Pharmacy Weekly Quiz By Noteskarts Test Series

Weekly Quizzes

Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-1

Oct 02, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

60 Min Duration
50 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-2

Oct 08, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

15 Min Duration
15 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-3

Oct 15, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

25 Min Duration
25 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Human Anatomy and Physiology test For DPEE

Created By: Noteskarts

15 Min Duration
25 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Join our Best MCQs

1837

Created on June 10, 2022 By

Noteskarts

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

A. Moxifloxacin

B. Dapsone

C. Clofazimine

D. Ethambutol

2 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

A. Pyridine

B. Imidazole

C. Pyrimidine

D. Pyrazine

3 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

A. Silver

B. Titanium

C. Lead

D. Tin

4 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

A. Jaundice

B. Diarrhea

C. Peripheral neuropathy

D. All of them

5 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

A. Alkanes

B. Alkenes

C. Alkynes

D. Alkaloids

6 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

A. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase

B. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase

C. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase

D. Activation of DNA gyrase

7 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

A. Cyclopropane

B. Cyclobutane

C. Cyclopentane

D. Cyclohexane

8 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

A. Methyl Group

B. Ethynyl group

C. Propionyl group

D. Propargyl group

9 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

A. Ethambutol

B. Diazepam

C. Haldol

D. Isoniazid

10 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C₃₀H_{62 .}

A. Propdecane

B. Eicosane

C. Triacontane

D. Dodecane

11 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

A. Disinfection

B. Antisepsis

C. Sterilization

D. Coronisation

12 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

A. Sulphamethoxine

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphamethoxy pyridazine

13 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Entamoeba subtilis

D. Entamoeba chrysogenum

14 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

A. Bacteria

B. Spores

C. Fungi

D. Viruses

15 / 50

DDS stands for......

A. Diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. Diamino divinyl sulphone

C. Dimethyl diphenyl sulphone

D. Diphenyl sulphone

16 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

A. Sulphadimethoxine

B. Sulphadoxine

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphadimethoxy pyridazine

17 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

A. para amino salicylic acid

B. Clofazimine

C. Dapsone

D. Ethambutol

18 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

A. Benzoyl peroxide

B. Tramadol

C. Zidovudine

D. Fluoxetine

19 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Isoniazid

D. Ethambutol

20 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

A. 4,4'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. 2,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

C. 4,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

D. 4,4'-diamino dimethyl sulphone

21 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

A. Cotrimoxazole

B. Sulphadiazine

C. Sulphacetamide sodium

D. Sulphamethoxazole

22 / 50

Excystation is _______

A. Formation of trophozoites from cyst

B. Formation of cyst from trophozoites

C. Both of them

D. None of them

23 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

A. Vicucidal

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacteriostatic

D. Disinfectant

24 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

A. Compared to antibiotics

B. Compared to statins

C. Compared to sulpha drugs

D. Compared to antitubercular drugs

25 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

A. ene

B. ic

C. one

D. yl

26 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphacetamide

B. Sulphasalazine

C. Sulphapyridine

D. Sulphadoxine

27 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

A. Exactly a double bond

B. Exactly a triple bond

C. Exactly two double bond

D. More than two double bond

28 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

A. Piperidine

B. Pyridine

C. Oxazole

D. Pyrimidine

29 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

A. Pyrazine-4- carbohydrazide

B. Pyridine-4- carbohydrazide

C. pyrimidine-4- carbohydrazide

D. pyridine-4-carboxamide

30 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

A. Damage to DNA

B. Enzyme inhibition

C. Cell wall destruction

D. All of them

31 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

A. Amoebic dysentery

B. Helminth infection

C. Fungal infection

D. None of them

32 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

A. Aniline

B. Sulfone

C. Amine

D. All of them

33 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

A. Salicylic acid

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Dapsone

D. Methyl salicylic acid

34 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

A. True

B. False

35 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

A. Temperature below 15°c

B. Temperature above 15°c

C. Temperature should be 30°c

D. Temperature between 15-30°c

36 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

37 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

A. Alcohol

B. Phenol

C. Iodine

D. All of the above

38 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

A. Direct contact

B. Formites

C. Contaminated food and drink

D. Rodents

39 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

A. Crystalluria

B. Hansen's disease

C. Liver cirrhosis

D. Mendel disease

40 / 50

Functional group present in INH

A. Carbohydrazide

B. Carbonyl group

C. Carboxamide

D. Carboxylic group

41 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

A. Hepatic amoebiasis

B. Pulmonary amebiasis

C. Cerebral amobiasis

D. All of the above

42 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphamethoxazole

B. Sulfafuraole

C. Sulphadimidine

D. Sulphapyridine

43 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

A. Phenyl and benzyl

B. Propyl and phenyl

C. Methyl and benzyl

D. Butyl and phenyl

44 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

A. Specifying the number of carbon atoms associated with the bond

B. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at beginning of the C=C bond

C. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at end of the C=C bond

D. Specifying the number of carbon atoms in the entire chain

45 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

A. Chlorhexidine

B. Diazepam

C. Miglitol

D. Lorazepam

46 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethionamide

C. Triacetazone

D. None of the above

47 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

A. Clofazimine and Rifampicin

B. Dopamine and Rifampicin

C. Clofazimine and ofloxacin

D. All of them

48 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

A. Crystalluria

B. Peripheral neuropathy

C. Liver damage

D. Metabolic syndrome

49 / 50

Antiseptic are

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

50 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Dapsone

D. Di-iodohydroxy quinoline

Your score is

The average score is 23%

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2756

Created by

Noteskarts

Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

To check the activity straight muscle

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

None of the above

2 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

None of the above

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

Pralidoxime

3 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Digoxin

Amitriptyline

Warfarin

Alcohol

4 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

All of the above

Inhibiting release from storage sites

Competing at receptor sites

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

5 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Hyoscine

Darifenacin

Pirenzepine

Cyclopentolate

6 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

None of above

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

7 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

8 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

F S H

Prolactin

Vasopressin

9 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

All of the above

Atropine

Scopolamines

Phenothiazines

10 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Breast Carcinoma

Cerebral thrombosis

Hypertension

Dysmenorrhoea

11 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Competitive antagonism

Partial agonist

Non-competitive antagonism

Antagonist

12 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

To stimulate would healing

To cause haemeostasis

All of the above

13 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Metoclopramide

Scopolamine

Atropine

Carbamazepine

14 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Antagonism

Synergism

Potentiation

Addition

15 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinolytics

Sympathomimetic

Cholinomimetic

Cholinesterase inhibitor

16 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Cerebral cortex

Exocrine gland

Heart

Corpus striatum

17 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Gallamine

Succinylcholine

D-tubocurarine

Hexamethonium

18 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Tubocurarine

Pancuronium

All of the above

Gallamine

19 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M2 antagonist

M3 agonist

M1 antagonist

M3 antagonist

20 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Phenytoin

Carbamazepine

Paraldehyde

Diazepam

21 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Pralidoxime

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

Tubocurarine

22 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Both a and b

Ecothiopate

Physostigmine

23 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Blocking B1 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

Blocking B2 receptor

Stimulating B2 receptor

24 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Amphetamine

All of the above

Ephedrine

Dopamine

25 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Hypertension

Dry mouth

Bradycardia

Tachycardia

26 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

Q and S

P and S

Q and R

R and S

27 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Neostigmine

Pyridostigmine

Physostigmine

Edrophonium

28 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Detect the impurity in a given drug

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

29 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

All of the above

Isopropanol

Dopamine

Epinephrine

30 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Suppression of insulin secretion

None of above

Stimulation of insulin release

Suppression of glucagon secretion

31 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Pilocarpine

Bethanechol

Atropine

Physostigmine

32 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Increased heart rate

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Mental aberration

Miosis

33 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Steroid receptor

Enzyme linked

Ion channel

GPCR

34 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Alopecia

Nephritis

Agranulocytosis

Drug fever

35 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Prevents miosis

Inhibits GIT motility

36 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Prednisolone

Ethanol

Clofibrate

Salicylates

37 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Tremor

Cerebral heamorrhage

Respiratory difficulty

Palpitation

38 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Histamine

Insulin

Oxytocin

Prolactin

39 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

Canrenone

None of the above

Acetylspironolactone

Desmethyl spironolactone

40 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Barbiturates

Carbamazepine

Rifampicin

Grape juice

41 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

42 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Active transport

Passive diffusion

Ion pair transport

Facilitated diffusion

43 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

44 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Reduced sweating

Loss of accommodation

Mydriasis

45 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

IDDM

Renal insufficiency

Pregnancy

All of the above

46 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Constipation

Bronchoconstriction

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Block accommodation reflex

47 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Sulfate conjunction:

Glucuronide conjugation

α amino acid conjunction

Methylation

48 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

All of the above

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

49 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Isoprenaline

Noradrenaline

Acetylcholine

Atropine

50 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

Atropine

All of the above

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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1770

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 5

b. 2

c. 3

d. 1

2 / 25

2. Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1919

b. 1948

c. 1995

d. 1940

3 / 25

3. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form 32

b. Form 30

c. Form 31

d. Form36

4 / 25

4. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 20

b. Form 24D

c. Form 21

d. Form 25E

5 / 25

5. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 3

b. 4

c. 1

d. 2

6 / 25

6. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 32

b. Form 20

c. Form 36

d. Form 24

7 / 25

7. Appendix II is about

a. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

b. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

c. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

d. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

8 / 25

8. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule D

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule B

d. Schedule F

9 / 25

9. Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule W

d. Schedule G

10 / 25

10. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. President

b. State Government of Delhi

c. Central Government

d. Election of Registered Pharmacists

11 / 25

11. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule U

b. Schedule X

c. Schedule W

d. Schedule Y

12 / 25

12. Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 17

b. Section 17B

c. Section 17A

d. Section 3B

13 / 25

13. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule U

b. Schedule U1

c. Schedule V

d. Schedule Y

14 / 25

14. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Antigen

b. Toxins

c. Sera

d. Capsule

15 / 25

15. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Five years

b. Six years

c. Three years

d. Four years

16 / 25

16. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

b. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

c. In cold place

d. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

17 / 25

17. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule M

c. Schedule R

d. Schedule C

18 / 25

18. Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

19 / 25

19. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Four

b. Six

c. Three

d. Five

20 / 25

20. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Adulterated drug

b. Misbranded drug

c. Drug

d. Spurious drug

21 / 25

21. Insulin comes under

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule O

22 / 25

22. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

b. To prescribe drug

c. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

d. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

23 / 25

23. "Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

b. Standard for surgical dressing

c. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

d. Standard for production of sera

24 / 25

24. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule S

c. Schedule E

d. Schedule O

25 / 25

25. Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

b. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

c. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

d. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

Your score is

The average score is 40%

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365

1 / 50

1. MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

a. Brazil

b. UK

c. South Africa

d. Denmark

2 / 50

2. If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

a. Spurious Drug

b. True Drug

c. Misbranded Drug

d. Adulterated Drug

3 / 50

3. The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

a. Central Government

b. President, Pharmacy Council of India

c. Ministry of Education

d. Drug Controller

4 / 50

4. Patent Act is established in

a. 1970

b. 1948

c. 1940

d. 1919

5 / 50

5. Example of Schedule G drug is

a. Barbital

b. Metformin

c. Enalapril

d. Cefuroxime

6 / 50

6. Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

a. Y

b. X

c. W

d. V

7 / 50

7. One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

a. Chief administrative medical officer of the state

b. Chief pharmacist of government hospital

c. All

d. Assistant drug controller

8 / 50

8. For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

a. 21B

b. 21

c. 20

d. 20B

9 / 50

9. List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule Q

d. Schedule P

10 / 50

10. Pack size of drug is covered under

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule P1

11 / 50

11. The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

a. Schedule M

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule F

d. Schedule O

12 / 50

12. List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule I

c. Schedule J

d. Schedule G

13 / 50

13. Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

a. B

b. C and C1

c. A

d. X

14 / 50

14. For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

a. Symbol N is red displayed on left top corner of the label

b. Symbol X given in red

c. Symbol N displayed on left top corner of the label.

d. Symbol H displayed on right top corner of the label.

15 / 50

15. In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

a. 10-12 patients

b. 500 patients

c. 1-10 patients

d. 100 patients

16 / 50

16. Schedule N states

a. Standard for cosmetics

b. List of minimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy

c. List of minimum equipment required for manufacturing of drug.

d. Requirement of factory premises and hygienic condition to complied

17 / 50

17. Hatch Waxman Act is related to

a. Banned drugs

b. Dangerous drugs Act

c. Spurious drugs Act

d. Over the counter drugs

18 / 50

18. MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

a. South Africa

b. Denmark

c. Brazil

d. UK

19 / 50

19. Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

a. Efficacy and Safety of drug in longer number of patients (500 patients)

b. To determine maximum tolerated dose in humans, Pharmacodynamics effects, Adverse effect.

c. Determine Possible therapeutic uses, Effective doses range

d. Long time adverse effects aster marketing drug

20 / 50

20. Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

a. 2

b. 4

c. 1

d. 3

21 / 50

21. As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

a. Ophthalmic preparation

b. Skin cosmetic preparation

c. Ointment formulation

d. Parenteral preparation

22 / 50

22. Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

a. List of prescription drugs

b. List of drug exempted from the provision of import of drugs

c. Requirements of factory premises

d. Disease or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure

23 / 50

23. Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

a. Form 26

b. Form 24

c. Form 27

d. Form 25

24 / 50

24. As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

a. Temperature not exceeding 5°C

b. A cool place

c. A Cold place

d. Well closed container, protect from light, in cool place, protect from light

25 / 50

25. Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

a. Ayurvedic drugs

b. Misbranded drugs

c. Toilet preparations

d. Schedule ‘C’ ‘G’ drugs

26 / 50

26. In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

a. The officer in charge of drugs control organization

b. Government Analyst

c. Chief Administrator medical officer of state

d. President of India

27 / 50

27. The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

a. 1950

b. 1940

c. 1955

d. 1985

28 / 50

28. Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

b. At the Temperature 2°C to 8°C and it must not allow to freeze

c. In cold place

d. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

29 / 50

29. Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

a. R1

b. O

c. S

d. R

30 / 50

30. Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

a. Phase V

b. Phase I

c. Phase III

d. Phase II

31 / 50

31. Coca, opium and hemp come under:

a. Poisons Act

b. Spurious Drug Act

c. Dangerous Drug Act

d. Insecticide Act

32 / 50

32. List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

a. X

b. K

c. G

d. H

33 / 50

33. For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

a. 250 square meters

b. 500 square meters

c. 150 square meters

d. 400 square meters

34 / 50

34. TGA is regulatory agency of………….

a. India

b. Australia

c. Zimbabwe

d. Denmark

35 / 50

35. Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

a. Q

b. FF

c. D

d. A

36 / 50

36. As per D and C act schedule T stated about

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Medical device

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Allopathy drugs

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Homeopathy drugs

37 / 50

37. Injection syringe and needles are covered under

a. Schedule Q

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule B

d. Schedule A

38 / 50

38. Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

a. 1948

b. 1954

c. 1985

d. 1919

39 / 50

39. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

a. Seven

b. Nine

c. Five

d. Six

40 / 50

40. Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

a. Guidelines for clinical Trials

b. List of incurable diseases

c. None of the above

d. List of generic drugs

41 / 50

41. DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

a. Six

b. Four

c. Eight

d. Five

42 / 50

42. Aspirin sodium comes under

a. Schedule J

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule H

d. Schedule G

43 / 50

43. Dettol comes under

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule N

c. Schedule Q

d. Schedule P

44 / 50

44. If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

a. Yellow

b. Blue

c. White

d. Red

45 / 50

45. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

a. Every 5 year

b. Every 6 year

c. Every 2 year

d. Every 3 year

46 / 50

46. Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule K

c. Schedule J

d. Schedule L

47 / 50

47. As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

a. Area for opening retail pharmacy

b. Area required to open wholesale drug store

c. List of minimum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

d. List of maximum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

48 / 50

48. Schedule C is related to

a. List of Homeopathy product

b. List of Ayurvedic product

c. List of Allopathic product

d. List of Biological and Immunological product

49 / 50

49. In 1954 one of the following act is passed

a. Poisonous Act.

b. Narcotic and psychotropic substance Act

c. The Medical Termination of pregnancy Act

d. Drug and magic Remedies Act

50 / 50

50. Schedule J is related to

a. List of disease and ailments which drug cannot claim.

b. GMP

c. Pack sizes of drugs.

d. Curable disease

Your score is

The average score is 38%

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