

18 / 50

18. Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

a. 1

b. 2

c. 4

d. 3

19 / 50

19. As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

a. A cool place

b. A Cold place

c. Well closed container, protect from light, in cool place, protect from light

d. Temperature not exceeding 5°C

20 / 50

20. List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

a. Schedule I

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule H

21 / 50

21. Schedule N states

a. List of minimum equipment required for manufacturing of drug.

b. Standard for cosmetics

c. Requirement of factory premises and hygienic condition to complied

d. List of minimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy

22 / 50

22. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

a. Five

b. Nine

c. Six

d. Seven

23 / 50

23. Injection syringe and needles are covered under

a. Schedule A

b. Schedule Q

c. Schedule B

d. Schedule P

24 / 50

24. Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

a. C and C1

b. A

c. B

d. X

25 / 50

25. If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

a. Red

b. Blue

c. Yellow

d. White

26 / 50

26. The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

a. Schedule M

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule F

27 / 50

27. Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

a. V

b. W

c. X

d. Y

28 / 50

28. Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

a. To determine maximum tolerated dose in humans, Pharmacodynamics effects, Adverse effect.

b. Determine Possible therapeutic uses, Effective doses range

c. Efficacy and Safety of drug in longer number of patients (500 patients)

d. Long time adverse effects aster marketing drug

29 / 50

29. List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule R

d. Schedule Q

30 / 50

30. As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

a. Ophthalmic preparation

b. Parenteral preparation

c. Ointment formulation

d. Skin cosmetic preparation

31 / 50

31. Example of Schedule G drug is

a. Enalapril

b. Barbital

c. Metformin

d. Cefuroxime

32 / 50

32. The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

a. 1985

b. 1940

c. 1955

d. 1950

33 / 50

33. Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

a. Phase I

b. Phase III

c. Phase II

d. Phase V

34 / 50

34. As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

a. Area required to open wholesale drug store

b. List of minimum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

c. List of maximum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

d. Area for opening retail pharmacy

35 / 50

35. Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule L

d. Schedule K

36 / 50

36. Hatch Waxman Act is related to

a. Dangerous drugs Act

b. Spurious drugs Act

c. Over the counter drugs

d. Banned drugs

37 / 50

37. Pack size of drug is covered under

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule P1

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule P

38 / 50

38. TGA is regulatory agency of………….

a. Zimbabwe

b. India

c. Australia

d. Denmark

39 / 50

39. One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

a. Chief administrative medical officer of the state

b. Chief pharmacist of government hospital

c. All

d. Assistant drug controller

40 / 50

40. If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

a. True Drug

b. Adulterated Drug

c. Spurious Drug

d. Misbranded Drug

41 / 50

41. In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

a. 10-12 patients

b. 1-10 patients

c. 100 patients

d. 500 patients

42 / 50

42. Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

b. In cold place

c. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

d. At the Temperature 2°C to 8°C and it must not allow to freeze

43 / 50

43. Patent Act is established in

a. 1919

b. 1948

c. 1940

d. 1970

44 / 50

44. Schedule J is related to

a. List of disease and ailments which drug cannot claim.

b. Pack sizes of drugs.

c. Curable disease

d. GMP

45 / 50

45. Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

a. R1

b. O

c. S

d. R

46 / 50

46. Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

a. Requirements of factory premises

b. List of drug exempted from the provision of import of drugs

c. Disease or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure

d. List of prescription drugs

47 / 50

47. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

a. Every 3 year

b. Every 2 year

c. Every 6 year

d. Every 5 year

48 / 50

48. Coca, opium and hemp come under:

a. Insecticide Act

b. Dangerous Drug Act

c. Spurious Drug Act

d. Poisons Act

49 / 50

49. List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

a. H

b. G

c. K

d. X

50 / 50

50. Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

a. 1985

b. 1954

c. 1919

d. 1948

Your score is

The average score is 37%

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