Pharmacology & Toxicology DPEE Test-2 | Pharmacology & Toxicology Class Test |

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Pharmacology & Toxicology Class Test-2

This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam. Pharmacology & Toxicology Class Test | Pharmacology & Toxicology DPEE Test

Created by

Noteskarts

Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE-2 | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Tick pyrazolone derivative:

Methyl Salicylate

Analgin

Paracetamol

Ketorolac

2 / 50

High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is:

A lipoprotein that contains relatively small amounts of cholesterol and triglycerides and is associated with a decreased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called alpha-lipoprotein

A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein

Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to adipose tissue where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase

A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the liver to the tissues

3 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Hypertension

Dysmenorrhoea

Breast Carcinoma

Cerebral thrombosis

4 / 50

Indicate the nonopioid agents of central effect with analgesic activity:

Clopheline

Propranolol

Reserpine

Prazosin

5 / 50

Chylomicron is:

A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein

A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the liver to the tissues

Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to adipose tissues where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase

6 / 50

Indicate the chemical mediators in the antinociceptive descending pathway:

BETA-endorphin

Met- and leu-enkephalin

All of the above

Dynorphin

7 / 50

Select the anti-seizure drug with an analgesic component of effect:

Ethosuximide

Carbamazepine

Clonazepam

Phenytoin

8 / 50

Methemoglobinemia is possible adverse effect of:

Analgin

Aspirin

Paracetamol

Ketorolac

9 / 50

Hyperlipoproteinemia is a condition marked by an abnormally high level of lipoprotein in the blood. This consideration is:

False

True

10 / 50

Hypertryglyceridemia denotes high blood levels of triglycerides. It has been associated with atherosclerosis, even in the absence of hypercholesterolemia (high cholesterol levels). The consideration is:

False

True

11 / 50

Tick mixed (opioid/non-opioid) agent:

Butorphanol

Tramadol

Sodium valproate

Paracetamol

12 / 50

Lipoprotein is:

A conjugated protein having a lipid component; the principle means for transporting lipids in the blood

Any of various fat-soluble or water-soluble organic substances essential in minute amounts for normal growth and activity of the body and obtained naturally from plant and animal foods

Product of endocrine gland secretion

Mediators of inflammatory process

13 / 50

Which of the following non-narcotic agents is salicylic acid derivative?

Tramadol

Ketamine

Phenylbutazone

Aspirin

14 / 50

Which of the following consideration about type I familial hyperlipoproteinemia is true:

Type I familial hyperlipoproteinemia marked by the increased serum concentrations of chylomicrons and triglycerides, which decreased if the diet become fat free, decreased concentrations of high- and low-density lipoproteins, which increased if the diet is fat free, and decreased tissues lipoprotein lipase activity

Type I familial hyperlipoproteinemia characterized by increased serum concentrations of chylomicrons, pre-low-density lipoproteins, and triglycerides that are considered to be the result of a combination of fat and carbohydrate-induced hyperlipemia

15 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

A stupor or somnolent state

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

16 / 50

Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) is:

A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the liver to the tissues

Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to adipose tissue where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase

A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein

17 / 50

Chemical mediators in the nociceptive pathway are all of the following EXCEPT:

Kinins

Prostaglandins

Substance P

Enkephalins

18 / 50

Narcotic analgesics should:

Induce a stupor or somnolent state

Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect

Induce loss of sensation

Relieve severe pain

19 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

Renal insufficiency

Pregnancy

IDDM

All of the above

20 / 50

Characteristic Findings of salicylism include:

Headache, mental confusion and drowsiness

Hyperthermia, sweating, thirst, hyperventilation, vomiting and diarrhea

All of the above

Tinnitus and difficult in hearing

21 / 50

Select the brain and spinal cord regions, which are involved in the transmission of pain?

The limbic system, including the amygdaloidal nucleus and the hypothalamus

The substantia gelatinosa

All of the above

The ventral and medial parts of the thalamus

22 / 50

Non-narcotic agents causes:

Antipyretic effect

Physical dependence

Euphoria

Respiratory depression

23 / 50

Indicate the non-narcotic analgesic, which lacks an anti-inflammatory effect:

Aspirin

Paracetamol

Naloxone

Metamizole

24 / 50

Which of the following opioid analgesics is a strong mu receptor agonist?

Pentazocine

Morphine

Buprenorphine

Naloxone

25 / 50

Which of the following opioid receptor type is responsible for euphoria and respiratory depression?

Delta-receptors

Kappa-receptors

All of the above

Mu-receptors

26 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Clofibrate

Ethanol

Prednisolone

Salicylates

27 / 50

Analgin usefulness is limited by:

Erosions and gastric bleeding

Hearing impairment

Agranulocytosis

Methemoglobinemia

28 / 50

Tick narcotic analgesic, which is a phenylpiperidine derivative:

Codeline

Buprenorphine

Fentanyl

Dezocine

29 / 50

Indicate the opioid receptor type, which is responsible for dysphoria and vasomotor stimulation:

Mu-receptors

Kappa-receptors

Delta-receptors

All of the above

30 / 50

For which of the following conditions could aspirin be used prophylactically?

Thromboembolism

Peptic ulcers

Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema

Metabolic acidosis

31 / 50

Indicate the neurons, which are located in the locus ceruleus or the lateral tegmental area of the reticular formation:

Nonadrenergic

Dopaminergic

Gabaergic

Both (Nonadrenergic & Gabaergic)

Serotonergic

32 / 50

Nonnarcotic analgesics are mainly effective against pain associated with:

Surgery

Inflammation or tissue damage

Trauma

Myocardial infarction

33 / 50

Kappa and delta agonists:

Both a and b

Inhabit of arachidonate cyclooxygenase in CNS

Close a voltage-gated ca2+ channels an presynaptic never terminals

Inhabit postsynaptic neurons by opening K+ channels

34 / 50

Second-order pain is:

Effectively reduced by non-narcotic analgesics

Dull, burning pain

Associated with fine myelinated A-delta fibers

Sharp, well-localized pain

35 / 50

Correct the statement concerning ketorolac include all of the following EXCEPT:

It has a high potential for physical dependence and abuse

It inhabits COX

It does not produce respiratory depression

It is an effective as morphine for a short-term relief from moderate to severe pain

36 / 50

Select the non-narcotic drug, which is a para aminophenol derivative:

Baclofen

Analgin

Paracetamol

Aspirin

37 / 50

Which one of the following non-narcotic agents inhabits mainly cyclooxygenase(COX) in CNS?

Paracetamol

Ibuprofen

Ketorolac

Acetylsalicylic acid

38 / 50

All of the following statements concerning Cholestyramine

(Questran) are true, EXCEPT:

It works by directly binding cholesterol in the blood

It is an effective drug for treatment of types IIa and IIb hyperlipidemia

It would not be a good choice for treating patients with familial hypertriglyceridemia (type IV)

It is not well tolerated by patients

39 / 50

Non-narcotic analgesics are all of the following drugs EXCEPT:

Acetylsalicylic acid

Paracetamol

Butorphanol

Ketorolac

40 / 50

Which of the following Supraspinal structures is implicated in pain-modulating descending pathways?

The midbrain periaqueductal gray

The limbic cortex

The aria postrema

The hypothalamus

41 / 50

Which of the following analgesics is a phenanthrene derivative:

Methadone

Fentanyl

Pentazocine

Morphine

42 / 50

Which of the following nonopioid agents is an antidepressant with analgesic activity?

Tranylcypramine

Fluoxetine

Amitriptyline

Moclobemide

43 / 50

Most of non-narcotic analgesics have:

Antipyretic effect

All of the above

Anti-Inflammatory effect

Analgesic effect

44 / 50

Which of the following mediators are found mainly in long descending pathway from the midbrain to the dorsal horn?

Glutamate

Prostaglandin E

Enkephalin

Dynorphin

45 / 50

Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) is:

Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to adipose tissue where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase

A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein

A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the liver to the tissues

46 / 50

All of the following are undesirable effects of aspirin EXCEPT:

Tolerance and physical addiction

Gastritis with focal erosions

Bleeding due to a decrease of platelet aggregation

Reversible renal insufficiency

47 / 50

Correct statement concerning aspirin include all of the following EXCEPT:

It inhabits platelet aggregation

It inhabits mainly peripheral COX

It does not have an anti-inflammatory effect

It stimulates respiration by a direct action on the respiratory center

48 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Alopecia

Agranulocytosis

Drug fever

Nephritis

49 / 50

Mu (µ) receptors are associated with:

Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory depression, physical dependence

Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory stimulation, physical dependence

Dysphoria, hallucinations, respiratory and vasomotor stimulation

Spinal analgesia, mydriasis, sedation, physical dependence

50 / 50

Hypercholesterolemia ( or hypercholesteremia) is an abnormally high concentration of cholesterol in the blood. This consideration is:

True

False

Your score is

The average score is 31%

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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

All of the above

Inhibiting release from storage sites

Competing at receptor sites

2 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

A stupor or somnolent state

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

3 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

4 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Barbiturates

Carbamazepine

Grape juice

Rifampicin

5 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Darifenacin

Hyoscine

Pirenzepine

Cyclopentolate

6 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Nephritis

Alopecia

Agranulocytosis

Drug fever

7 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

All of the above

To cause haemeostasis

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

To stimulate would healing

8 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

All of the above

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

9 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Succinylcholine

Hexamethonium

Gallamine

D-tubocurarine

10 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

Q and R

P and S

Q and S

R and S

11 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Cerebral cortex

Corpus striatum

Heart

Exocrine gland

12 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

All of the above

Tubocurarine

Pancuronium

Gallamine

13 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

Desmethyl spironolactone

Canrenone

Acetylspironolactone

None of the above

14 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Prevents miosis

Inhibits GIT motility

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

15 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

F S H

Prolactin

Vasopressin

16 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

None of above

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

17 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Synergism

Antagonism

Addition

Potentiation

18 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Amitriptyline

Digoxin

Warfarin

Alcohol

19 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Ephedrine

Amphetamine

All of the above

Dopamine

20 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Palpitation

Respiratory difficulty

Tremor

Cerebral heamorrhage

21 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Atropine

Pilocarpine

Bethanechol

Physostigmine

22 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

Renal insufficiency

All of the above

Pregnancy

IDDM

23 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Detect the impurity in a given drug

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

24 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Partial agonist

Competitive antagonism

Non-competitive antagonism

Antagonist

25 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

None of above

Suppression of insulin secretion

Stimulation of insulin release

Suppression of glucagon secretion

26 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Bronchoconstriction

Block accommodation reflex

Constipation

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

27 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Oxytocin

Insulin

Histamine

Prolactin

28 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Phenytoin

Paraldehyde

Diazepam

Carbamazepine

29 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Isopropanol

Dopamine

All of the above

Epinephrine

30 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Steroid receptor

GPCR

Ion channel

Enzyme linked

31 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

32 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Atropine

Neostigmine

All of the above

Physostigmine

33 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Facilitated diffusion

Active transport

Passive diffusion

Ion pair transport

34 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Mental aberration

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Increased heart rate

Miosis

35 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Prednisolone

Salicylates

Clofibrate

Ethanol

36 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

Pralidoxime

Physostigmine

None of the above

Neostigmine

37 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Atropine

Scopolamine

Carbamazepine

Metoclopramide

38 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M1 antagonist

M3 agonist

M3 antagonist

M2 antagonist

39 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Mydriasis

Loss of accommodation

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Reduced sweating

40 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Breast Carcinoma

Cerebral thrombosis

Hypertension

Dysmenorrhoea

41 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Physostigmine

Tubocurarine

Pralidoxime

Neostigmine

42 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Physostigmine

Edrophonium

Pyridostigmine

Neostigmine

43 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Atropine

Acetylcholine

Noradrenaline

Isoprenaline

44 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Stimulating B2 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

Blocking B2 receptor

45 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

None of the above

To check the activity straight muscle

46 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinomimetic

Cholinolytics

Sympathomimetic

Cholinesterase inhibitor

47 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Bradycardia

Hypertension

Tachycardia

Dry mouth

48 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Sulfate conjunction:

Glucuronide conjugation

Methylation

α amino acid conjunction

49 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Both a and b

Ecothiopate

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Physostigmine

50 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

All of the above

Phenothiazines

Scopolamines

Atropine

Your score is

The average score is 29%

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Created on June 01, 2022 By

NotesKarts

Pharmaceutics MCQs for DPEE Exam

1 / 100

In artificial syrup which ingredients is used.

A. Glucose

B. Sucrose

C. Fructose

D. Saccharine

2 / 100

The bioavailability of flocculated suspension is .........................

A. Relatively high

B. Comparatively less

C. Both A and B

D. None of the above

3 / 100

Castor oil is used in lipsticks for

A. Building viscosity

B. Giving a shine

C. Preventing bleed

D. Dispersing oxide

4 / 100

Suspending agent imparts ..........................

A. Solubility

B. Viscosity

C. Absorption

D. Wetting

5 / 100

The syrup is.................... in nature.

A. Aqueous

B. Non aqueous

C. Gas

D. Solid

6 / 100

What is label condition for eye drops?

A. Discard 24 hours after first opening

B. Discard 30 days after first opening

C. Discard one year after first opening

D. Discard 5 years after first opening

7 / 100

The word posos means.................

A. How many

B. How much

C. How about

D. Amount

8 / 100

The concentration of sucrose in Simple syrup BP.

A. 40.74% w/w

B. 60.70% w/w

C. 66.70% w/w

D. 70.50% w/w

9 / 100

Water soluble bases are also known as_____

A. Lanolin

B. Wool fat

C. Grease less ointment base

D. Greasy ointment base

10 / 100

Which of the following formulations would not be applicable to ocular administration?

A. Solution

B. Liniment

C. Suspension

D. Ointment

11 / 100

Choose the correct option.

A. Impact → Roller mill.

B. Cutting → Cutter mill.

C. Compression→ Colloid mill.

D. Attrition → Ball mill.

12 / 100

Fluoride content in paste is.....................

A. NMT 1 PPM

B. NMT 10 PPM

C. NMT 100 PPM

D. NMT 1000 PPM

13 / 100

Douches are meant for application in .....................

A. Buccal cavity

B. Rectal cavity

C. Nasal cavity

D. Vaginal cavity

14 / 100

Which of the following ointment is not classified according to therapeutic use?

A. Antibiotics ointment

B. Diadermic ointment

C. Antifungal Ointment

D. Keratolytic ointment

15 / 100

Which paper is used for wrapping of powder.

A. Plastic paper

B. Art paper

C. White Glazed Paper

D. Amber colour paper

16 / 100

Nasal drops are ...................

A. Isotonic

B. Hypertonic

C. Hypotonic

D. None

17 / 100

Brownian movement of particle in suspension cause..........................

A. Assist sedimentation

B. Promote sedimentation

C. Prevent sedimentation

D. Increase sedimentation rate

18 / 100

As per sedimentation theory, if particle size of suspended particle decrease so sedimentation rate decrease...

(So what would be effect on absorption of drug when taken orally????)

A. Absorption increase

B. Absorption decrease

C. No effect

D. Both A & B

19 / 100

Rectal suppositories intended for adult use usually weight approximately

A. 2g

B. 5g

C. 4g

D. 6g

20 / 100

Which of the following is not a semisolid dosage form?

A. Paste

B. Cream

C. Ointments

D. Suspension

21 / 100

Medical dusting powder used mainly

A. Superficial skin condition

B. During surgery

C. In to body cavities

D. In major wounds

22 / 100

In aerosol, diptube is usually made of:

A. Polyamides

B. Polypropylene

C. Metal

D. Neoprene

23 / 100

A powder of which all the particle pass through the 85 number of sieve.

A. Very fine powder.

B. Fine powder.

C. Coarse powder.

D. Moderately coarse powder.

24 / 100

If particle size is 1 micro-meter to 100 micro-meters ........

A. Coarse dispersion

B. Colloidal dispersion

C. Flocculated

D. De-flocculated

25 / 100

Buffering agent is also called as....................

A. Sweetening agent

B. Thickening agent

C. pH modifiers

D. Wetting agent

26 / 100

What is the pH of tears?

A. 5.0

B. 6.5

C. 7.0

D. 7.4

27 / 100

Elixirs are..............

A. Hydro alcoholic liquid

B. Aqueous

C. Viscous

D. Semi solids

28 / 100

The another name of wool fat is...............

A. Lanolin

B. Anhydrous lanolin

C. Hydrous wool fat

D. Wool alcohol

29 / 100

Contact lens are usually made from

A. Polymethyl methacrylate

B. Polyvinyl chloride

C. Carboxymethyl cellulose

D. Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose

30 / 100

Which one is finely divided solid dosage forms inhaled to nostrils.

A. Insufflations

B. Medicated dusting powder

C. Snuffs

D. Both A and B

31 / 100

Hydrolytic resistance test is performed on glass to check:

A. Mechanical strength

B. Liberation of alkali

C. Meteried value

D. Dip tube

32 / 100

Which of the following is not monophasic Liquid dosage form........

A. Solution

B. Gargles

C. Suspension

D. Enemas

33 / 100

Transfusion bottles are made of:

A. Neutral glass

B. Molded glass

C. Soda glass

D. Sulphured glass

34 / 100

Plastisizers are added in plastic to provides:

A. Flexibility

B. Mechanical strength

C. Heat stability

D. None of the above

35 / 100

.............. is widely used to convert carbomer solution into gel/

A. Citric Acid

B. Sodium Bicarbonate

C. Triethanolamine

D. All of the Above

36 / 100

For separating different-different densities material which equipment is mostly used?

A. Cyclone separator.

B. Sieving

C. Elutriation

D. Sedimentation

37 / 100

Choose the correct synonyms of the size reduction.

A. Pulverizing

B. Grinding

C. Comminution

D. All of the above

38 / 100

Which of the following method is used in preparation of ointment ?

A. Dry gum method

B. Wet gum method

C. Bottle method

D. Fusion method

39 / 100

1 table spoonful mean...............

A. 4 ml

B. 8ml

C. 15 ml

D. 20

40 / 100

Standard unit volume in metric system is...............

A. Microlitre

B. Milliliter

C. Centiliter

D. Liter

41 / 100

Choose the correct synonyms of the size separation.

A. Sieving

B. Sifting

C. Screening.

D. All of the above.

42 / 100

For ideal suspension, the sedimentation volume should be......................

A. Zero

B. Equal to one

C. More than one

D. Less than one

43 / 100

....................... drops are used in otic cavity.

A. Eye

B. Ear

C. Nasal

D. None of these

44 / 100

Choose the correct mill, whose acts on the principle of impact only.

A. Roller mill.

B. Hammer mill.

C. Ball mill.

D. Both b and c.

45 / 100

Standard unit volume in metric system is...............

A. Microlitre

B. Milliliter

C. Centiliter

D. Liter

46 / 100

Nasal drops should have pH...............

A. 5-6

B. 6-7

C. 7-8

D. 8-9

47 / 100

Which powder is used into the body cavities as well as umbilical cords of infants.

A. Medicated dusting powder

B. Fine powder

C. Surgical dusting powder

D. Both A and B

48 / 100

............... is not a type of syrup.

A. Simple syrup

B. Medicated syrup

C. Flavoured syrup

D. Mixed syrup

49 / 100

Suspension contains.................

A. Insoluble solids

B. Oil phase

C. Soluble solids

D. Grease

50 / 100

The monophasic liquid dosage form is................ solutions.

A. True

B. Course

C. Fine

D. Micro

51 / 100

Dusting powder should be applied with

A. Powder puff

B. Sterilized gauze pad

C. Both A and B

D. Palm

52 / 100

Water for injection differs from sterile distilled water as it is free from ..........................

A. Antioxidant

B. Preservatives

C. Pyrogens

D. Carbon Dioxide

53 / 100

In suspension, if particle size of suspended particle decrease so............

A. Surface free energy decrease

B. Surface area decrease

C. Surface free energy increase

D. System becomes thermodynamically stable

54 / 100

Mechanical sieving device is works on the methods.

A. Agitation method.

B. Brushing method.

C. Centrifugal method.

D. All of the above

55 / 100

Following ratio is used for the preparation of emulsion...............

A. Fixed oil : Water : Gum (4:2:1)

B. Volatile Oil : Water : Gum (2:2:1)

C. Mineral Oil : Water : Gum (3:2:1)

D. All of the above

56 / 100

In which container dusting powder are dispensed

A. Sifter top container

B. Plastic container

C. Stainless steel container

D. Glas container

57 / 100

Endodermic Ointments are act as______________

A. Protectant

B. Antiseptic

C. Stimulant

D Parasiticides

58 / 100

Ampoule generally contain:

A. Single dose parenteral products

B. Multiple dose parenteral products

C. Two or three dosage

D. None of the above

59 / 100

Which of the following excipient act as preservative...................

A. Sorbitol monolactrate

B. Tyloxopol

C. Benzethenium chloride

D. Thiomersal

60 / 100

How much glass of 10% w/w ammonia solution can be made from 1800mg of 28% w/w strong ammonia solution?

A. 5020 gm

B. 5040 gm

C. 5080 gm

D. 5kg

61 / 100

The label shake well before use is indicated on the mixture containing-

A. Soluble medicaments

B. Potent medicament

C. Diffusible medicaments

D. Miscible liquid

62 / 100

Triple roller mill is used in the preparation of..................

A. Ointment

B. Paste

C. Cream

D. All

63 / 100

An agent used to clean the surface of teeth & decreases the tooth decay, mouth odour is

A. Dental cone

B. Abrasive

C. Dentifrice

D. Dental paste

64 / 100

Critical speed of the ball mill is the speed at which-

A. Ball cascade over one another.

B. Balls begin to centrifuge with mill.

C. Ball starts tumbling.

D. Not define.

65 / 100

DOP used in validation of HEPA filter is ............................

A. Dioetylpthalate

B. Dioetylpyruvate

C. Dioetanepthalazine

D. Dioetahedraphaladehyde

66 / 100

Inhalation of dusting powder by infants may lead to

A. Pulmonary inflammation

B. Nausea and vomiting

C. Cancer

D. All of the Above

67 / 100

Sieves are arranged during the size separation of powder.

A. Ascending order.

B. Descending order.

C. Random order.

D. All the above.

68 / 100

Which of the following substance is used as an inactivating agent for "Sulfonamides".

A. PABA (Para Amino Benzoic Acid)

B. Acetyl Transferase

C. Penicillinase

D. Penicillamine

69 / 100

Liniments must not be applied on the............skin.

A. Swelled

B. Broken

C. Painful

D. Normal

70 / 100

Which one of these is an example of ayurvedic drug?

A. Arks

B. Bhasmas

C. Asavas

D. All of these

71 / 100

Which dosage form is prepared from rice paper, which is made by pouring a mixture of rice flour and water

A. Cachets

B. Snuffs

C. Insufflations

D. Both A and B

72 / 100

Following is the same for all crystals of the same materials.

A. Sizes of the faces of crystal

B. Sizes of the edge of the crystals

C. Angles made by the faces of crystals.

D. All of the above.

73 / 100

Simple syrup is a saturated solution of.............

A. Sucrose

B. Fructose

C. Dextrose

D. None of these

74 / 100

Cachets are also known as

A. Soft gelatin capsule

B. Hard gelatin capsule

C. Water capsule

D. Both A and B

75 / 100

Saccharin is an example of..................

A. Natural sweetening agent

B. Flavouring agent

C. Artificial sweetening agent

D. Humectant

76 / 100

Which of the following ointment is not classified according to its therapeutic use ?

A. Antibiotic ointment

B. Diadermic ointment

C. Antifungal ointment

D. Keratolytic ointment

77 / 100

Abrasive agents used in dentifrices are

A. Calcium Sulphate

B. Sodium Carbonate

C. Magnesium Carbonate

D. All of the Above

78 / 100

In dilute suspension, the concentration of solid should be......................

A. 2-10%

B. 50%

C. 0.5%

D. 30%

79 / 100

In aerosol, diptube is usually made for:

A. Propellent

B. Actuator

C. Meteried value

D. Dip tube

80 / 100

Suppository bases___________

A. Theobroma oil is example

B. Maintain shape

C. Helps in insertion into the body cavity

D. All of the Above

81 / 100

Endodermic ointments are act as____

A. Protectant

B. Antiseptic

C. Stimulant

D. Parasiticides

82 / 100

.............. is used as a throat paint vehicle.

A. Glycerine

B. Water

C. Syrup

D. Solutions

83 / 100

......................... are very thick and stiff.

A. Pastes

B. Ointments

C. Jellies

D. Poulties

84 / 100

The powder which absorb moisture from the atmosphere are called

A. Hygroscopic powder

B. Deliquescent powder

C. Efflorescent powder

D. All of the Above

85 / 100

In mixing of powder which method is used when poten substance are mixed with a large amount of diluents.

A. Spatulation

B. Geometric dilution

C. Trituration

D. Sifting

86 / 100

Choose the correct option; Following is not the mechanism of size reduction.

A. Impact and attrition.

B. Cutting

C. Elutriation

D. Brushing

87 / 100

Dusting powder should be pass through

A. Sieve number 120

B. Sieve number 22

C. Sieve number 80

D. Sieve number 44

88 / 100

The following ingredient is used as an antioxidant and chelating agent............

A. EDTA

B. Citric Acid

C Ascorbic Acid

Phenyl Mercuric Acetate

89 / 100

Which of the following is not an indication for use of pessary

A. As a therapeutic test

B. When future childbearing is intended in near future

C. Refusal for operation by patient

D. Non healing decubitus ulcer

90 / 100

Paste show which type of flow?

A. Dilatant

B. Plastic

C. Pseudo plastic

D. Shear Thinning

91 / 100

Which of the following is not a vehicle......

A. Glycerol

B. Butylated hydroxyl toluene

C. Water

D. Rose water

92 / 100

Which of the following is a two phase gel system ?

A. Milk of Magnesia

B. HPMC gel

C. CMC gel

D. Carbomer gel

93 / 100

A per I.P. temperature range for incubation in sterility testing is.

A. 20-25°C

B. 25-30°C

C. 30-35°C

D. 25-40°C

94 / 100

Pharmaceutical suspension are generally...........

A. Flocculated

B. De-flocculated

C. Both

D. None

95 / 100

Coarse powder is also known as-

A. 44/85.

B. 22/60.

C. 10/44.

D. None of these.

96 / 100

Choose incorrect option regarding ball mill.

A. Ball rotation is important aspects during reduction.

B. It works only on the principle of impact.

C. Ball mill produce loud noise.

D. Due to wearing contamination cause during operation.

97 / 100

For any suitable sieve how much sieving area is required (in percentage)?

A. 20-25.

B. 35-40.

C. 65-80.

D. 15-25.

98 / 100

Some powders absorb moisture to such a great extent that they go in to solution are known as-

A. Efflorescent powder

B. Medicated powder

C. Hygroscopic powder

D. Deliquescent powder

99 / 100

In ball mill occupy how much area for suitable size reduction.

A. 60-80%.

B. 80-90%.

C. 30-50%.

D. 20-25%.

100 / 100

Rate of sedimentation is high in ?

A. Flocculated

B. De-flocculated

C. Both

D. None

Your score is

The average score is 31%

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219

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NotesKarts

Pharmacognosy Class Test | Pharmacognosy DPEE Test

1 / 50

Keris test is used for

Caffeine

Aloes

Presence of deoxy sugar

Rancidity of fats and oils

2 / 50

Iodine value for oils and fats is measured as

Iodine present in oils

Extent of unsaturation

Extent of saturation

None of the above

3 / 50

Open collateral vascular bundles are the characteristics of

Dicotyledonous plant

Monocotyledonous plant

Weeds

None of the above

4 / 50

Chrysanthemum is mainly used as

Pesticide

Insecticide

Rodenticide

Larvicide

5 / 50

Chemodemes refer to

Chemical race

Taxonomic race

Physical race

None of the above

6 / 50

In which Ayurvedic formulation preservative is not required?

Lepa

Vatika

Asava

Pisti

7 / 50

All are plant growth promoters except

Abscisic acid

Auxin

Gibberellin

Cytokinin

8 / 50

Which of the following causes fruit ripening?

Auxin

Cytokinin

Gibberellins

Ethylene

9 / 50

The germination capacity of seeds is tested by

Rolled towel test

Germination index

Locast test

Testa swelling test

10 / 50

Which one is essential vitamin in culture media?

Thiamine

Ascorbic acid

Pantothenic acid

Biotin

11 / 50

Which marine drug has a cardiovascular activity?

Spongosine

Anthropleurins

Saxitoxin

A and B

12 / 50

Centroxylic stands for

Phloem in the centre surrounded by xylem

Xylem in the centre surrounded by phloem

Phloem in the centre surrounded by cambium

Xylem in the centre surrounded by cambium

13 / 50

Palisade ratio is

Total number of palisade cells beneath each upper epidermal cell

Total number of palisade cells beneath mesophyll

Average number of palisade cells beneath each upper epidermal cells

None of the above

14 / 50

According to Ayurveda PITA (bile) is responsible for:

Transmitting sense impression to the mind

Providing the static energy for holding body tissues together

All digestive and metabolic activities

Lubrication of various points of friction

15 / 50

Monophybrids describes

One pair of different characters

Two pairs of different characters

More than two pairs of different characters

None of the above

16 / 50

Marine fungus is the source for

Penicillin

Cephalosporin

Zonarol

Avarol

17 / 50

Candelabra trichomes are present in

Verbascum thapsus

Digitalis purpurea

Senna angustifolia

Helicteris isora

18 / 50

Which one is not an intermediate in shikimik acid pathway?

Erythrose 4 phosphate

Chrosmic acid

Shikimik acid

Prephenic acid

19 / 50

Iodine number of fat is determined to know:

Free fatty acid

Average molecular size

Relative unsaturation

All of the above

20 / 50

In plant tissue culture surface sterilization of explant is done by

Sodium hypochloride

Bromine water

Hydrogen peroxide

All of the above

21 / 50

Which is not one of the parameter of quantitative chemical tests of fixed oils and fat?

Viscosity

Reichert-Meissel value

Peroxide value

Hydroxyl value

22 / 50

Corm is present in

Saffron

Colchicum

Nux-vomica

A and B

23 / 50

1 IU of vitamin A represents

0.0344 μg of standard preparation

0.344 μg of standard preparation

0.443 mg of standard preparation

0.77g of standard preparation

24 / 50

Caruncle is present in

Nutmeg

Cardamom

Strophanthus

Castor

25 / 50

Which of the following is not a micronutrient?

Molybdenum

Copper

Zinc

Hydrogen

26 / 50

Antileukemic compound bryostatin is isolated from marine organism

Bugula neritina

Tethya crypta

Lissoclinum patella

Trididemnum species

27 / 50

Manoalide, a marine drug, is

Antifungal

Muscle relaxant

Anti-inflammatory

Antipyretic

28 / 50

Silk consists of:

Keratin

Fibroin

Resins

None of the above

29 / 50

For the formation of shoot which ratio of plant growth regulators is required ?

Auxin:cytokinin (1:4)

Auxin:cytokinin (4:1)

Auxin:cytokinin (100:1)

Auxin:cytokinin (1:100)

30 / 50

Biosynthesis of alizarin follows the

Shikkimic acid pathway

Mevalonic acid pathway

Both A and B

Acetate pathway

31 / 50

Natural cytokinin is

Kinetin

Zeatin

Adenine

None

32 / 50

The biological source of cotton fiber is

Cyamopsis tetragonolobus

Gossypium barbadense

Arachis hypogaea

Saraca indica

33 / 50

For vitamin A,

1IU is, contains 76 mg of standard preparation

1IU is contained 0.025 μg of standard preparation

1IU is present in 0.344μg of standard preparation

1 IU is present in 7.7 μg of standard preparation

34 / 50

Chlorophytum borivilianum is used as

Anti-fertility

Antipyretic

Aphrodisiac

Expectorant

35 / 50

Relation between ester value saponification value and acid value is

Ester Value = Saponification value - Acid value

Ester Value = Saponification value + Acid value

Acid value = Ester value - Saponification value

B and C

36 / 50

Aril is present in

Nutmeg

Cardamom

Strophanthus

Castor

37 / 50

Which drug has a cytotoxic activity?

Anthropleurins

Laminine

Ara-C

Saxitoxin

38 / 50

Gibberelin obtained from fungus is

Gibberellin fujikuroi

Fusarium heterospermum

Aspergillus niger

A and B

39 / 50

Stellate trichomes are present in

Humulus

Pyrethrum

Hammaelis

Calendula officinalis

40 / 50

Aril is

Outgrowth from micropyle and covering the seed

Stiff-bristle like appendages with wavy flowering glume of grasses

Warty out growth from micropyle

Succulent growth from hilum covering entire seed

41 / 50

Adaptogen are substances which

Improve physical endurance

Maintain stamina in adverse and difficult environment

Increase the tolerance to change in environment

All of the above

42 / 50

Closed collateral vascular bundles are the characteristics of

Dicotyledonous plant

Monocotyledonous plant

Weeds

None of the above

43 / 50

Which of the following is not a micronutrient?

Molybdenum

Copper

Zinc

Hydrogen

44 / 50

Which one is also known as extra-nuclear?

Golgi complex

Plastid

Argon

Mitochondria

45 / 50

The number of milligram of KOH required to combine with fatty acids which are present in glyceride from in 1 gram of sample of oil or fat is called

Difference between saponification value and acid value

Ester value

Acid value

Both (A) and (B)

46 / 50

All are true about leaflets, except

Bud or branch is absent in leaflets

Leaflets are arranged in pairs

Leaflets are asymmetric at the bases

Examples include rose, neem, digitise and senna etc.

47 / 50

In protoplast culture protoplasm is isolated by using

Cellulase

Macerozyme

Both

None

48 / 50

Centroxylic vascular bundle is present in

Malefern

Sweat flag

Maize

Sunflower

49 / 50

Halphen's test is used for

Detection of cotton seed oil as an adulterant

Detection of artificial invert sugar

Saponins

Tannins

50 / 50

The callus is

Differentiated cell mass

Biomass

Isolated roots

Undifferentiated cell mass

Your score is

The average score is 25%

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