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Pharmacology & Toxicology DPEE Test-2 | Pharmacology & Toxicology Class Test |

Pharmacology & Toxicology Class Test-2

This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam. Pharmacology & Toxicology Class Test | Pharmacology & Toxicology DPEE Test

Created by

Noteskarts

Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE-2 | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Select the non-narcotic drug, which is a para aminophenol derivative:

Paracetamol

Aspirin

Analgin

Baclofen

2 / 50

Most of non-narcotic analgesics have:

All of the above

Analgesic effect

Anti-Inflammatory effect

Antipyretic effect

3 / 50

Which of the following non-narcotic agents is salicylic acid derivative?

Aspirin

Phenylbutazone

Tramadol

Ketamine

4 / 50

All of the following are undesirable effects of aspirin EXCEPT:

Tolerance and physical addiction

Gastritis with focal erosions

Reversible renal insufficiency

Bleeding due to a decrease of platelet aggregation

5 / 50

Analgin usefulness is limited by:

Hearing impairment

Erosions and gastric bleeding

Agranulocytosis

Methemoglobinemia

6 / 50

Tick mixed (opioid/non-opioid) agent:

Butorphanol

Tramadol

Paracetamol

Sodium valproate

7 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

A stupor or somnolent state

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

8 / 50

Tick pyrazolone derivative:

Paracetamol

Analgin

Methyl Salicylate

Ketorolac

9 / 50

Which of the following opioid receptor type is responsible for euphoria and respiratory depression?

Kappa-receptors

Delta-receptors

All of the above

Mu-receptors

10 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Agranulocytosis

Nephritis

Alopecia

Drug fever

11 / 50

Lipoprotein is:

Any of various fat-soluble or water-soluble organic substances essential in minute amounts for normal growth and activity of the body and obtained naturally from plant and animal foods

Product of endocrine gland secretion

A conjugated protein having a lipid component; the principle means for transporting lipids in the blood

Mediators of inflammatory process

12 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Salicylates

Prednisolone

Clofibrate

Ethanol

13 / 50

Indicate the chemical mediators in the antinociceptive descending pathway:

All of the above

Dynorphin

Met- and leu-enkephalin

BETA-endorphin

14 / 50

Select the brain and spinal cord regions, which are involved in the transmission of pain?

The ventral and medial parts of the thalamus

All of the above

The limbic system, including the amygdaloidal nucleus and the hypothalamus

The substantia gelatinosa

15 / 50

Hypertryglyceridemia denotes high blood levels of triglycerides. It has been associated with atherosclerosis, even in the absence of hypercholesterolemia (high cholesterol levels). The consideration is:

False

True

16 / 50

Mu (µ) receptors are associated with:

Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory depression, physical dependence

Dysphoria, hallucinations, respiratory and vasomotor stimulation

Spinal analgesia, mydriasis, sedation, physical dependence

Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory stimulation, physical dependence

17 / 50

High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is:

A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein

A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the liver to the tissues

A lipoprotein that contains relatively small amounts of cholesterol and triglycerides and is associated with a decreased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called alpha-lipoprotein

Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to adipose tissue where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase

18 / 50

All of the following statements concerning Cholestyramine

(Questran) are true, EXCEPT:

It is an effective drug for treatment of types IIa and IIb hyperlipidemia

It would not be a good choice for treating patients with familial hypertriglyceridemia (type IV)

It works by directly binding cholesterol in the blood

It is not well tolerated by patients

19 / 50

Narcotic analgesics should:

Induce a stupor or somnolent state

Induce loss of sensation

Relieve severe pain

Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect

20 / 50

Which of the following consideration about type I familial hyperlipoproteinemia is true:

Type I familial hyperlipoproteinemia characterized by increased serum concentrations of chylomicrons, pre-low-density lipoproteins, and triglycerides that are considered to be the result of a combination of fat and carbohydrate-induced hyperlipemia

Type I familial hyperlipoproteinemia marked by the increased serum concentrations of chylomicrons and triglycerides, which decreased if the diet become fat free, decreased concentrations of high- and low-density lipoproteins, which increased if the diet is fat free, and decreased tissues lipoprotein lipase activity

21 / 50

Which of the following Supraspinal structures is implicated in pain-modulating descending pathways?

The aria postrema

The midbrain periaqueductal gray

The limbic cortex

The hypothalamus

22 / 50

Tick narcotic analgesic, which is a phenylpiperidine derivative:

Dezocine

Fentanyl

Buprenorphine

Codeline

23 / 50

Non-narcotic agents causes:

Respiratory depression

Physical dependence

Antipyretic effect

Euphoria

24 / 50

Second-order pain is:

Sharp, well-localized pain

Effectively reduced by non-narcotic analgesics

Associated with fine myelinated A-delta fibers

Dull, burning pain

25 / 50

Characteristic Findings of salicylism include:

Hyperthermia, sweating, thirst, hyperventilation, vomiting and diarrhea

Tinnitus and difficult in hearing

Headache, mental confusion and drowsiness

All of the above

26 / 50

Indicate the nonopioid agents of central effect with analgesic activity:

Reserpine

Propranolol

Clopheline

Prazosin

27 / 50

Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) is:

A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein

A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the liver to the tissues

Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to adipose tissue where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase

28 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

IDDM

Renal insufficiency

Pregnancy

All of the above

29 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Cerebral thrombosis

Breast Carcinoma

Hypertension

Dysmenorrhoea

30 / 50

Hypercholesterolemia ( or hypercholesteremia) is an abnormally high concentration of cholesterol in the blood. This consideration is:

False

True

31 / 50

Which of the following opioid analgesics is a strong mu receptor agonist?

Buprenorphine

Morphine

Pentazocine

Naloxone

32 / 50

Chemical mediators in the nociceptive pathway are all of the following EXCEPT:

Enkephalins

Kinins

Prostaglandins

Substance P

33 / 50

Chylomicron is:

Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to adipose tissues where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase

A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the liver to the tissues

A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein

34 / 50

Nonnarcotic analgesics are mainly effective against pain associated with:

Myocardial infarction

Inflammation or tissue damage

Surgery

Trauma

35 / 50

Indicate the opioid receptor type, which is responsible for dysphoria and vasomotor stimulation:

Delta-receptors

Kappa-receptors

All of the above

Mu-receptors

36 / 50

Indicate the non-narcotic analgesic, which lacks an anti-inflammatory effect:

Aspirin

Naloxone

Paracetamol

Metamizole

37 / 50

Methemoglobinemia is possible adverse effect of:

Ketorolac

Paracetamol

Aspirin

Analgin

38 / 50

Correct statement concerning aspirin include all of the following EXCEPT:

It does not have an anti-inflammatory effect

It inhabits mainly peripheral COX

It inhabits platelet aggregation

It stimulates respiration by a direct action on the respiratory center

39 / 50

Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) is:

A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the liver to the tissues

A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein

Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to adipose tissue where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase

40 / 50

Which one of the following non-narcotic agents inhabits mainly cyclooxygenase(COX) in CNS?

Acetylsalicylic acid

Paracetamol

Ketorolac

Ibuprofen

41 / 50

Hyperlipoproteinemia is a condition marked by an abnormally high level of lipoprotein in the blood. This consideration is:

True

False

42 / 50

Non-narcotic analgesics are all of the following drugs EXCEPT:

Ketorolac

Paracetamol

Butorphanol

Acetylsalicylic acid

43 / 50

Which of the following nonopioid agents is an antidepressant with analgesic activity?

Fluoxetine

Moclobemide

Tranylcypramine

Amitriptyline

44 / 50

For which of the following conditions could aspirin be used prophylactically?

Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema

Thromboembolism

Peptic ulcers

Metabolic acidosis

45 / 50

Which of the following mediators are found mainly in long descending pathway from the midbrain to the dorsal horn?

Prostaglandin E

Glutamate

Dynorphin

Enkephalin

46 / 50

Indicate the neurons, which are located in the locus ceruleus or the lateral tegmental area of the reticular formation:

Nonadrenergic

Gabaergic

Serotonergic

Both (Nonadrenergic & Gabaergic)

Dopaminergic

47 / 50

Which of the following analgesics is a phenanthrene derivative:

Methadone

Pentazocine

Morphine

Fentanyl

48 / 50

Correct the statement concerning ketorolac include all of the following EXCEPT:

It is an effective as morphine for a short-term relief from moderate to severe pain

It has a high potential for physical dependence and abuse

It does not produce respiratory depression

It inhabits COX

49 / 50

Kappa and delta agonists:

Close a voltage-gated ca2+ channels an presynaptic never terminals

Inhabit postsynaptic neurons by opening K+ channels

Inhabit of arachidonate cyclooxygenase in CNS

Both a and b

50 / 50

Select the anti-seizure drug with an analgesic component of effect:

Carbamazepine

Clonazepam

Phenytoin

Ethosuximide

Your score is

The average score is 31%

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1878

Created by

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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

All of the above

Scopolamines

Phenothiazines

Atropine

2 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Non-competitive antagonism

Competitive antagonism

Antagonist

Partial agonist

3 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Breast Carcinoma

Hypertension

Cerebral thrombosis

Dysmenorrhoea

4 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

Detect the impurity in a given drug

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

5 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Physostigmine

Bethanechol

Atropine

Pilocarpine

6 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Mental aberration

Miosis

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Increased heart rate

7 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M3 agonist

M1 antagonist

M2 antagonist

M3 antagonist

8 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Addition

Synergism

Antagonism

Potentiation

9 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

All of the above

Gallamine

Pancuronium

Tubocurarine

10 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Physostigmine

Ecothiopate

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Both a and b

11 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

Neostigmine

None of the above

Pralidoxime

Physostigmine

12 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Alopecia

Agranulocytosis

Nephritis

Drug fever

13 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

D-tubocurarine

Hexamethonium

Succinylcholine

Gallamine

14 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Hypertension

Dry mouth

Tachycardia

Bradycardia

15 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Ephedrine

All of the above

Dopamine

Amphetamine

16 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Atropine

All of the above

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

17 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Palpitation

Cerebral heamorrhage

Respiratory difficulty

Tremor

18 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Cerebral cortex

Corpus striatum

Heart

Exocrine gland

19 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Carbamazepine

Rifampicin

Grape juice

Barbiturates

20 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Bronchoconstriction

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Block accommodation reflex

Constipation

21 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To cause haemeostasis

All of the above

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

To stimulate would healing

22 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

None of the above

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

To check the activity straight muscle

23 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Histamine

Oxytocin

Prolactin

Insulin

24 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Atropine

Scopolamine

Metoclopramide

Carbamazepine

25 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

Vasopressin

F S H

Prolactin

26 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Loss of accommodation

Reduced sweating

Mydriasis

27 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

All of the above

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

28 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Inhibits GIT motility

Prevents miosis

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

29 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Edrophonium

Pyridostigmine

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

30 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

None of above

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

31 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Phenytoin

Diazepam

Paraldehyde

Carbamazepine

32 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

Canrenone

None of the above

Desmethyl spironolactone

Acetylspironolactone

33 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinolytics

Sympathomimetic

Cholinesterase inhibitor

Cholinomimetic

34 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Hyoscine

Pirenzepine

Cyclopentolate

Darifenacin

35 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Suppression of insulin secretion

Suppression of glucagon secretion

Stimulation of insulin release

None of above

36 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

Q and S

P and S

R and S

Q and R

37 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Digoxin

Warfarin

Alcohol

Amitriptyline

38 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Physostigmine

Tubocurarine

Pralidoxime

Neostigmine

39 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Salicylates

Prednisolone

Ethanol

Clofibrate

40 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Inhibiting release from storage sites

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

All of the above

Competing at receptor sites

41 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

42 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Dopamine

Epinephrine

All of the above

Isopropanol

43 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Ion pair transport

Facilitated diffusion

Active transport

Passive diffusion

44 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Stimulating B1 receptor

Blocking B2 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

Stimulating B2 receptor

45 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Enzyme linked

Steroid receptor

GPCR

Ion channel

46 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

47 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Noradrenaline

Isoprenaline

Atropine

Acetylcholine

48 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Glucuronide conjugation

α amino acid conjunction

Methylation

Sulfate conjunction:

49 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

50 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

All of the above

IDDM

Renal insufficiency

Pregnancy

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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1881

Created on June 01, 2022 By

NotesKarts

Pharmaceutics MCQs for DPEE Exam

1 / 100

Transfusion bottles are made of:

A. Neutral glass

B. Molded glass

C. Soda glass

D. Sulphured glass

2 / 100

Choose the correct synonyms of the size reduction.

A. Pulverizing

B. Grinding

C. Comminution

D. All of the above

3 / 100

In mixing of powder which method is used when poten substance are mixed with a large amount of diluents.

A. Spatulation

B. Geometric dilution

C. Trituration

D. Sifting

4 / 100

Endodermic ointments are act as____

A. Protectant

B. Antiseptic

C. Stimulant

D. Parasiticides

5 / 100

A powder of which all the particle pass through the 85 number of sieve.

A. Very fine powder.

B. Fine powder.

C. Coarse powder.

D. Moderately coarse powder.

6 / 100

Choose the correct option; Following is not the mechanism of size reduction.

A. Impact and attrition.

B. Cutting

C. Elutriation

D. Brushing

7 / 100

The following ingredient is used as an antioxidant and chelating agent............

A. EDTA

B. Citric Acid

C Ascorbic Acid

Phenyl Mercuric Acetate

8 / 100

In dilute suspension, the concentration of solid should be......................

A. 2-10%

B. 50%

C. 0.5%

D. 30%

9 / 100

Which of the following ointment is not classified according to its therapeutic use ?

A. Antibiotic ointment

B. Diadermic ointment

C. Antifungal ointment

D. Keratolytic ointment

10 / 100

For any suitable sieve how much sieving area is required (in percentage)?

A. 20-25.

B. 35-40.

C. 65-80.

D. 15-25.

11 / 100

Which of the following ointment is not classified according to therapeutic use?

A. Antibiotics ointment

B. Diadermic ointment

C. Antifungal Ointment

D. Keratolytic ointment

12 / 100

Cachets are also known as

A. Soft gelatin capsule

B. Hard gelatin capsule

C. Water capsule

D. Both A and B

13 / 100

Brownian movement of particle in suspension cause..........................

A. Assist sedimentation

B. Promote sedimentation

C. Prevent sedimentation

D. Increase sedimentation rate

14 / 100

Plastisizers are added in plastic to provides:

A. Flexibility

B. Mechanical strength

C. Heat stability

D. None of the above

15 / 100

The bioavailability of flocculated suspension is .........................

A. Relatively high

B. Comparatively less

C. Both A and B

D. None of the above

16 / 100

Which of the following excipient act as preservative...................

A. Sorbitol monolactrate

B. Tyloxopol

C. Benzethenium chloride

D. Thiomersal

17 / 100

Which dosage form is prepared from rice paper, which is made by pouring a mixture of rice flour and water

A. Cachets

B. Snuffs

C. Insufflations

D. Both A and B

18 / 100

For ideal suspension, the sedimentation volume should be......................

A. Zero

B. Equal to one

C. More than one

D. Less than one

19 / 100

Which of the following substance is used as an inactivating agent for "Sulfonamides".

A. PABA (Para Amino Benzoic Acid)

B. Acetyl Transferase

C. Penicillinase

D. Penicillamine

20 / 100

Which of the following is not an indication for use of pessary

A. As a therapeutic test

B. When future childbearing is intended in near future

C. Refusal for operation by patient

D. Non healing decubitus ulcer

21 / 100

Which one is finely divided solid dosage forms inhaled to nostrils.

A. Insufflations

B. Medicated dusting powder

C. Snuffs

D. Both A and B

22 / 100

A per I.P. temperature range for incubation in sterility testing is.

A. 20-25°C

B. 25-30°C

C. 30-35°C

D. 25-40°C

23 / 100

The label shake well before use is indicated on the mixture containing-

A. Soluble medicaments

B. Potent medicament

C. Diffusible medicaments

D. Miscible liquid

24 / 100

Choose incorrect option regarding ball mill.

A. Ball rotation is important aspects during reduction.

B. It works only on the principle of impact.

C. Ball mill produce loud noise.

D. Due to wearing contamination cause during operation.

25 / 100

The syrup is.................... in nature.

A. Aqueous

B. Non aqueous

C. Gas

D. Solid

26 / 100

Endodermic Ointments are act as______________

A. Protectant

B. Antiseptic

C. Stimulant

D Parasiticides

27 / 100

Inhalation of dusting powder by infants may lead to

A. Pulmonary inflammation

B. Nausea and vomiting

C. Cancer

D. All of the Above

28 / 100

Buffering agent is also called as....................

A. Sweetening agent

B. Thickening agent

C. pH modifiers

D. Wetting agent

29 / 100

Coarse powder is also known as-

A. 44/85.

B. 22/60.

C. 10/44.

D. None of these.

30 / 100

The powder which absorb moisture from the atmosphere are called

A. Hygroscopic powder

B. Deliquescent powder

C. Efflorescent powder

D. All of the Above

31 / 100

An agent used to clean the surface of teeth & decreases the tooth decay, mouth odour is

A. Dental cone

B. Abrasive

C. Dentifrice

D. Dental paste

32 / 100

In aerosol, diptube is usually made for:

A. Propellent

B. Actuator

C. Meteried value

D. Dip tube

33 / 100

Medical dusting powder used mainly

A. Superficial skin condition

B. During surgery

C. In to body cavities

D. In major wounds

34 / 100

The word posos means.................

A. How many

B. How much

C. How about

D. Amount

35 / 100

Hydrolytic resistance test is performed on glass to check:

A. Mechanical strength

B. Liberation of alkali

C. Meteried value

D. Dip tube

36 / 100

Suspension contains.................

A. Insoluble solids

B. Oil phase

C. Soluble solids

D. Grease

37 / 100

The concentration of sucrose in Simple syrup BP.

A. 40.74% w/w

B. 60.70% w/w

C. 66.70% w/w

D. 70.50% w/w

38 / 100

Water for injection differs from sterile distilled water as it is free from ..........................

A. Antioxidant

B. Preservatives

C. Pyrogens

D. Carbon Dioxide

39 / 100

Contact lens are usually made from

A. Polymethyl methacrylate

B. Polyvinyl chloride

C. Carboxymethyl cellulose

D. Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose

40 / 100

.............. is widely used to convert carbomer solution into gel/

A. Citric Acid

B. Sodium Bicarbonate

C. Triethanolamine

D. All of the Above

41 / 100

Some powders absorb moisture to such a great extent that they go in to solution are known as-

A. Efflorescent powder

B. Medicated powder

C. Hygroscopic powder

D. Deliquescent powder

42 / 100

Ampoule generally contain:

A. Single dose parenteral products

B. Multiple dose parenteral products

C. Two or three dosage

D. None of the above

43 / 100

Saccharin is an example of..................

A. Natural sweetening agent

B. Flavouring agent

C. Artificial sweetening agent

D. Humectant

44 / 100

DOP used in validation of HEPA filter is ............................

A. Dioetylpthalate

B. Dioetylpyruvate

C. Dioetanepthalazine

D. Dioetahedraphaladehyde

45 / 100

1 table spoonful mean...............

A. 4 ml

B. 8ml

C. 15 ml

D. 20

46 / 100

Which one of these is an example of ayurvedic drug?

A. Arks

B. Bhasmas

C. Asavas

D. All of these

47 / 100

Rate of sedimentation is high in ?

A. Flocculated

B. De-flocculated

C. Both

D. None

48 / 100

In artificial syrup which ingredients is used.

A. Glucose

B. Sucrose

C. Fructose

D. Saccharine

49 / 100

Elixirs are..............

A. Hydro alcoholic liquid

B. Aqueous

C. Viscous

D. Semi solids

50 / 100

............... is not a type of syrup.

A. Simple syrup

B. Medicated syrup

C. Flavoured syrup

D. Mixed syrup

51 / 100

As per sedimentation theory, if particle size of suspended particle decrease so sedimentation rate decrease...

(So what would be effect on absorption of drug when taken orally????)

A. Absorption increase

B. Absorption decrease

C. No effect

D. Both A & B

52 / 100

Water soluble bases are also known as_____

A. Lanolin

B. Wool fat

C. Grease less ointment base

D. Greasy ointment base

53 / 100

Mechanical sieving device is works on the methods.

A. Agitation method.

B. Brushing method.

C. Centrifugal method.

D. All of the above

54 / 100

Castor oil is used in lipsticks for

A. Building viscosity

B. Giving a shine

C. Preventing bleed

D. Dispersing oxide

55 / 100

Choose the correct synonyms of the size separation.

A. Sieving

B. Sifting

C. Screening.

D. All of the above.

56 / 100

Simple syrup is a saturated solution of.............

A. Sucrose

B. Fructose

C. Dextrose

D. None of these

57 / 100

What is the pH of tears?

A. 5.0

B. 6.5

C. 7.0

D. 7.4

58 / 100

In which container dusting powder are dispensed

A. Sifter top container

B. Plastic container

C. Stainless steel container

D. Glas container

59 / 100

The another name of wool fat is...............

A. Lanolin

B. Anhydrous lanolin

C. Hydrous wool fat

D. Wool alcohol

60 / 100

Paste show which type of flow?

A. Dilatant

B. Plastic

C. Pseudo plastic

D. Shear Thinning

61 / 100

.............. is used as a throat paint vehicle.

A. Glycerine

B. Water

C. Syrup

D. Solutions

62 / 100

If particle size is 1 micro-meter to 100 micro-meters ........

A. Coarse dispersion

B. Colloidal dispersion

C. Flocculated

D. De-flocculated

63 / 100

Which of the following is not monophasic Liquid dosage form........

A. Solution

B. Gargles

C. Suspension

D. Enemas

64 / 100

Nasal drops should have pH...............

A. 5-6

B. 6-7

C. 7-8

D. 8-9

65 / 100

In aerosol, diptube is usually made of:

A. Polyamides

B. Polypropylene

C. Metal

D. Neoprene

66 / 100

Which paper is used for wrapping of powder.

A. Plastic paper

B. Art paper

C. White Glazed Paper

D. Amber colour paper

67 / 100

Which of the following is not a semisolid dosage form?

A. Paste

B. Cream

C. Ointments

D. Suspension

68 / 100

Standard unit volume in metric system is...............

A. Microlitre

B. Milliliter

C. Centiliter

D. Liter

69 / 100

Choose the correct option.

A. Impact → Roller mill.

B. Cutting → Cutter mill.

C. Compression→ Colloid mill.

D. Attrition → Ball mill.

70 / 100

Suppository bases___________

A. Theobroma oil is example

B. Maintain shape

C. Helps in insertion into the body cavity

D. All of the Above

71 / 100

Triple roller mill is used in the preparation of..................

A. Ointment

B. Paste

C. Cream

D. All

72 / 100

Suspending agent imparts ..........................

A. Solubility

B. Viscosity

C. Absorption

D. Wetting

73 / 100

The monophasic liquid dosage form is................ solutions.

A. True

B. Course

C. Fine

D. Micro

74 / 100

Which of the following is not a vehicle......

A. Glycerol

B. Butylated hydroxyl toluene

C. Water

D. Rose water

75 / 100

Sieves are arranged during the size separation of powder.

A. Ascending order.

B. Descending order.

C. Random order.

D. All the above.

76 / 100

....................... drops are used in otic cavity.

A. Eye

B. Ear

C. Nasal

D. None of these

77 / 100

Abrasive agents used in dentifrices are

A. Calcium Sulphate

B. Sodium Carbonate

C. Magnesium Carbonate

D. All of the Above

78 / 100

Douches are meant for application in .....................

A. Buccal cavity

B. Rectal cavity

C. Nasal cavity

D. Vaginal cavity

79 / 100

Standard unit volume in metric system is...............

A. Microlitre

B. Milliliter

C. Centiliter

D. Liter

80 / 100

Fluoride content in paste is.....................

A. NMT 1 PPM

B. NMT 10 PPM

C. NMT 100 PPM

D. NMT 1000 PPM

81 / 100

In ball mill occupy how much area for suitable size reduction.

A. 60-80%.

B. 80-90%.

C. 30-50%.

D. 20-25%.

82 / 100

Pharmaceutical suspension are generally...........

A. Flocculated

B. De-flocculated

C. Both

D. None

83 / 100

Liniments must not be applied on the............skin.

A. Swelled

B. Broken

C. Painful

D. Normal

84 / 100

How much glass of 10% w/w ammonia solution can be made from 1800mg of 28% w/w strong ammonia solution?

A. 5020 gm

B. 5040 gm

C. 5080 gm

D. 5kg

85 / 100

Following ratio is used for the preparation of emulsion...............

A. Fixed oil : Water : Gum (4:2:1)

B. Volatile Oil : Water : Gum (2:2:1)

C. Mineral Oil : Water : Gum (3:2:1)

D. All of the above

86 / 100

Which of the following formulations would not be applicable to ocular administration?

A. Solution

B. Liniment

C. Suspension

D. Ointment

87 / 100

Nasal drops are ...................

A. Isotonic

B. Hypertonic

C. Hypotonic

D. None

88 / 100

Choose the correct mill, whose acts on the principle of impact only.

A. Roller mill.

B. Hammer mill.

C. Ball mill.

D. Both b and c.

89 / 100

What is label condition for eye drops?

A. Discard 24 hours after first opening

B. Discard 30 days after first opening

C. Discard one year after first opening

D. Discard 5 years after first opening

90 / 100

Rectal suppositories intended for adult use usually weight approximately

A. 2g

B. 5g

C. 4g

D. 6g

91 / 100

In suspension, if particle size of suspended particle decrease so............

A. Surface free energy decrease

B. Surface area decrease

C. Surface free energy increase

D. System becomes thermodynamically stable

92 / 100

Following is the same for all crystals of the same materials.

A. Sizes of the faces of crystal

B. Sizes of the edge of the crystals

C. Angles made by the faces of crystals.

D. All of the above.

93 / 100

Critical speed of the ball mill is the speed at which-

A. Ball cascade over one another.

B. Balls begin to centrifuge with mill.

C. Ball starts tumbling.

D. Not define.

94 / 100

Which of the following method is used in preparation of ointment ?

A. Dry gum method

B. Wet gum method

C. Bottle method

D. Fusion method

95 / 100

Dusting powder should be pass through

A. Sieve number 120

B. Sieve number 22

C. Sieve number 80

D. Sieve number 44

96 / 100

Which of the following is a two phase gel system ?

A. Milk of Magnesia

B. HPMC gel

C. CMC gel

D. Carbomer gel

97 / 100

For separating different-different densities material which equipment is mostly used?

A. Cyclone separator.

B. Sieving

C. Elutriation

D. Sedimentation

98 / 100

......................... are very thick and stiff.

A. Pastes

B. Ointments

C. Jellies

D. Poulties

99 / 100

Dusting powder should be applied with

A. Powder puff

B. Sterilized gauze pad

C. Both A and B

D. Palm

100 / 100

Which powder is used into the body cavities as well as umbilical cords of infants.

A. Medicated dusting powder

B. Fine powder

C. Surgical dusting powder

D. Both A and B

Your score is

The average score is 34%

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309

Created by

NotesKarts

Pharmacognosy Class Test | Pharmacognosy DPEE Test

1 / 50

Corm is present in

Saffron

Colchicum

Nux-vomica

A and B

2 / 50

Iodine value for oils and fats is measured as

Iodine present in oils

Extent of unsaturation

Extent of saturation

None of the above

3 / 50

In plant tissue culture surface sterilization of explant is done by

Sodium hypochloride

Bromine water

Hydrogen peroxide

All of the above

4 / 50

The callus is

Differentiated cell mass

Biomass

Isolated roots

Undifferentiated cell mass

5 / 50

Which marine drug has a cardiovascular activity?

Spongosine

Anthropleurins

Saxitoxin

A and B

6 / 50

Biosynthesis of alizarin follows the

Shikkimic acid pathway

Mevalonic acid pathway

Both A and B

Acetate pathway

7 / 50

Candelabra trichomes are present in

Verbascum thapsus

Digitalis purpurea

Senna angustifolia

Helicteris isora

8 / 50

Gibberelin obtained from fungus is

Gibberellin fujikuroi

Fusarium heterospermum

Aspergillus niger

A and B

9 / 50

The biological source of cotton fiber is

Cyamopsis tetragonolobus

Gossypium barbadense

Arachis hypogaea

Saraca indica

10 / 50

Iodine number of fat is determined to know:

Free fatty acid

Average molecular size

Relative unsaturation

All of the above

11 / 50

Aril is present in

Nutmeg

Cardamom

Strophanthus

Castor

12 / 50

Monophybrids describes

One pair of different characters

Two pairs of different characters

More than two pairs of different characters

None of the above

13 / 50

Natural cytokinin is

Kinetin

Zeatin

Adenine

None

14 / 50

According to Ayurveda PITA (bile) is responsible for:

Transmitting sense impression to the mind

Providing the static energy for holding body tissues together

All digestive and metabolic activities

Lubrication of various points of friction

15 / 50

Adaptogen are substances which

Improve physical endurance

Maintain stamina in adverse and difficult environment

Increase the tolerance to change in environment

All of the above

16 / 50

Closed collateral vascular bundles are the characteristics of

Dicotyledonous plant

Monocotyledonous plant

Weeds

None of the above

17 / 50

Which one is essential vitamin in culture media?

Thiamine

Ascorbic acid

Pantothenic acid

Biotin

18 / 50

Halphen's test is used for

Detection of cotton seed oil as an adulterant

Detection of artificial invert sugar

Saponins

Tannins

19 / 50

Which one is not an intermediate in shikimik acid pathway?

Erythrose 4 phosphate

Chrosmic acid

Shikimik acid

Prephenic acid

20 / 50

All are plant growth promoters except

Abscisic acid

Auxin

Gibberellin

Cytokinin

21 / 50

Open collateral vascular bundles are the characteristics of

Dicotyledonous plant

Monocotyledonous plant

Weeds

None of the above

22 / 50

Which of the following is not a micronutrient?

Molybdenum

Copper

Zinc

Hydrogen

23 / 50

The number of milligram of KOH required to combine with fatty acids which are present in glyceride from in 1 gram of sample of oil or fat is called

Difference between saponification value and acid value

Ester value

Acid value

Both (A) and (B)

24 / 50

Chemodemes refer to

Chemical race

Taxonomic race

Physical race

None of the above

25 / 50

Which one is also known as extra-nuclear?

Golgi complex

Plastid

Argon

Mitochondria

26 / 50

In which Ayurvedic formulation preservative is not required?

Lepa

Vatika

Asava

Pisti

27 / 50

Centroxylic vascular bundle is present in

Malefern

Sweat flag

Maize

Sunflower

28 / 50

In protoplast culture protoplasm is isolated by using

Cellulase

Macerozyme

Both

None

29 / 50

All are true about leaflets, except

Bud or branch is absent in leaflets

Leaflets are arranged in pairs

Leaflets are asymmetric at the bases

Examples include rose, neem, digitise and senna etc.

30 / 50

Which is not one of the parameter of quantitative chemical tests of fixed oils and fat?

Viscosity

Reichert-Meissel value

Peroxide value

Hydroxyl value

31 / 50

Manoalide, a marine drug, is

Antifungal

Muscle relaxant

Anti-inflammatory

Antipyretic

32 / 50

Antileukemic compound bryostatin is isolated from marine organism

Bugula neritina

Tethya crypta

Lissoclinum patella

Trididemnum species

33 / 50

Keris test is used for

Caffeine

Aloes

Presence of deoxy sugar

Rancidity of fats and oils

34 / 50

Marine fungus is the source for

Penicillin

Cephalosporin

Zonarol

Avarol

35 / 50

Which drug has a cytotoxic activity?

Anthropleurins

Laminine

Ara-C

Saxitoxin

36 / 50

For the formation of shoot which ratio of plant growth regulators is required ?

Auxin:cytokinin (1:4)

Auxin:cytokinin (4:1)

Auxin:cytokinin (100:1)

Auxin:cytokinin (1:100)

37 / 50

Stellate trichomes are present in

Humulus

Pyrethrum

Hammaelis

Calendula officinalis

38 / 50

The germination capacity of seeds is tested by

Rolled towel test

Germination index

Locast test

Testa swelling test

39 / 50

Chrysanthemum is mainly used as

Pesticide

Insecticide

Rodenticide

Larvicide

40 / 50

Which of the following causes fruit ripening?

Auxin

Cytokinin

Gibberellins

Ethylene

41 / 50

Centroxylic stands for

Phloem in the centre surrounded by xylem

Xylem in the centre surrounded by phloem

Phloem in the centre surrounded by cambium

Xylem in the centre surrounded by cambium

42 / 50

Which of the following is not a micronutrient?

Molybdenum

Copper

Zinc

Hydrogen

43 / 50

Relation between ester value saponification value and acid value is

Ester Value = Saponification value - Acid value

Ester Value = Saponification value + Acid value

Acid value = Ester value - Saponification value

B and C

44 / 50

Caruncle is present in

Nutmeg

Cardamom

Strophanthus

Castor

45 / 50

Aril is

Outgrowth from micropyle and covering the seed

Stiff-bristle like appendages with wavy flowering glume of grasses

Warty out growth from micropyle

Succulent growth from hilum covering entire seed

46 / 50

Palisade ratio is

Total number of palisade cells beneath each upper epidermal cell

Total number of palisade cells beneath mesophyll

Average number of palisade cells beneath each upper epidermal cells

None of the above

47 / 50

Silk consists of:

Keratin

Fibroin

Resins

None of the above

48 / 50

1 IU of vitamin A represents

0.0344 μg of standard preparation

0.344 μg of standard preparation

0.443 mg of standard preparation

0.77g of standard preparation

49 / 50

For vitamin A,

1IU is, contains 76 mg of standard preparation

1IU is contained 0.025 μg of standard preparation

1IU is present in 0.344μg of standard preparation

1 IU is present in 7.7 μg of standard preparation

50 / 50

Chlorophytum borivilianum is used as

Anti-fertility

Antipyretic

Aphrodisiac

Expectorant

Your score is

The average score is 26%

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