Pharmacy Weekly Quiz By Noteskarts Test Series

Weekly Quizzes

Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-1

Oct 02, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

60 Min Duration
50 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-2

Oct 08, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

15 Min Duration
15 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-3

Oct 15, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

25 Min Duration
25 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Human Anatomy and Physiology test For DPEE

Created By: Noteskarts

15 Min Duration
25 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Join our Best MCQs

1818

Created on June 10, 2022 By

NotesKarts

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

A. Amoebic dysentery

B. Helminth infection

C. Fungal infection

D. None of them

2 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

A. Vicucidal

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacteriostatic

D. Disinfectant

3 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

A. Pyridine

B. Imidazole

C. Pyrimidine

D. Pyrazine

4 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

A. Moxifloxacin

B. Dapsone

C. Clofazimine

D. Ethambutol

5 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

A. Disinfection

B. Antisepsis

C. Sterilization

D. Coronisation

6 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C₃₀H_{62 .}

A. Propdecane

B. Eicosane

C. Triacontane

D. Dodecane

7 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

A. Compared to antibiotics

B. Compared to statins

C. Compared to sulpha drugs

D. Compared to antitubercular drugs

8 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

A. Ethambutol

B. Diazepam

C. Haldol

D. Isoniazid

9 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

A. Benzoyl peroxide

B. Tramadol

C. Zidovudine

D. Fluoxetine

10 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Entamoeba subtilis

D. Entamoeba chrysogenum

11 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

A. Alcohol

B. Phenol

C. Iodine

D. All of the above

12 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

A. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase

B. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase

C. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase

D. Activation of DNA gyrase

13 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Dapsone

D. Di-iodohydroxy quinoline

14 / 50

Excystation is _______

A. Formation of trophozoites from cyst

B. Formation of cyst from trophozoites

C. Both of them

D. None of them

15 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

A. ene

B. ic

C. one

D. yl

16 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

A. Hepatic amoebiasis

B. Pulmonary amebiasis

C. Cerebral amobiasis

D. All of the above

17 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Isoniazid

D. Ethambutol

18 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

A. Sulphadimethoxine

B. Sulphadoxine

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphadimethoxy pyridazine

19 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

A. Pyrazine-4- carbohydrazide

B. Pyridine-4- carbohydrazide

C. pyrimidine-4- carbohydrazide

D. pyridine-4-carboxamide

20 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

A. Exactly a double bond

B. Exactly a triple bond

C. Exactly two double bond

D. More than two double bond

21 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

A. Sulphamethoxine

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphamethoxy pyridazine

22 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

A. Cyclopropane

B. Cyclobutane

C. Cyclopentane

D. Cyclohexane

23 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethionamide

C. Triacetazone

D. None of the above

24 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

A. Clofazimine and Rifampicin

B. Dopamine and Rifampicin

C. Clofazimine and ofloxacin

D. All of them

25 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

A. Piperidine

B. Pyridine

C. Oxazole

D. Pyrimidine

26 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

27 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

A. Temperature below 15°c

B. Temperature above 15°c

C. Temperature should be 30°c

D. Temperature between 15-30°c

28 / 50

Functional group present in INH

A. Carbohydrazide

B. Carbonyl group

C. Carboxamide

D. Carboxylic group

29 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

A. Crystalluria

B. Peripheral neuropathy

C. Liver damage

D. Metabolic syndrome

30 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphacetamide

B. Sulphasalazine

C. Sulphapyridine

D. Sulphadoxine

31 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

A. Phenyl and benzyl

B. Propyl and phenyl

C. Methyl and benzyl

D. Butyl and phenyl

32 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

A. Crystalluria

B. Hansen's disease

C. Liver cirrhosis

D. Mendel disease

33 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

A. 4,4'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. 2,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

C. 4,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

D. 4,4'-diamino dimethyl sulphone

34 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

A. Aniline

B. Sulfone

C. Amine

D. All of them

35 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

A. True

B. False

36 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

A. Alkanes

B. Alkenes

C. Alkynes

D. Alkaloids

37 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

A. Chlorhexidine

B. Diazepam

C. Miglitol

D. Lorazepam

38 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

A. Methyl Group

B. Ethynyl group

C. Propionyl group

D. Propargyl group

39 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphamethoxazole

B. Sulfafuraole

C. Sulphadimidine

D. Sulphapyridine

40 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

A. Salicylic acid

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Dapsone

D. Methyl salicylic acid

41 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

A. Silver

B. Titanium

C. Lead

D. Tin

42 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

A. Bacteria

B. Spores

C. Fungi

D. Viruses

43 / 50

Antiseptic are

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

44 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

A. Damage to DNA

B. Enzyme inhibition

C. Cell wall destruction

D. All of them

45 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

A. Direct contact

B. Formites

C. Contaminated food and drink

D. Rodents

46 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

A. Cotrimoxazole

B. Sulphadiazine

C. Sulphacetamide sodium

D. Sulphamethoxazole

47 / 50

DDS stands for......

A. Diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. Diamino divinyl sulphone

C. Dimethyl diphenyl sulphone

D. Diphenyl sulphone

48 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

A. Jaundice

B. Diarrhea

C. Peripheral neuropathy

D. All of them

49 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

A. Specifying the number of carbon atoms associated with the bond

B. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at beginning of the C=C bond

C. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at end of the C=C bond

D. Specifying the number of carbon atoms in the entire chain

50 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

A. para amino salicylic acid

B. Clofazimine

C. Dapsone

D. Ethambutol

Your score is

The average score is 23%

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2726

Created by

NotesKarts

Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Metoclopramide

Carbamazepine

Scopolamine

Atropine

2 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Bradycardia

Dry mouth

Hypertension

Tachycardia

3 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Tremor

Respiratory difficulty

Cerebral heamorrhage

Palpitation

4 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Ecothiopate

Both a and b

Physostigmine

5 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

To check the activity straight muscle

None of the above

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

6 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Heart

Cerebral cortex

Corpus striatum

Exocrine gland

7 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

Prolactin

Vasopressin

F S H

8 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

9 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Antagonist

Partial agonist

Non-competitive antagonism

Competitive antagonism

10 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Dysmenorrhoea

Hypertension

Cerebral thrombosis

Breast Carcinoma

11 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

Phenothiazines

Scopolamines

Atropine

All of the above

12 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Salicylates

Prednisolone

Ethanol

Clofibrate

13 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinesterase inhibitor

Cholinolytics

Cholinomimetic

Sympathomimetic

14 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M3 agonist

M2 antagonist

M3 antagonist

M1 antagonist

15 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Pancuronium

All of the above

Tubocurarine

Gallamine

16 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

None of above

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

17 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To stimulate would healing

All of the above

To cause haemeostasis

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

18 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Tubocurarine

Physostigmine

Pralidoxime

Neostigmine

19 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Atropine

Bethanechol

Physostigmine

Pilocarpine

20 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

A stupor or somnolent state

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

21 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Competing at receptor sites

Inhibiting release from storage sites

All of the above

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

22 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Mental aberration

Miosis

Increased heart rate

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

23 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Ephedrine

Amphetamine

All of the above

Dopamine

24 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Active transport

Passive diffusion

Ion pair transport

Facilitated diffusion

25 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Prolactin

Histamine

Insulin

Oxytocin

26 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Alcohol

Amitriptyline

Digoxin

Warfarin

27 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Bronchoconstriction

Block accommodation reflex

Constipation

28 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

None of the above

Pralidoxime

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

29 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

IDDM

Pregnancy

All of the above

Renal insufficiency

30 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Isopropanol

Epinephrine

Dopamine

All of the above

31 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

All of the above

Atropine

32 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

Q and S

R and S

Q and R

P and S

33 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Enzyme linked

GPCR

Ion channel

Steroid receptor

34 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Grape juice

Rifampicin

Carbamazepine

Barbiturates

35 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

All of the above

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

36 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Stimulation of insulin release

Suppression of insulin secretion

None of above

Suppression of glucagon secretion

37 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Reduced sweating

Mydriasis

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Loss of accommodation

38 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Noradrenaline

Acetylcholine

Isoprenaline

Atropine

39 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

Acetylspironolactone

Desmethyl spironolactone

None of the above

Canrenone

40 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Hyoscine

Cyclopentolate

Darifenacin

Pirenzepine

41 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

Detect the impurity in a given drug

42 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Drug fever

Agranulocytosis

Alopecia

Nephritis

43 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Paraldehyde

Carbamazepine

Phenytoin

Diazepam

44 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Glucuronide conjugation

α amino acid conjunction

Methylation

Sulfate conjunction:

45 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

Prevents miosis

Inhibits GIT motility

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

46 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

D-tubocurarine

Gallamine

Succinylcholine

Hexamethonium

47 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Blocking B1 receptor

Blocking B2 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

Stimulating B2 receptor

48 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Antagonism

Potentiation

Addition

Synergism

49 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Edrophonium

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

Pyridostigmine

50 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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1763

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1940

b. 1919

c. 1948

d. 1995

2 / 25

2. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 2

b. 3

c. 1

d. 5

3 / 25

3. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Six years

b. Three years

c. Four years

d. Five years

4 / 25

4. Appendix II is about

a. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

b. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

c. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

d. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

5 / 25

5. Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

b. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

c. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

d. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

6 / 25

6. Insulin comes under

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule O

7 / 25

7. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. Election of Registered Pharmacists

b. Central Government

c. President

d. State Government of Delhi

8 / 25

8. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

b. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

c. In cold place

d. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

9 / 25

9. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Spurious drug

b. Adulterated drug

c. Misbranded drug

d. Drug

10 / 25

10. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule V

b. Schedule U

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule U1

11 / 25

11. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 20

b. Form 24

c. Form 32

d. Form 36

12 / 25

12. "Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

b. Standard for surgical dressing

c. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

d. Standard for production of sera

13 / 25

13. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule F

c. Schedule D

d. Schedule B

14 / 25

14. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule W

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule U

d. Schedule X

15 / 25

15. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Capsule

b. Sera

c. Antigen

d. Toxins

16 / 25

16. Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule W

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule Y

17 / 25

17. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

b. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

c. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

d. To prescribe drug

18 / 25

18. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule E

c. Schedule S

d. Schedule O

19 / 25

19. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 21

b. Form 20

c. Form 25E

d. Form 24D

20 / 25

20. Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

21 / 25

21. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form 31

b. Form 32

c. Form36

d. Form 30

22 / 25

22. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 3

b. 1

c. 4

d. 2

23 / 25

23. Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 17B

b. Section 17

c. Section 3B

d. Section 17A

24 / 25

24. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule C

c. Schedule M

d. Schedule P

25 / 25

25. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Six

b. Four

c. Five

d. Three

Your score is

The average score is 40%

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359

1 / 50

1. List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule I

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule J

2 / 50

2. Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

a. Schedule ‘C’ ‘G’ drugs

b. Misbranded drugs

c. Toilet preparations

d. Ayurvedic drugs

3 / 50

3. Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

a. Phase III

b. Phase V

c. Phase II

d. Phase I

4 / 50

4. In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

a. 500 patients

b. 100 patients

c. 1-10 patients

d. 10-12 patients

5 / 50

5. Pack size of drug is covered under

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule P1

6 / 50

6. Schedule C is related to

a. List of Homeopathy product

b. List of Ayurvedic product

c. List of Biological and Immunological product

d. List of Allopathic product

7 / 50

7. Schedule N states

a. List of minimum equipment required for manufacturing of drug.

b. List of minimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy

c. Requirement of factory premises and hygienic condition to complied

d. Standard for cosmetics

8 / 50

8. Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

a. FF

b. A

c. D

d. Q

9 / 50

9. Dettol comes under

a. Schedule N

b. Schedule Q

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule P

10 / 50

10. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

a. Every 6 year

b. Every 3 year

c. Every 2 year

d. Every 5 year

11 / 50

11. Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

a. 2

b. 4

c. 1

d. 3

12 / 50

12. In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

a. The officer in charge of drugs control organization

b. Chief Administrator medical officer of state

c. Government Analyst

d. President of India

13 / 50

13. Injection syringe and needles are covered under

a. Schedule B

b. Schedule Q

c. Schedule A

d. Schedule P

14 / 50

14. Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

a. W

b. X

c. Y

d. V

15 / 50

15. Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

b. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

c. At the Temperature 2°C to 8°C and it must not allow to freeze

d. In cold place

16 / 50

16. Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

a. 1919

b. 1948

c. 1985

d. 1954

17 / 50

17. The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

a. 1950

b. 1955

c. 1985

d. 1940

18 / 50

18. The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

a. Ministry of Education

b. Central Government

c. President, Pharmacy Council of India

d. Drug Controller

19 / 50

19. As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

a. A Cold place

b. Well closed container, protect from light, in cool place, protect from light

c. A cool place

d. Temperature not exceeding 5°C

20 / 50

20. Aspirin sodium comes under

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule H

d. Schedule J

21 / 50

21. Patent Act is established in

a. 1940

b. 1970

c. 1948

d. 1919

22 / 50

22. If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

a. Misbranded Drug

b. Spurious Drug

c. Adulterated Drug

d. True Drug

23 / 50

23. Coca, opium and hemp come under:

a. Insecticide Act

b. Poisons Act

c. Dangerous Drug Act

d. Spurious Drug Act

24 / 50

24. Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

a. Form 27

b. Form 25

c. Form 26

d. Form 24

25 / 50

25. Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

a. To determine maximum tolerated dose in humans, Pharmacodynamics effects, Adverse effect.

b. Efficacy and Safety of drug in longer number of patients (500 patients)

c. Determine Possible therapeutic uses, Effective doses range

d. Long time adverse effects aster marketing drug

26 / 50

26. Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

a. C and C1

b. B

c. A

d. X

27 / 50

27. In 1954 one of the following act is passed

a. The Medical Termination of pregnancy Act

b. Drug and magic Remedies Act

c. Poisonous Act.

d. Narcotic and psychotropic substance Act

28 / 50

28. List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

a. Schedule Q

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule R

d. Schedule P

29 / 50

29. For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

a. 500 square meters

b. 250 square meters

c. 150 square meters

d. 400 square meters

30 / 50

30. If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

a. White

b. Blue

c. Yellow

d. Red

31 / 50

31. The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

a. Schedule M

b. Schedule F

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule O

32 / 50

32. List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

a. G

b. K

c. X

d. H

33 / 50

33. TGA is regulatory agency of………….

a. India

b. Zimbabwe

c. Denmark

d. Australia

34 / 50

34. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

a. Six

b. Nine

c. Five

d. Seven

35 / 50

35. Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

a. Disease or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure

b. List of prescription drugs

c. List of drug exempted from the provision of import of drugs

d. Requirements of factory premises

36 / 50

36. Example of Schedule G drug is

a. Metformin

b. Enalapril

c. Cefuroxime

d. Barbital

37 / 50

37. Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

a. None of the above

b. Guidelines for clinical Trials

c. List of incurable diseases

d. List of generic drugs

38 / 50

38. MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

a. South Africa

b. Brazil

c. Denmark

d. UK

39 / 50

39. Hatch Waxman Act is related to

a. Banned drugs

b. Dangerous drugs Act

c. Spurious drugs Act

d. Over the counter drugs

40 / 50

40. Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

a. Schedule K

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule L

d. Schedule P

41 / 50

41. As per D and C act schedule T stated about

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Homeopathy drugs

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Allopathy drugs

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Medical device

42 / 50

42. MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

a. UK

b. South Africa

c. Denmark

d. Brazil

43 / 50

43. DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

a. Four

b. Five

c. Eight

d. Six

44 / 50

44. Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

a. R

b. O

c. R1

d. S

45 / 50

45. One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

a. Chief pharmacist of government hospital

b. All

c. Assistant drug controller

d. Chief administrative medical officer of the state

46 / 50

46. For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

a. 20B

b. 21

c. 20

d. 21B

47 / 50

47. Schedule J is related to

a. Pack sizes of drugs.

b. GMP

c. Curable disease

d. List of disease and ailments which drug cannot claim.

48 / 50

48. As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

a. Ophthalmic preparation

b. Parenteral preparation

c. Ointment formulation

d. Skin cosmetic preparation

49 / 50

49. For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

a. Symbol H displayed on right top corner of the label.

b. Symbol N displayed on left top corner of the label.

c. Symbol N is red displayed on left top corner of the label

d. Symbol X given in red

50 / 50

50. As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

a. List of minimum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

b. Area for opening retail pharmacy

c. List of maximum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

d. Area required to open wholesale drug store

Your score is

The average score is 37%

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