Pharmacy Weekly Quiz By Noteskarts Test Series

Weekly Quizzes

Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-1

Oct 02, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

60 Min Duration
50 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-2

Oct 08, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

15 Min Duration
15 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Pharmacy Weekly Quiz-3

Oct 15, 2023

Created By: Noteskarts

25 Min Duration
25 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Human Anatomy and Physiology test For DPEE

Created By: Noteskarts

15 Min Duration
25 Question
Complete MCQs Test (Chapterwise)

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Join our Best MCQs

1800

Created on June 10, 2022 By

NotesKarts

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

A. Sulphadimethoxine

B. Sulphadoxine

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphadimethoxy pyridazine

2 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethionamide

C. Triacetazone

D. None of the above

3 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C₃₀H_{62 .}

A. Propdecane

B. Eicosane

C. Triacontane

D. Dodecane

4 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

A. Ethambutol

B. Diazepam

C. Haldol

D. Isoniazid

5 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphacetamide

B. Sulphasalazine

C. Sulphapyridine

D. Sulphadoxine

6 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

7 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

A. Hepatic amoebiasis

B. Pulmonary amebiasis

C. Cerebral amobiasis

D. All of the above

8 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

A. Disinfection

B. Antisepsis

C. Sterilization

D. Coronisation

9 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

A. Alkanes

B. Alkenes

C. Alkynes

D. Alkaloids

10 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

A. Phenyl and benzyl

B. Propyl and phenyl

C. Methyl and benzyl

D. Butyl and phenyl

11 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

A. True

B. False

12 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

A. Crystalluria

B. Peripheral neuropathy

C. Liver damage

D. Metabolic syndrome

13 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Entamoeba subtilis

D. Entamoeba chrysogenum

14 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Isoniazid

D. Ethambutol

15 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

A. Moxifloxacin

B. Dapsone

C. Clofazimine

D. Ethambutol

16 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

A. Crystalluria

B. Hansen's disease

C. Liver cirrhosis

D. Mendel disease

17 / 50

Excystation is _______

A. Formation of trophozoites from cyst

B. Formation of cyst from trophozoites

C. Both of them

D. None of them

18 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

A. Sulphamethoxine

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphamethoxy pyridazine

19 / 50

Functional group present in INH

A. Carbohydrazide

B. Carbonyl group

C. Carboxamide

D. Carboxylic group

20 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

A. Jaundice

B. Diarrhea

C. Peripheral neuropathy

D. All of them

21 / 50

Antiseptic are

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

22 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

A. Clofazimine and Rifampicin

B. Dopamine and Rifampicin

C. Clofazimine and ofloxacin

D. All of them

23 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Dapsone

D. Di-iodohydroxy quinoline

24 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

A. Specifying the number of carbon atoms associated with the bond

B. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at beginning of the C=C bond

C. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at end of the C=C bond

D. Specifying the number of carbon atoms in the entire chain

25 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

A. Silver

B. Titanium

C. Lead

D. Tin

26 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

A. Pyridine

B. Imidazole

C. Pyrimidine

D. Pyrazine

27 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

A. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase

B. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase

C. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase

D. Activation of DNA gyrase

28 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

A. Exactly a double bond

B. Exactly a triple bond

C. Exactly two double bond

D. More than two double bond

29 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

A. Alcohol

B. Phenol

C. Iodine

D. All of the above

30 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

A. Cotrimoxazole

B. Sulphadiazine

C. Sulphacetamide sodium

D. Sulphamethoxazole

31 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphamethoxazole

B. Sulfafuraole

C. Sulphadimidine

D. Sulphapyridine

32 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

A. ene

B. ic

C. one

D. yl

33 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

A. 4,4'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. 2,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

C. 4,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

D. 4,4'-diamino dimethyl sulphone

34 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

A. Temperature below 15°c

B. Temperature above 15°c

C. Temperature should be 30°c

D. Temperature between 15-30°c

35 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

A. Direct contact

B. Formites

C. Contaminated food and drink

D. Rodents

36 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

A. Cyclopropane

B. Cyclobutane

C. Cyclopentane

D. Cyclohexane

37 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

A. para amino salicylic acid

B. Clofazimine

C. Dapsone

D. Ethambutol

38 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

A. Piperidine

B. Pyridine

C. Oxazole

D. Pyrimidine

39 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

A. Vicucidal

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacteriostatic

D. Disinfectant

40 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

A. Salicylic acid

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Dapsone

D. Methyl salicylic acid

41 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

A. Damage to DNA

B. Enzyme inhibition

C. Cell wall destruction

D. All of them

42 / 50

DDS stands for......

A. Diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. Diamino divinyl sulphone

C. Dimethyl diphenyl sulphone

D. Diphenyl sulphone

43 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

A. Compared to antibiotics

B. Compared to statins

C. Compared to sulpha drugs

D. Compared to antitubercular drugs

44 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

A. Methyl Group

B. Ethynyl group

C. Propionyl group

D. Propargyl group

45 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

A. Aniline

B. Sulfone

C. Amine

D. All of them

46 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

A. Chlorhexidine

B. Diazepam

C. Miglitol

D. Lorazepam

47 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

A. Bacteria

B. Spores

C. Fungi

D. Viruses

48 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

A. Pyrazine-4- carbohydrazide

B. Pyridine-4- carbohydrazide

C. pyrimidine-4- carbohydrazide

D. pyridine-4-carboxamide

49 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

A. Benzoyl peroxide

B. Tramadol

C. Zidovudine

D. Fluoxetine

50 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

A. Amoebic dysentery

B. Helminth infection

C. Fungal infection

D. None of them

Your score is

The average score is 23%

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2713

Created by

NotesKarts

Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

All of the above

Pancuronium

Gallamine

Tubocurarine

2 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Neostigmine

Pyridostigmine

Edrophonium

Physostigmine

3 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Hexamethonium

D-tubocurarine

Gallamine

Succinylcholine

4 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Active transport

Facilitated diffusion

Ion pair transport

Passive diffusion

5 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Diazepam

Paraldehyde

Phenytoin

Carbamazepine

6 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Detect the impurity in a given drug

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

7 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

None of above

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

8 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

Pregnancy

All of the above

Renal insufficiency

IDDM

9 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Atropine

Isoprenaline

Acetylcholine

Noradrenaline

10 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Mental aberration

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Increased heart rate

Miosis

11 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Competitive antagonism

Antagonist

Non-competitive antagonism

Partial agonist

12 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Suppression of insulin secretion

None of above

Suppression of glucagon secretion

Stimulation of insulin release

13 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinolytics

Cholinomimetic

Sympathomimetic

Cholinesterase inhibitor

14 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

F S H

Prolactin

Vasopressin

15 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

None of the above

Canrenone

Desmethyl spironolactone

Acetylspironolactone

16 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Neostigmine

Pralidoxime

Tubocurarine

Physostigmine

17 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Addition

Synergism

Antagonism

Potentiation

18 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Bronchoconstriction

Block accommodation reflex

Constipation

19 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

All of the above

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

20 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Barbiturates

Carbamazepine

Grape juice

Rifampicin

21 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Atropine

Metoclopramide

Carbamazepine

Scopolamine

22 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Dopamine

All of the above

Epinephrine

Isopropanol

23 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Inhibiting release from storage sites

All of the above

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

Competing at receptor sites

24 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Reduced sweating

Mydriasis

Loss of accommodation

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

25 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Insulin

Prolactin

Histamine

Oxytocin

26 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Alcohol

Warfarin

Digoxin

Amitriptyline

27 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Methylation

α amino acid conjunction

Sulfate conjunction:

Glucuronide conjugation

28 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

None of the above

Pralidoxime

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

29 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Blocking B2 receptor

Stimulating B2 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

30 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

31 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Agranulocytosis

Drug fever

Nephritis

Alopecia

32 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Dysmenorrhoea

Breast Carcinoma

Cerebral thrombosis

Hypertension

33 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

Atropine

All of the above

34 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

35 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Ethanol

Prednisolone

Clofibrate

Salicylates

36 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Inhibits GIT motility

Prevents miosis

37 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M3 antagonist

M1 antagonist

M2 antagonist

M3 agonist

38 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Corpus striatum

Cerebral cortex

Heart

Exocrine gland

39 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

40 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Both a and b

Ecothiopate

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Physostigmine

41 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To stimulate would healing

To cause haemeostasis

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

All of the above

42 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Pirenzepine

Hyoscine

Cyclopentolate

Darifenacin

43 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Physostigmine

Bethanechol

Atropine

Pilocarpine

44 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Respiratory difficulty

Tremor

Cerebral heamorrhage

Palpitation

45 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

Phenothiazines

Atropine

Scopolamines

All of the above

46 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Tachycardia

Hypertension

Bradycardia

Dry mouth

47 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Amphetamine

Ephedrine

Dopamine

All of the above

48 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

Q and S

R and S

P and S

Q and R

49 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

GPCR

Ion channel

Steroid receptor

Enzyme linked

50 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

To check the activity straight muscle

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

None of the above

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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1759

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule W

d. Schedule Y

2 / 25

2. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. President

b. Election of Registered Pharmacists

c. Central Government

d. State Government of Delhi

3 / 25

3. Appendix II is about

a. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

b. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

c. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

d. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

4 / 25

4. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule U1

b. Schedule V

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule U

5 / 25

5. Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

b. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

c. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

d. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

6 / 25

6. "Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for production of sera

b. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

c. Standard for surgical dressing

d. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

7 / 25

7. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Capsule

b. Toxins

c. Antigen

d. Sera

8 / 25

8. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Misbranded drug

b. Drug

c. Adulterated drug

d. Spurious drug

9 / 25

9. Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1940

b. 1919

c. 1995

d. 1948

10 / 25

10. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

b. To prescribe drug

c. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

d. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

11 / 25

11. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form 32

b. Form 30

c. Form36

d. Form 31

12 / 25

12. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 36

b. Form 24

c. Form 32

d. Form 20

13 / 25

13. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. In cold place

b. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

c. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

d. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

14 / 25

14. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 1

b. 3

c. 2

d. 4

15 / 25

15. Insulin comes under

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule J

16 / 25

16. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule W

c. Schedule U

d. Schedule X

17 / 25

17. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Six years

b. Five years

c. Four years

d. Three years

18 / 25

18. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 24D

b. Form 25E

c. Form 20

d. Form 21

19 / 25

19. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule S

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule E

20 / 25

20. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule C

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule M

d. Schedule P

21 / 25

21. Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

22 / 25

22. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Four

b. Five

c. Three

d. Six

23 / 25

23. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule F

c. Schedule B

d. Schedule D

24 / 25

24. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 1

b. 3

c. 2

d. 5

25 / 25

25. Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 17A

b. Section 17

c. Section 17B

d. Section 3B

Your score is

The average score is 39%

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358

1 / 50

1. Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

b. At the Temperature 2°C to 8°C and it must not allow to freeze

c. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

d. In cold place

2 / 50

2. Schedule N states

a. Requirement of factory premises and hygienic condition to complied

b. List of minimum equipment required for manufacturing of drug.

c. List of minimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy

d. Standard for cosmetics

3 / 50

3. If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

a. True Drug

b. Misbranded Drug

c. Spurious Drug

d. Adulterated Drug

4 / 50

4. Patent Act is established in

a. 1919

b. 1940

c. 1948

d. 1970

5 / 50

5. Pack size of drug is covered under

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule P1

c. Schedule R

d. Schedule P

6 / 50

6. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

a. Nine

b. Seven

c. Five

d. Six

7 / 50

7. As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

a. Parenteral preparation

b. Ointment formulation

c. Skin cosmetic preparation

d. Ophthalmic preparation

8 / 50

8. Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

a. Requirements of factory premises

b. List of prescription drugs

c. List of drug exempted from the provision of import of drugs

d. Disease or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure

9 / 50

9. Dettol comes under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule N

d. Schedule Q

10 / 50

10. As per D and C act schedule T stated about

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Allopathy drugs

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Homeopathy drugs

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Medical device

11 / 50

11. Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

a. To determine maximum tolerated dose in humans, Pharmacodynamics effects, Adverse effect.

b. Determine Possible therapeutic uses, Effective doses range

c. Long time adverse effects aster marketing drug

d. Efficacy and Safety of drug in longer number of patients (500 patients)

12 / 50

12. The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

a. 1985

b. 1955

c. 1950

d. 1940

13 / 50

13. In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

a. 100 patients

b. 10-12 patients

c. 500 patients

d. 1-10 patients

14 / 50

14. For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

a. 150 square meters

b. 500 square meters

c. 250 square meters

d. 400 square meters

15 / 50

15. In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

a. President of India

b. The officer in charge of drugs control organization

c. Chief Administrator medical officer of state

d. Government Analyst

16 / 50

16. Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

a. A

b. Q

c. D

d. FF

17 / 50

17. Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

a. X

b. Y

c. V

d. W

18 / 50

18. Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

a. Ayurvedic drugs

b. Misbranded drugs

c. Schedule ‘C’ ‘G’ drugs

d. Toilet preparations

19 / 50

19. For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

a. Symbol N displayed on left top corner of the label.

b. Symbol X given in red

c. Symbol N is red displayed on left top corner of the label

d. Symbol H displayed on right top corner of the label.

20 / 50

20. List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule I

21 / 50

21. List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule Q

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule R

22 / 50

22. Example of Schedule G drug is

a. Enalapril

b. Barbital

c. Metformin

d. Cefuroxime

23 / 50

23. List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

a. G

b. X

c. H

d. K

24 / 50

24. Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

a. Form 25

b. Form 26

c. Form 24

d. Form 27

25 / 50

25. If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

a. Red

b. White

c. Yellow

d. Blue

26 / 50

26. Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

a. A

b. X

c. B

d. C and C1

27 / 50

27. The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

a. Central Government

b. President, Pharmacy Council of India

c. Drug Controller

d. Ministry of Education

28 / 50

28. The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule F

d. Schedule M

29 / 50

29. Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

a. Schedule K

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule L

d. Schedule P

30 / 50

30. Coca, opium and hemp come under:

a. Spurious Drug Act

b. Poisons Act

c. Insecticide Act

d. Dangerous Drug Act

31 / 50

31. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

a. Every 5 year

b. Every 2 year

c. Every 3 year

d. Every 6 year

32 / 50

32. Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

a. 1919

b. 1954

c. 1948

d. 1985

33 / 50

33. Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

a. R1

b. S

c. R

d. O

34 / 50

34. Hatch Waxman Act is related to

a. Banned drugs

b. Over the counter drugs

c. Spurious drugs Act

d. Dangerous drugs Act

35 / 50

35. Schedule C is related to

a. List of Biological and Immunological product

b. List of Ayurvedic product

c. List of Homeopathy product

d. List of Allopathic product

36 / 50

36. Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

a. List of generic drugs

b. None of the above

c. Guidelines for clinical Trials

d. List of incurable diseases

37 / 50

37. TGA is regulatory agency of………….

a. Australia

b. Denmark

c. Zimbabwe

d. India

38 / 50

38. For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

a. 21B

b. 20

c. 20B

d. 21

39 / 50

39. As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

a. A Cold place

b. A cool place

c. Well closed container, protect from light, in cool place, protect from light

d. Temperature not exceeding 5°C

40 / 50

40. As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

a. Area for opening retail pharmacy

b. List of minimum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

c. Area required to open wholesale drug store

d. List of maximum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

41 / 50

41. MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

a. South Africa

b. Denmark

c. Brazil

d. UK

42 / 50

42. In 1954 one of the following act is passed

a. Narcotic and psychotropic substance Act

b. The Medical Termination of pregnancy Act

c. Drug and magic Remedies Act

d. Poisonous Act.

43 / 50

43. Injection syringe and needles are covered under

a. Schedule A

b. Schedule Q

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule B

44 / 50

44. Schedule J is related to

a. GMP

b. Curable disease

c. Pack sizes of drugs.

d. List of disease and ailments which drug cannot claim.

45 / 50

45. MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

a. UK

b. Denmark

c. South Africa

d. Brazil

46 / 50

46. Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

a. 1

b. 3

c. 2

d. 4

47 / 50

47. Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

a. Phase V

b. Phase I

c. Phase II

d. Phase III

48 / 50

48. One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

a. All

b. Chief pharmacist of government hospital

c. Chief administrative medical officer of the state

d. Assistant drug controller

49 / 50

49. DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

a. Four

b. Six

c. Five

d. Eight

50 / 50

50. Aspirin sodium comes under

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule H

d. Schedule Y

Your score is

The average score is 37%

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