Pharmacy Weekly Quiz By Noteskarts Test Series

Weekly Quizzes

Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-1

Oct 02, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

60 Min Duration
50 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-2

Oct 08, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

15 Min Duration
15 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-3

Oct 15, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

25 Min Duration
25 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Human Anatomy and Physiology test For DPEE

Created By: Noteskarts

15 Min Duration
25 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Join our Best MCQs

715

Created on June 10, 2022 By

NotesKarts

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

A. Alcohol

B. Phenol

C. Iodine

D. All of the above

2 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

A. ene

B. ic

C. one

D. yl

3 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

A. Cyclopropane

B. Cyclobutane

C. Cyclopentane

D. Cyclohexane

4 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

A. Jaundice

B. Diarrhea

C. Peripheral neuropathy

D. All of them

5 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

A. Pyridine

B. Imidazole

C. Pyrimidine

D. Pyrazine

6 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

A. Sulphadimethoxine

B. Sulphadoxine

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphadimethoxy pyridazine

7 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

A. Damage to DNA

B. Enzyme inhibition

C. Cell wall destruction

D. All of them

8 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

A. para amino salicylic acid

B. Clofazimine

C. Dapsone

D. Ethambutol

9 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

A. Crystalluria

B. Hansen's disease

C. Liver cirrhosis

D. Mendel disease

10 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

A. Moxifloxacin

B. Dapsone

C. Clofazimine

D. Ethambutol

11 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphamethoxazole

B. Sulfafuraole

C. Sulphadimidine

D. Sulphapyridine

12 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Isoniazid

D. Ethambutol

13 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

A. Piperidine

B. Pyridine

C. Oxazole

D. Pyrimidine

14 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

A. Aniline

B. Sulfone

C. Amine

D. All of them

15 / 50

Functional group present in INH

A. Carbohydrazide

B. Carbonyl group

C. Carboxamide

D. Carboxylic group

16 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

A. Salicylic acid

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Dapsone

D. Methyl salicylic acid

17 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethionamide

C. Triacetazone

D. None of the above

18 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

A. Temperature below 15°c

B. Temperature above 15°c

C. Temperature should be 30°c

D. Temperature between 15-30°c

19 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

A. Hepatic amoebiasis

B. Pulmonary amebiasis

C. Cerebral amobiasis

D. All of the above

20 / 50

DDS stands for......

A. Diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. Diamino divinyl sulphone

C. Dimethyl diphenyl sulphone

D. Diphenyl sulphone

21 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

A. Specifying the number of carbon atoms associated with the bond

B. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at beginning of the C=C bond

C. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at end of the C=C bond

D. Specifying the number of carbon atoms in the entire chain

22 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

A. Alkanes

B. Alkenes

C. Alkynes

D. Alkaloids

23 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

A. Compared to antibiotics

B. Compared to statins

C. Compared to sulpha drugs

D. Compared to antitubercular drugs

24 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

A. 4,4'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. 2,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

C. 4,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

D. 4,4'-diamino dimethyl sulphone

25 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

A. Sulphamethoxine

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphamethoxy pyridazine

26 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

A. Silver

B. Titanium

C. Lead

D. Tin

27 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

A. Clofazimine and Rifampicin

B. Dopamine and Rifampicin

C. Clofazimine and ofloxacin

D. All of them

28 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

A. Vicucidal

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacteriostatic

D. Disinfectant

29 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

A. Amoebic dysentery

B. Helminth infection

C. Fungal infection

D. None of them

30 / 50

Excystation is _______

A. Formation of trophozoites from cyst

B. Formation of cyst from trophozoites

C. Both of them

D. None of them

31 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

A. Methyl Group

B. Ethynyl group

C. Propionyl group

D. Propargyl group

32 / 50

Antiseptic are

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

33 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

A. True

B. False

34 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

A. Phenyl and benzyl

B. Propyl and phenyl

C. Methyl and benzyl

D. Butyl and phenyl

35 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphacetamide

B. Sulphasalazine

C. Sulphapyridine

D. Sulphadoxine

36 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

A. Cotrimoxazole

B. Sulphadiazine

C. Sulphacetamide sodium

D. Sulphamethoxazole

37 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

A. Ethambutol

B. Diazepam

C. Haldol

D. Isoniazid

38 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

A. Chlorhexidine

B. Diazepam

C. Miglitol

D. Lorazepam

39 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

40 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C₃₀H_{62 .}

A. Propdecane

B. Eicosane

C. Triacontane

D. Dodecane

41 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

A. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase

B. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase

C. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase

D. Activation of DNA gyrase

42 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

A. Benzoyl peroxide

B. Tramadol

C. Zidovudine

D. Fluoxetine

43 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

A. Pyrazine-4- carbohydrazide

B. Pyridine-4- carbohydrazide

C. pyrimidine-4- carbohydrazide

D. pyridine-4-carboxamide

44 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

A. Direct contact

B. Formites

C. Contaminated food and drink

D. Rodents

45 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

A. Crystalluria

B. Peripheral neuropathy

C. Liver damage

D. Metabolic syndrome

46 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Entamoeba subtilis

D. Entamoeba chrysogenum

47 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

A. Bacteria

B. Spores

C. Fungi

D. Viruses

48 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

A. Disinfection

B. Antisepsis

C. Sterilization

D. Coronisation

49 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Dapsone

D. Di-iodohydroxy quinoline

50 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

A. Exactly a double bond

B. Exactly a triple bond

C. Exactly two double bond

D. More than two double bond

Your score is

The average score is 20%

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581

Created by

NotesKarts

Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

GPCR

Ion channel

Enzyme linked

Steroid receptor

2 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

Phenothiazines

Scopolamines

Atropine

All of the above

3 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Physostigmine

Atropine

Neostigmine

All of the above

4 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

Desmethyl spironolactone

Canrenone

None of the above

Acetylspironolactone

5 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Exocrine gland

Heart

Corpus striatum

Cerebral cortex

6 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Salicylates

Prednisolone

Clofibrate

Ethanol

7 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M3 antagonist

M3 agonist

M1 antagonist

M2 antagonist

8 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

F S H

Vasopressin

Prolactin

9 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Inhibits GIT motility

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

Prevents miosis

10 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Gallamine

D-tubocurarine

Succinylcholine

Hexamethonium

11 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Antagonism

Addition

Potentiation

Synergism

12 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

All of the above

Isopropanol

Epinephrine

Dopamine

13 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Ion pair transport

Passive diffusion

Facilitated diffusion

Active transport

14 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Paraldehyde

Phenytoin

Diazepam

Carbamazepine

15 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Methylation

α amino acid conjunction

Glucuronide conjugation

Sulfate conjunction:

16 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

All of the above

To cause haemeostasis

To stimulate would healing

17 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

All of the above

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

18 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

A stupor or somnolent state

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

19 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Physostigmine

Pyridostigmine

Edrophonium

Neostigmine

20 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinesterase inhibitor

Cholinomimetic

Sympathomimetic

Cholinolytics

21 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Bradycardia

Tachycardia

Dry mouth

Hypertension

22 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Mental aberration

Increased heart rate

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Miosis

23 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Acetylcholine

Noradrenaline

Isoprenaline

Atropine

24 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

None of the above

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

To check the activity straight muscle

25 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Tubocurarine

Pancuronium

Gallamine

All of the above

26 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

None of above

27 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Grape juice

Rifampicin

Carbamazepine

Barbiturates

28 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Reduced sweating

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Mydriasis

Loss of accommodation

29 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Bethanechol

Pilocarpine

Atropine

Physostigmine

30 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Physostigmine

Tubocurarine

Pralidoxime

Neostigmine

31 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Competing at receptor sites

Inhibiting release from storage sites

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

All of the above

32 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Cerebral thrombosis

Dysmenorrhoea

Breast Carcinoma

Hypertension

33 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

IDDM

Pregnancy

Renal insufficiency

All of the above

34 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Digoxin

Alcohol

Amitriptyline

Warfarin

35 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Tremor

Respiratory difficulty

Palpitation

Cerebral heamorrhage

36 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

All of the above

Amphetamine

Ephedrine

Dopamine

37 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

Q and S

P and S

R and S

Q and R

38 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Prolactin

Histamine

Insulin

Oxytocin

39 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Ecothiopate

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Physostigmine

Both a and b

40 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

41 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Blocking B2 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

Stimulating B2 receptor

42 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Partial agonist

Antagonist

Competitive antagonism

Non-competitive antagonism

43 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Pirenzepine

Cyclopentolate

Darifenacin

Hyoscine

44 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Alopecia

Agranulocytosis

Drug fever

Nephritis

45 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

None of above

Stimulation of insulin release

Suppression of glucagon secretion

Suppression of insulin secretion

46 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Detect the impurity in a given drug

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

47 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

Physostigmine

None of the above

Pralidoxime

Neostigmine

48 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Atropine

Carbamazepine

Scopolamine

Metoclopramide

49 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Bronchoconstriction

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Constipation

Block accommodation reflex

50 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Your score is

The average score is 29%

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582

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. Appendix II is about

a. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

b. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

c. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

d. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

2 / 25

2. Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule W

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule G

3 / 25

3. "Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for surgical dressing

b. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

c. Standard for production of sera

d. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

4 / 25

4. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

b. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

c. In cold place

d. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

5 / 25

5. Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

b. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

c. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

d. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

6 / 25

6. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. President

b. State Government of Delhi

c. Central Government

d. Election of Registered Pharmacists

7 / 25

7. Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 17B

b. Section 17

c. Section 3B

d. Section 17A

8 / 25

8. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form 30

b. Form 32

c. Form 31

d. Form36

9 / 25

9. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Misbranded drug

b. Drug

c. Adulterated drug

d. Spurious drug

10 / 25

10. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule C

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule R

d. Schedule M

11 / 25

11. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 24

b. Form 36

c. Form 20

d. Form 32

12 / 25

12. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 3

b. 1

c. 4

d. 2

13 / 25

13. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Six

b. Three

c. Five

d. Four

14 / 25

14. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

b. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

c. To prescribe drug

d. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

15 / 25

15. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Six years

b. Five years

c. Four years

d. Three years

16 / 25

16. Insulin comes under

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule H

17 / 25

17. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule V

b. Schedule U1

c. Schedule U

d. Schedule Y

18 / 25

18. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule W

b. Schedule U

c. Schedule X

d. Schedule Y

19 / 25

19. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Toxins

b. Capsule

c. Antigen

d. Sera

20 / 25

20. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule E

c. Schedule R

d. Schedule S

21 / 25

21. Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

22 / 25

22. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 25E

b. Form 20

c. Form 21

d. Form 24D

23 / 25

23. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule B

b. Schedule D

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule F

24 / 25

24. Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1940

b. 1995

c. 1948

d. 1919

25 / 25

25. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 1

b. 3

c. 5

d. 2

Your score is

The average score is 38%

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169

1 / 50

1. Pack size of drug is covered under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule P1

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule R

2 / 50

2. DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

a. Six

b. Five

c. Eight

d. Four

3 / 50

3. In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

a. The officer in charge of drugs control organization

b. President of India

c. Chief Administrator medical officer of state

d. Government Analyst

4 / 50

4. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

a. Seven

b. Five

c. Six

d. Nine

5 / 50

5. As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

a. Skin cosmetic preparation

b. Parenteral preparation

c. Ointment formulation

d. Ophthalmic preparation

6 / 50

6. Patent Act is established in

a. 1940

b. 1948

c. 1970

d. 1919

7 / 50

7. Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

a. List of incurable diseases

b. None of the above

c. List of generic drugs

d. Guidelines for clinical Trials

8 / 50

8. Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

a. Form 27

b. Form 26

c. Form 24

d. Form 25

9 / 50

9. Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

b. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

c. In cold place

d. At the Temperature 2°C to 8°C and it must not allow to freeze

10 / 50

10. In 1954 one of the following act is passed

a. Narcotic and psychotropic substance Act

b. Poisonous Act.

c. Drug and magic Remedies Act

d. The Medical Termination of pregnancy Act

11 / 50

11. Injection syringe and needles are covered under

a. Schedule A

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule B

d. Schedule Q

12 / 50

12. List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

a. G

b. H

c. X

d. K

13 / 50

13. Schedule C is related to

a. List of Allopathic product

b. List of Biological and Immunological product

c. List of Homeopathy product

d. List of Ayurvedic product

14 / 50

14. Hatch Waxman Act is related to

a. Banned drugs

b. Over the counter drugs

c. Dangerous drugs Act

d. Spurious drugs Act

15 / 50

15. TGA is regulatory agency of………….

a. Denmark

b. Zimbabwe

c. India

d. Australia

16 / 50

16. Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

a. FF

b. D

c. A

d. Q

17 / 50

17. Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

a. Disease or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure

b. List of prescription drugs

c. List of drug exempted from the provision of import of drugs

d. Requirements of factory premises

18 / 50

18. Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

a. Toilet preparations

b. Ayurvedic drugs

c. Misbranded drugs

d. Schedule ‘C’ ‘G’ drugs

19 / 50

19. MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

a. Denmark

b. UK

c. Brazil

d. South Africa

20 / 50

20. The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

a. 1985

b. 1955

c. 1950

d. 1940

21 / 50

21. In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

a. 10-12 patients

b. 100 patients

c. 500 patients

d. 1-10 patients

22 / 50

22. List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule Q

d. Schedule P

23 / 50

23. The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

a. Schedule F

b. Schedule M

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule Y

24 / 50

24. For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

a. Symbol H displayed on right top corner of the label.

b. Symbol X given in red

c. Symbol N displayed on left top corner of the label.

d. Symbol N is red displayed on left top corner of the label

25 / 50

25. Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

a. Long time adverse effects aster marketing drug

b. Determine Possible therapeutic uses, Effective doses range

c. To determine maximum tolerated dose in humans, Pharmacodynamics effects, Adverse effect.

d. Efficacy and Safety of drug in longer number of patients (500 patients)

26 / 50

26. Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

a. W

b. V

c. Y

d. X

27 / 50

27. Coca, opium and hemp come under:

a. Insecticide Act

b. Dangerous Drug Act

c. Spurious Drug Act

d. Poisons Act

28 / 50

28. If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

a. Spurious Drug

b. Misbranded Drug

c. True Drug

d. Adulterated Drug

29 / 50

29. Aspirin sodium comes under

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule H

d. Schedule J

30 / 50

30. For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

a. 400 square meters

b. 150 square meters

c. 250 square meters

d. 500 square meters

31 / 50

31. For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

a. 21B

b. 21

c. 20B

d. 20

32 / 50

32. Example of Schedule G drug is

a. Enalapril

b. Metformin

c. Barbital

d. Cefuroxime

33 / 50

33. Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

a. S

b. O

c. R

d. R1

34 / 50

34. MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

a. Brazil

b. South Africa

c. Denmark

d. UK

35 / 50

35. Schedule N states

a. List of minimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy

b. List of minimum equipment required for manufacturing of drug.

c. Requirement of factory premises and hygienic condition to complied

d. Standard for cosmetics

36 / 50

36. Schedule J is related to

a. GMP

b. Pack sizes of drugs.

c. Curable disease

d. List of disease and ailments which drug cannot claim.

37 / 50

37. As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

a. A cool place

b. A Cold place

c. Well closed container, protect from light, in cool place, protect from light

d. Temperature not exceeding 5°C

38 / 50

38. Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

a. 1919

b. 1954

c. 1948

d. 1985

39 / 50

39. Dettol comes under

a. Schedule N

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule Q

d. Schedule P

40 / 50

40. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

a. Every 3 year

b. Every 6 year

c. Every 2 year

d. Every 5 year

41 / 50

41. Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

a. Phase III

b. Phase I

c. Phase II

d. Phase V

42 / 50

42. Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

a. C and C1

b. X

c. A

d. B

43 / 50

43. As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

a. Area for opening retail pharmacy

b. Area required to open wholesale drug store

c. List of minimum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

d. List of maximum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

44 / 50

44. If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

a. White

b. Yellow

c. Red

d. Blue

45 / 50

45. One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

a. Chief administrative medical officer of the state

b. Assistant drug controller

c. All

d. Chief pharmacist of government hospital

46 / 50

46. As per D and C act schedule T stated about

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Homeopathy drugs

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Allopathy drugs

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Medical device

47 / 50

47. Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

a. Schedule K

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule L

d. Schedule P

48 / 50

48. The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

a. Ministry of Education

b. President, Pharmacy Council of India

c. Central Government

d. Drug Controller

49 / 50

49. List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

a. Schedule I

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule H

50 / 50

50. Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

a. 3

b. 1

c. 4

d. 2

Your score is

The average score is 31%

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