Pharmacy Weekly Quiz By Noteskarts Test Series

Weekly Quizzes

Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-1

Oct 02, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

60 Min Duration
50 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-2

Oct 08, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

15 Min Duration
15 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-3

Oct 15, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

25 Min Duration
25 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Human Anatomy and Physiology test For DPEE

Created By: Noteskarts

15 Min Duration
25 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Join our Best MCQs

1781

Created on June 10, 2022 By

NotesKarts

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

A. Pyrazine-4- carbohydrazide

B. Pyridine-4- carbohydrazide

C. pyrimidine-4- carbohydrazide

D. pyridine-4-carboxamide

2 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

A. Exactly a double bond

B. Exactly a triple bond

C. Exactly two double bond

D. More than two double bond

3 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

A. Sulphamethoxine

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphamethoxy pyridazine

4 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphacetamide

B. Sulphasalazine

C. Sulphapyridine

D. Sulphadoxine

5 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Dapsone

D. Di-iodohydroxy quinoline

6 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethionamide

C. Triacetazone

D. None of the above

7 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

A. Cotrimoxazole

B. Sulphadiazine

C. Sulphacetamide sodium

D. Sulphamethoxazole

8 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

A. 4,4'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. 2,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

C. 4,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

D. 4,4'-diamino dimethyl sulphone

9 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

A. Compared to antibiotics

B. Compared to statins

C. Compared to sulpha drugs

D. Compared to antitubercular drugs

10 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

A. Direct contact

B. Formites

C. Contaminated food and drink

D. Rodents

11 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

A. Phenyl and benzyl

B. Propyl and phenyl

C. Methyl and benzyl

D. Butyl and phenyl

12 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

A. Pyridine

B. Imidazole

C. Pyrimidine

D. Pyrazine

13 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

A. Damage to DNA

B. Enzyme inhibition

C. Cell wall destruction

D. All of them

14 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

A. Disinfection

B. Antisepsis

C. Sterilization

D. Coronisation

15 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

A. Crystalluria

B. Hansen's disease

C. Liver cirrhosis

D. Mendel disease

16 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

A. Jaundice

B. Diarrhea

C. Peripheral neuropathy

D. All of them

17 / 50

DDS stands for......

A. Diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. Diamino divinyl sulphone

C. Dimethyl diphenyl sulphone

D. Diphenyl sulphone

18 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

A. Sulphadimethoxine

B. Sulphadoxine

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphadimethoxy pyridazine

19 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

A. Clofazimine and Rifampicin

B. Dopamine and Rifampicin

C. Clofazimine and ofloxacin

D. All of them

20 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

21 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

A. Hepatic amoebiasis

B. Pulmonary amebiasis

C. Cerebral amobiasis

D. All of the above

22 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphamethoxazole

B. Sulfafuraole

C. Sulphadimidine

D. Sulphapyridine

23 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

A. Benzoyl peroxide

B. Tramadol

C. Zidovudine

D. Fluoxetine

24 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

A. Ethambutol

B. Diazepam

C. Haldol

D. Isoniazid

25 / 50

Antiseptic are

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

26 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

A. ene

B. ic

C. one

D. yl

27 / 50

Functional group present in INH

A. Carbohydrazide

B. Carbonyl group

C. Carboxamide

D. Carboxylic group

28 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

A. True

B. False

29 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

A. Alcohol

B. Phenol

C. Iodine

D. All of the above

30 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

A. Temperature below 15°c

B. Temperature above 15°c

C. Temperature should be 30°c

D. Temperature between 15-30°c

31 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

A. Amoebic dysentery

B. Helminth infection

C. Fungal infection

D. None of them

32 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

A. Moxifloxacin

B. Dapsone

C. Clofazimine

D. Ethambutol

33 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

A. Specifying the number of carbon atoms associated with the bond

B. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at beginning of the C=C bond

C. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at end of the C=C bond

D. Specifying the number of carbon atoms in the entire chain

34 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

A. Cyclopropane

B. Cyclobutane

C. Cyclopentane

D. Cyclohexane

35 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

A. Piperidine

B. Pyridine

C. Oxazole

D. Pyrimidine

36 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

A. para amino salicylic acid

B. Clofazimine

C. Dapsone

D. Ethambutol

37 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

A. Alkanes

B. Alkenes

C. Alkynes

D. Alkaloids

38 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

A. Silver

B. Titanium

C. Lead

D. Tin

39 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

A. Vicucidal

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacteriostatic

D. Disinfectant

40 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

A. Salicylic acid

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Dapsone

D. Methyl salicylic acid

41 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

A. Methyl Group

B. Ethynyl group

C. Propionyl group

D. Propargyl group

42 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

A. Aniline

B. Sulfone

C. Amine

D. All of them

43 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

A. Bacteria

B. Spores

C. Fungi

D. Viruses

44 / 50

Excystation is _______

A. Formation of trophozoites from cyst

B. Formation of cyst from trophozoites

C. Both of them

D. None of them

45 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Isoniazid

D. Ethambutol

46 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

A. Chlorhexidine

B. Diazepam

C. Miglitol

D. Lorazepam

47 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Entamoeba subtilis

D. Entamoeba chrysogenum

48 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C₃₀H_{62 .}

A. Propdecane

B. Eicosane

C. Triacontane

D. Dodecane

49 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

A. Crystalluria

B. Peripheral neuropathy

C. Liver damage

D. Metabolic syndrome

50 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

A. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase

B. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase

C. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase

D. Activation of DNA gyrase

Your score is

The average score is 23%

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Created by

NotesKarts

Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

Pralidoxime

None of the above

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

2 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Mydriasis

Reduced sweating

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Loss of accommodation

3 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Clofibrate

Prednisolone

Ethanol

Salicylates

4 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Acetylcholine

Noradrenaline

Atropine

Isoprenaline

5 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

None of above

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

6 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Hypertension

Dysmenorrhoea

Cerebral thrombosis

Breast Carcinoma

7 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Rifampicin

Carbamazepine

Barbiturates

Grape juice

8 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinesterase inhibitor

Sympathomimetic

Cholinomimetic

Cholinolytics

9 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Miosis

Increased heart rate

Mental aberration

10 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Ecothiopate

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Both a and b

Physostigmine

11 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

Atropine

All of the above

Phenothiazines

Scopolamines

12 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

13 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Neostigmine

Tubocurarine

Pralidoxime

Physostigmine

14 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Detect the impurity in a given drug

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

15 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Atropine

Pilocarpine

Physostigmine

Bethanechol

16 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Paraldehyde

Phenytoin

Carbamazepine

Diazepam

17 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

F S H

Prolactin

Vasopressin

18 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Competing at receptor sites

All of the above

Inhibiting release from storage sites

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

19 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Succinylcholine

Gallamine

Hexamethonium

D-tubocurarine

20 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

To cause haemeostasis

All of the above

To stimulate would healing

21 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M3 agonist

M2 antagonist

M1 antagonist

M3 antagonist

22 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Partial agonist

Competitive antagonism

Antagonist

Non-competitive antagonism

23 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

All of the above

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

Atropine

24 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Corpus striatum

Exocrine gland

Heart

Cerebral cortex

25 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Tremor

Palpitation

Cerebral heamorrhage

Respiratory difficulty

26 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Pirenzepine

Darifenacin

Cyclopentolate

Hyoscine

27 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

28 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Block accommodation reflex

Constipation

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Bronchoconstriction

29 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

30 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Blocking B2 receptor

Stimulating B2 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

31 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Prolactin

Insulin

Oxytocin

Histamine

32 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Epinephrine

Isopropanol

Dopamine

All of the above

33 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

All of the above

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

34 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

None of the above

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

To check the activity straight muscle

35 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Steroid receptor

GPCR

Enzyme linked

Ion channel

36 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Active transport

Ion pair transport

Passive diffusion

Facilitated diffusion

37 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Scopolamine

Metoclopramide

Atropine

Carbamazepine

38 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Pyridostigmine

Neostigmine

Edrophonium

Physostigmine

39 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Drug fever

Agranulocytosis

Alopecia

Nephritis

40 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

None of the above

Desmethyl spironolactone

Acetylspironolactone

Canrenone

41 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Prevents miosis

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Inhibits GIT motility

42 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

α amino acid conjunction

Sulfate conjunction:

Glucuronide conjugation

Methylation

43 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

P and S

Q and S

R and S

Q and R

44 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

Pregnancy

Renal insufficiency

IDDM

All of the above

45 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Digoxin

Amitriptyline

Warfarin

Alcohol

46 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Addition

Potentiation

Synergism

Antagonism

47 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Stimulation of insulin release

None of above

Suppression of glucagon secretion

Suppression of insulin secretion

48 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Dopamine

Ephedrine

All of the above

Amphetamine

49 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Dry mouth

Bradycardia

Hypertension

Tachycardia

50 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Pancuronium

All of the above

Gallamine

Tubocurarine

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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1755

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Four

b. Six

c. Three

d. Five

2 / 25

2. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Six years

b. Four years

c. Five years

d. Three years

3 / 25

3. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 4

b. 3

c. 1

d. 2

4 / 25

4. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 2

b. 3

c. 1

d. 5

5 / 25

5. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

b. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

c. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

d. In cold place

6 / 25

6. Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

7 / 25

7. Insulin comes under

a. Schedule J

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule G

8 / 25

8. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. State Government of Delhi

b. President

c. Central Government

d. Election of Registered Pharmacists

9 / 25

9. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Drug

b. Misbranded drug

c. Adulterated drug

d. Spurious drug

10 / 25

10. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 24D

b. Form 21

c. Form 20

d. Form 25E

11 / 25

11. Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

b. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

c. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

d. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

12 / 25

12. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule B

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule F

d. Schedule D

13 / 25

13. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 20

b. Form 36

c. Form 24

d. Form 32

14 / 25

14. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form 31

b. Form 30

c. Form36

d. Form 32

15 / 25

15. "Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

b. Standard for production of sera

c. Standard for surgical dressing

d. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

16 / 25

16. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule U

b. Schedule X

c. Schedule W

d. Schedule Y

17 / 25

17. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Toxins

b. Antigen

c. Sera

d. Capsule

18 / 25

18. Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1995

b. 1948

c. 1940

d. 1919

19 / 25

19. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule M

d. Schedule C

20 / 25

20. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule U1

b. Schedule V

c. Schedule U

d. Schedule Y

21 / 25

21. Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 3B

b. Section 17

c. Section 17B

d. Section 17A

22 / 25

22. Appendix II is about

a. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

b. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

c. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

d. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

23 / 25

23. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

b. To prescribe drug

c. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

d. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

24 / 25

24. Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule W

d. Schedule H

25 / 25

25. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule E

c. Schedule S

d. Schedule O

Your score is

The average score is 39%

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358

1 / 50

1. Schedule J is related to

a. GMP

b. Curable disease

c. Pack sizes of drugs.

d. List of disease and ailments which drug cannot claim.

2 / 50

2. For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

a. 400 square meters

b. 500 square meters

c. 150 square meters

d. 250 square meters

3 / 50

3. TGA is regulatory agency of………….

a. Denmark

b. Australia

c. Zimbabwe

d. India

4 / 50

4. Injection syringe and needles are covered under

a. Schedule B

b. Schedule A

c. Schedule Q

d. Schedule P

5 / 50

5. As per D and C act schedule T stated about

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Allopathy drugs

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Medical device

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Homeopathy drugs

6 / 50

6. Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

a. Phase I

b. Phase V

c. Phase II

d. Phase III

7 / 50

7. Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

a. B

b. X

c. C and C1

d. A

8 / 50

8. In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

a. 100 patients

b. 500 patients

c. 10-12 patients

d. 1-10 patients

9 / 50

9. Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule K

c. Schedule J

d. Schedule L

10 / 50

10. As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

a. Area required to open wholesale drug store

b. List of minimum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

c. List of maximum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

d. Area for opening retail pharmacy

11 / 50

11. Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

a. FF

b. D

c. Q

d. A

12 / 50

12. The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

a. Central Government

b. Ministry of Education

c. Drug Controller

d. President, Pharmacy Council of India

13 / 50

13. Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

a. Misbranded drugs

b. Toilet preparations

c. Ayurvedic drugs

d. Schedule ‘C’ ‘G’ drugs

14 / 50

14. For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

a. 20B

b. 21

c. 21B

d. 20

15 / 50

15. DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

a. Eight

b. Four

c. Five

d. Six

16 / 50

16. Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

a. W

b. X

c. V

d. Y

17 / 50

17. For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

a. Symbol N is red displayed on left top corner of the label

b. Symbol X given in red

c. Symbol H displayed on right top corner of the label.

d. Symbol N displayed on left top corner of the label.

18 / 50

18. If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

a. White

b. Yellow

c. Blue

d. Red

19 / 50

19. The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

a. 1985

b. 1940

c. 1955

d. 1950

20 / 50

20. List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

a. G

b. K

c. H

d. X

21 / 50

21. Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

a. Long time adverse effects aster marketing drug

b. Determine Possible therapeutic uses, Effective doses range

c. Efficacy and Safety of drug in longer number of patients (500 patients)

d. To determine maximum tolerated dose in humans, Pharmacodynamics effects, Adverse effect.

22 / 50

22. Coca, opium and hemp come under:

a. Spurious Drug Act

b. Insecticide Act

c. Poisons Act

d. Dangerous Drug Act

23 / 50

23. Pack size of drug is covered under

a. Schedule P1

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule P

24 / 50

24. MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

a. UK

b. Brazil

c. Denmark

d. South Africa

25 / 50

25. In 1954 one of the following act is passed

a. The Medical Termination of pregnancy Act

b. Narcotic and psychotropic substance Act

c. Drug and magic Remedies Act

d. Poisonous Act.

26 / 50

26. Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

a. Form 26

b. Form 27

c. Form 25

d. Form 24

27 / 50

27. Hatch Waxman Act is related to

a. Banned drugs

b. Dangerous drugs Act

c. Spurious drugs Act

d. Over the counter drugs

28 / 50

28. Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

a. 1954

b. 1985

c. 1919

d. 1948

29 / 50

29. As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

a. Temperature not exceeding 5°C

b. A Cold place

c. Well closed container, protect from light, in cool place, protect from light

d. A cool place

30 / 50

30. Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

a. List of generic drugs

b. Guidelines for clinical Trials

c. None of the above

d. List of incurable diseases

31 / 50

31. Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

a. S

b. R

c. R1

d. O

32 / 50

32. Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

a. Disease or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure

b. Requirements of factory premises

c. List of drug exempted from the provision of import of drugs

d. List of prescription drugs

33 / 50

33. Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

a. In cold place

b. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

c. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

d. At the Temperature 2°C to 8°C and it must not allow to freeze

34 / 50

34. If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

a. Adulterated Drug

b. Misbranded Drug

c. Spurious Drug

d. True Drug

35 / 50

35. The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule M

d. Schedule F

36 / 50

36. One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

a. Chief administrative medical officer of the state

b. All

c. Chief pharmacist of government hospital

d. Assistant drug controller

37 / 50

37. Schedule C is related to

a. List of Allopathic product

b. List of Biological and Immunological product

c. List of Homeopathy product

d. List of Ayurvedic product

38 / 50

38. As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

a. Ophthalmic preparation

b. Skin cosmetic preparation

c. Ointment formulation

d. Parenteral preparation

39 / 50

39. Schedule N states

a. List of minimum equipment required for manufacturing of drug.

b. List of minimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy

c. Standard for cosmetics

d. Requirement of factory premises and hygienic condition to complied

40 / 50

40. Example of Schedule G drug is

a. Cefuroxime

b. Metformin

c. Barbital

d. Enalapril

41 / 50

41. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

a. Seven

b. Five

c. Six

d. Nine

42 / 50

42. Patent Act is established in

a. 1919

b. 1940

c. 1948

d. 1970

43 / 50

43. In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

a. The officer in charge of drugs control organization

b. Chief Administrator medical officer of state

c. President of India

d. Government Analyst

44 / 50

44. Aspirin sodium comes under

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule J

45 / 50

45. Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

a. 1

b. 4

c. 2

d. 3

46 / 50

46. Dettol comes under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule N

d. Schedule Q

47 / 50

47. MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

a. Brazil

b. UK

c. Denmark

d. South Africa

48 / 50

48. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

a. Every 6 year

b. Every 5 year

c. Every 3 year

d. Every 2 year

49 / 50

49. List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule Q

d. Schedule R

50 / 50

50. List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

a. Schedule J

b. Schedule I

c. Schedule H

d. Schedule G

Your score is

The average score is 37%

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