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Pharmacology & Toxicology Class Test-2

This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam. Pharmacology & Toxicology Class Test | Pharmacology & Toxicology DPEE Test

Created by

Noteskarts

Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE-2 | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Hypertension

Cerebral thrombosis

Breast Carcinoma

Dysmenorrhoea

2 / 50

Which of the following opioid receptor type is responsible for euphoria and respiratory depression?

Mu-receptors

Kappa-receptors

All of the above

Delta-receptors

3 / 50

Hypercholesterolemia ( or hypercholesteremia) is an abnormally high concentration of cholesterol in the blood. This consideration is:

True

False

4 / 50

Mu (µ) receptors are associated with:

Dysphoria, hallucinations, respiratory and vasomotor stimulation

Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory depression, physical dependence

Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory stimulation, physical dependence

Spinal analgesia, mydriasis, sedation, physical dependence

5 / 50

Methemoglobinemia is possible adverse effect of:

Aspirin

Analgin

Paracetamol

Ketorolac

6 / 50

Tick narcotic analgesic, which is a phenylpiperidine derivative:

Codeline

Fentanyl

Dezocine

Buprenorphine

7 / 50

Characteristic Findings of salicylism include:

Headache, mental confusion and drowsiness

Hyperthermia, sweating, thirst, hyperventilation, vomiting and diarrhea

All of the above

Tinnitus and difficult in hearing

8 / 50

Analgin usefulness is limited by:

Agranulocytosis

Hearing impairment

Methemoglobinemia

Erosions and gastric bleeding

9 / 50

Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) is:

Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to adipose tissue where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase

A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the liver to the tissues

A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein

A lipoprotein that contains relatively small amounts of cholesterol and triglycerides and is associated with a decreased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called alpha-lipoprotein

10 / 50

Indicate the opioid receptor type, which is responsible for dysphoria and vasomotor stimulation:

All of the above

Mu-receptors

Kappa-receptors

Delta-receptors

11 / 50

Non-narcotic agents causes:

Antipyretic effect

Physical dependence

Euphoria

Respiratory depression

12 / 50

Tick pyrazolone derivative:

Ketorolac

Paracetamol

Methyl Salicylate

Analgin

13 / 50

For which of the following conditions could aspirin be used prophylactically?

Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema

Thromboembolism

Metabolic acidosis

Peptic ulcers

14 / 50

Which of the following nonopioid agents is an antidepressant with analgesic activity?

Tranylcypramine

Fluoxetine

Moclobemide

Amitriptyline

15 / 50

Which of the following analgesics is a phenanthrene derivative:

Morphine

Pentazocine

Fentanyl

Methadone

16 / 50

Indicate the non-narcotic analgesic, which lacks an anti-inflammatory effect:

Naloxone

Metamizole

Aspirin

Paracetamol

17 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

18 / 50

Lipoprotein is:

A conjugated protein having a lipid component; the principle means for transporting lipids in the blood

Product of endocrine gland secretion

Mediators of inflammatory process

Any of various fat-soluble or water-soluble organic substances essential in minute amounts for normal growth and activity of the body and obtained naturally from plant and animal foods

19 / 50

Second-order pain is:

Associated with fine myelinated A-delta fibers

Sharp, well-localized pain

Dull, burning pain

Effectively reduced by non-narcotic analgesics

20 / 50

Correct statement concerning aspirin include all of the following EXCEPT:

It inhabits platelet aggregation

It does not have an anti-inflammatory effect

It inhabits mainly peripheral COX

It stimulates respiration by a direct action on the respiratory center

21 / 50

Nonnarcotic analgesics are mainly effective against pain associated with:

Surgery

Myocardial infarction

Trauma

Inflammation or tissue damage

22 / 50

Indicate the nonopioid agents of central effect with analgesic activity:

Reserpine

Prazosin

Clopheline

Propranolol

23 / 50

Chemical mediators in the nociceptive pathway are all of the following EXCEPT:

Enkephalins

Prostaglandins

Substance P

Kinins

24 / 50

Which of the following mediators are found mainly in long descending pathway from the midbrain to the dorsal horn?

Glutamate

Prostaglandin E

Dynorphin

Enkephalin

25 / 50

Which of the following opioid analgesics is a strong mu receptor agonist?

Buprenorphine

Naloxone

Pentazocine

Morphine

26 / 50

Hypertryglyceridemia denotes high blood levels of triglycerides. It has been associated with atherosclerosis, even in the absence of hypercholesterolemia (high cholesterol levels). The consideration is:

True

False

27 / 50

Select the brain and spinal cord regions, which are involved in the transmission of pain?

The substantia gelatinosa

The limbic system, including the amygdaloidal nucleus and the hypothalamus

The ventral and medial parts of the thalamus

All of the above

28 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

Renal insufficiency

Pregnancy

IDDM

All of the above

29 / 50

High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is:

Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to adipose tissue where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase

A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the liver to the tissues

A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein

30 / 50

All of the following statements concerning Cholestyramine

(Questran) are true, EXCEPT:

It is not well tolerated by patients

It would not be a good choice for treating patients with familial hypertriglyceridemia (type IV)

It is an effective drug for treatment of types IIa and IIb hyperlipidemia

It works by directly binding cholesterol in the blood

31 / 50

Indicate the neurons, which are located in the locus ceruleus or the lateral tegmental area of the reticular formation:

Gabaergic

Both (Nonadrenergic & Gabaergic)

Dopaminergic

Serotonergic

Nonadrenergic

32 / 50

Non-narcotic analgesics are all of the following drugs EXCEPT:

Paracetamol

Acetylsalicylic acid

Ketorolac

Butorphanol

33 / 50

Which of the following Supraspinal structures is implicated in pain-modulating descending pathways?

The limbic cortex

The midbrain periaqueductal gray

The aria postrema

The hypothalamus

34 / 50

Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) is:

Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to adipose tissue where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase

A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein

A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the liver to the tissues

35 / 50

Indicate the chemical mediators in the antinociceptive descending pathway:

All of the above

Met- and leu-enkephalin

BETA-endorphin

Dynorphin

36 / 50

Correct the statement concerning ketorolac include all of the following EXCEPT:

It is an effective as morphine for a short-term relief from moderate to severe pain

It does not produce respiratory depression

It inhabits COX

It has a high potential for physical dependence and abuse

37 / 50

Which of the following consideration about type I familial hyperlipoproteinemia is true:

Type I familial hyperlipoproteinemia characterized by increased serum concentrations of chylomicrons, pre-low-density lipoproteins, and triglycerides that are considered to be the result of a combination of fat and carbohydrate-induced hyperlipemia

Type I familial hyperlipoproteinemia marked by the increased serum concentrations of chylomicrons and triglycerides, which decreased if the diet become fat free, decreased concentrations of high- and low-density lipoproteins, which increased if the diet is fat free, and decreased tissues lipoprotein lipase activity

38 / 50

Tick mixed (opioid/non-opioid) agent:

Sodium valproate

Tramadol

Paracetamol

Butorphanol

39 / 50

Which of the following non-narcotic agents is salicylic acid derivative?

Aspirin

Phenylbutazone

Ketamine

Tramadol

40 / 50

All of the following are undesirable effects of aspirin EXCEPT:

Bleeding due to a decrease of platelet aggregation

Tolerance and physical addiction

Reversible renal insufficiency

Gastritis with focal erosions

41 / 50

Chylomicron is:

A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein

Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to adipose tissues where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase

A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the liver to the tissues

42 / 50

Hyperlipoproteinemia is a condition marked by an abnormally high level of lipoprotein in the blood. This consideration is:

True

False

43 / 50

Kappa and delta agonists:

Close a voltage-gated ca2+ channels an presynaptic never terminals

Inhabit postsynaptic neurons by opening K+ channels

Inhabit of arachidonate cyclooxygenase in CNS

Both a and b

44 / 50

Select the anti-seizure drug with an analgesic component of effect:

Phenytoin

Carbamazepine

Clonazepam

Ethosuximide

45 / 50

Narcotic analgesics should:

Relieve severe pain

Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect

Induce a stupor or somnolent state

Induce loss of sensation

46 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Salicylates

Ethanol

Clofibrate

Prednisolone

47 / 50

Most of non-narcotic analgesics have:

Anti-Inflammatory effect

Analgesic effect

All of the above

Antipyretic effect

48 / 50

Select the non-narcotic drug, which is a para aminophenol derivative:

Paracetamol

Baclofen

Aspirin

Analgin

49 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Alopecia

Drug fever

Nephritis

Agranulocytosis

50 / 50

Which one of the following non-narcotic agents inhabits mainly cyclooxygenase(COX) in CNS?

Paracetamol

Ibuprofen

Acetylsalicylic acid

Ketorolac

Your score is

The average score is 31%

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1449

Created by

NotesKarts

Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

None of above

Suppression of insulin secretion

Stimulation of insulin release

Suppression of glucagon secretion

2 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

3 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Prevents miosis

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

Inhibits GIT motility

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

4 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Physostigmine

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Both a and b

Ecothiopate

5 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Drug fever

Agranulocytosis

Nephritis

Alopecia

6 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Scopolamine

Carbamazepine

Atropine

Metoclopramide

7 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

All of the above

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

8 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Blocking B2 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

Stimulating B2 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

9 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Dopamine

Epinephrine

All of the above

Isopropanol

10 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

None of above

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

11 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

F S H

Vasopressin

Prolactin

12 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Carbamazepine

Rifampicin

Grape juice

Barbiturates

13 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Bronchoconstriction

Block accommodation reflex

Constipation

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

14 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Cerebral thrombosis

Breast Carcinoma

Dysmenorrhoea

Hypertension

15 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Detect the impurity in a given drug

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

16 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Edrophonium

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

Pyridostigmine

17 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M2 antagonist

M1 antagonist

M3 antagonist

M3 agonist

18 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Palpitation

Tremor

Cerebral heamorrhage

Respiratory difficulty

19 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Digoxin

Warfarin

Alcohol

Amitriptyline

20 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Corpus striatum

Heart

Cerebral cortex

Exocrine gland

21 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Antagonism

Potentiation

Addition

Synergism

22 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Ion pair transport

Active transport

Facilitated diffusion

Passive diffusion

23 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

None of the above

Acetylspironolactone

Canrenone

Desmethyl spironolactone

24 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Bradycardia

Tachycardia

Dry mouth

Hypertension

25 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Carbamazepine

Phenytoin

Paraldehyde

Diazepam

26 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To cause haemeostasis

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

To stimulate would healing

All of the above

27 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Inhibiting release from storage sites

All of the above

Competing at receptor sites

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

28 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Steroid receptor

Enzyme linked

GPCR

Ion channel

29 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

α amino acid conjunction

Sulfate conjunction:

Methylation

Glucuronide conjugation

30 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Partial agonist

Non-competitive antagonism

Antagonist

Competitive antagonism

31 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Neostigmine

Tubocurarine

Physostigmine

Pralidoxime

32 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

D-tubocurarine

Gallamine

Hexamethonium

Succinylcholine

33 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Oxytocin

Prolactin

Insulin

Histamine

34 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

P and S

Q and R

R and S

Q and S

35 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

All of the above

Scopolamines

Phenothiazines

Atropine

36 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Sympathomimetic

Cholinolytics

Cholinomimetic

Cholinesterase inhibitor

37 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

Renal insufficiency

IDDM

All of the above

Pregnancy

38 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

None of the above

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

To check the activity straight muscle

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

39 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Physostigmine

Atropine

Pilocarpine

Bethanechol

40 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Pirenzepine

Hyoscine

Darifenacin

Cyclopentolate

41 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Isoprenaline

Atropine

Acetylcholine

Noradrenaline

42 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Pancuronium

Gallamine

All of the above

Tubocurarine

43 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Mydriasis

Reduced sweating

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Loss of accommodation

44 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Clofibrate

Ethanol

Salicylates

Prednisolone

45 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

46 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

Neostigmine

None of the above

Physostigmine

Pralidoxime

47 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

48 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Neostigmine

All of the above

Physostigmine

Atropine

49 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Amphetamine

Dopamine

All of the above

Ephedrine

50 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Miosis

Mental aberration

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Increased heart rate

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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1409

Created on June 01, 2022 By

NotesKarts

Pharmaceutics MCQs for DPEE Exam

1 / 100

Which of the following formulations would not be applicable to ocular administration?

A. Solution

B. Liniment

C. Suspension

D. Ointment

2 / 100

Choose incorrect option regarding ball mill.

A. Ball rotation is important aspects during reduction.

B. It works only on the principle of impact.

C. Ball mill produce loud noise.

D. Due to wearing contamination cause during operation.

3 / 100

Critical speed of the ball mill is the speed at which-

A. Ball cascade over one another.

B. Balls begin to centrifuge with mill.

C. Ball starts tumbling.

D. Not define.

4 / 100

Medical dusting powder used mainly

A. Superficial skin condition

B. During surgery

C. In to body cavities

D. In major wounds

5 / 100

Which one of these is an example of ayurvedic drug?

A. Arks

B. Bhasmas

C. Asavas

D. All of these

6 / 100

Which of the following is not a vehicle......

A. Glycerol

B. Butylated hydroxyl toluene

C. Water

D. Rose water

7 / 100

The concentration of sucrose in Simple syrup BP.

A. 40.74% w/w

B. 60.70% w/w

C. 66.70% w/w

D. 70.50% w/w

8 / 100

In ball mill occupy how much area for suitable size reduction.

A. 60-80%.

B. 80-90%.

C. 30-50%.

D. 20-25%.

9 / 100

In suspension, if particle size of suspended particle decrease so............

A. Surface free energy decrease

B. Surface area decrease

C. Surface free energy increase

D. System becomes thermodynamically stable

10 / 100

In dilute suspension, the concentration of solid should be......................

A. 2-10%

B. 50%

C. 0.5%

D. 30%

11 / 100

The following ingredient is used as an antioxidant and chelating agent............

A. EDTA

B. Citric Acid

C Ascorbic Acid

Phenyl Mercuric Acetate

12 / 100

Choose the correct option; Following is not the mechanism of size reduction.

A. Impact and attrition.

B. Cutting

C. Elutriation

D. Brushing

13 / 100

Suppository bases___________

A. Theobroma oil is example

B. Maintain shape

C. Helps in insertion into the body cavity

D. All of the Above

14 / 100

Nasal drops should have pH...............

A. 5-6

B. 6-7

C. 7-8

D. 8-9

15 / 100

Endodermic Ointments are act as______________

A. Protectant

B. Antiseptic

C. Stimulant

D Parasiticides

16 / 100

Nasal drops are ...................

A. Isotonic

B. Hypertonic

C. Hypotonic

D. None

17 / 100

Contact lens are usually made from

A. Polymethyl methacrylate

B. Polyvinyl chloride

C. Carboxymethyl cellulose

D. Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose

18 / 100

Choose the correct synonyms of the size reduction.

A. Pulverizing

B. Grinding

C. Comminution

D. All of the above

19 / 100

Which paper is used for wrapping of powder.

A. Plastic paper

B. Art paper

C. White Glazed Paper

D. Amber colour paper

20 / 100

Which of the following is not monophasic Liquid dosage form........

A. Solution

B. Gargles

C. Suspension

D. Enemas

21 / 100

Liniments must not be applied on the............skin.

A. Swelled

B. Broken

C. Painful

D. Normal

22 / 100

In which container dusting powder are dispensed

A. Sifter top container

B. Plastic container

C. Stainless steel container

D. Glas container

23 / 100

Inhalation of dusting powder by infants may lead to

A. Pulmonary inflammation

B. Nausea and vomiting

C. Cancer

D. All of the Above

24 / 100

Pharmaceutical suspension are generally...........

A. Flocculated

B. De-flocculated

C. Both

D. None

25 / 100

In artificial syrup which ingredients is used.

A. Glucose

B. Sucrose

C. Fructose

D. Saccharine

26 / 100

......................... are very thick and stiff.

A. Pastes

B. Ointments

C. Jellies

D. Poulties

27 / 100

The syrup is.................... in nature.

A. Aqueous

B. Non aqueous

C. Gas

D. Solid

28 / 100

.............. is used as a throat paint vehicle.

A. Glycerine

B. Water

C. Syrup

D. Solutions

29 / 100

Which of the following is not a semisolid dosage form?

A. Paste

B. Cream

C. Ointments

D. Suspension

30 / 100

1 table spoonful mean...............

A. 4 ml

B. 8ml

C. 15 ml

D. 20

31 / 100

Ampoule generally contain:

A. Single dose parenteral products

B. Multiple dose parenteral products

C. Two or three dosage

D. None of the above

32 / 100

Following ratio is used for the preparation of emulsion...............

A. Fixed oil : Water : Gum (4:2:1)

B. Volatile Oil : Water : Gum (2:2:1)

C. Mineral Oil : Water : Gum (3:2:1)

D. All of the above

33 / 100

Some powders absorb moisture to such a great extent that they go in to solution are known as-

A. Efflorescent powder

B. Medicated powder

C. Hygroscopic powder

D. Deliquescent powder

34 / 100

For any suitable sieve how much sieving area is required (in percentage)?

A. 20-25.

B. 35-40.

C. 65-80.

D. 15-25.

35 / 100

Endodermic ointments are act as____

A. Protectant

B. Antiseptic

C. Stimulant

D. Parasiticides

36 / 100

Rectal suppositories intended for adult use usually weight approximately

A. 2g

B. 5g

C. 4g

D. 6g

37 / 100

Standard unit volume in metric system is...............

A. Microlitre

B. Milliliter

C. Centiliter

D. Liter

38 / 100

Simple syrup is a saturated solution of.............

A. Sucrose

B. Fructose

C. Dextrose

D. None of these

39 / 100

Choose the correct synonyms of the size separation.

A. Sieving

B. Sifting

C. Screening.

D. All of the above.

40 / 100

Which of the following ointment is not classified according to therapeutic use?

A. Antibiotics ointment

B. Diadermic ointment

C. Antifungal Ointment

D. Keratolytic ointment

41 / 100

The label shake well before use is indicated on the mixture containing-

A. Soluble medicaments

B. Potent medicament

C. Diffusible medicaments

D. Miscible liquid

42 / 100

The bioavailability of flocculated suspension is .........................

A. Relatively high

B. Comparatively less

C. Both A and B

D. None of the above

43 / 100

Which of the following is not an indication for use of pessary

A. As a therapeutic test

B. When future childbearing is intended in near future

C. Refusal for operation by patient

D. Non healing decubitus ulcer

44 / 100

The monophasic liquid dosage form is................ solutions.

A. True

B. Course

C. Fine

D. Micro

45 / 100

A powder of which all the particle pass through the 85 number of sieve.

A. Very fine powder.

B. Fine powder.

C. Coarse powder.

D. Moderately coarse powder.

46 / 100

Abrasive agents used in dentifrices are

A. Calcium Sulphate

B. Sodium Carbonate

C. Magnesium Carbonate

D. All of the Above

47 / 100

Which dosage form is prepared from rice paper, which is made by pouring a mixture of rice flour and water

A. Cachets

B. Snuffs

C. Insufflations

D. Both A and B

48 / 100

Plastisizers are added in plastic to provides:

A. Flexibility

B. Mechanical strength

C. Heat stability

D. None of the above

49 / 100

Saccharin is an example of..................

A. Natural sweetening agent

B. Flavouring agent

C. Artificial sweetening agent

D. Humectant

50 / 100

Triple roller mill is used in the preparation of..................

A. Ointment

B. Paste

C. Cream

D. All

51 / 100

Elixirs are..............

A. Hydro alcoholic liquid

B. Aqueous

C. Viscous

D. Semi solids

52 / 100

Mechanical sieving device is works on the methods.

A. Agitation method.

B. Brushing method.

C. Centrifugal method.

D. All of the above

53 / 100

If particle size is 1 micro-meter to 100 micro-meters ........

A. Coarse dispersion

B. Colloidal dispersion

C. Flocculated

D. De-flocculated

54 / 100

The powder which absorb moisture from the atmosphere are called

A. Hygroscopic powder

B. Deliquescent powder

C. Efflorescent powder

D. All of the Above

55 / 100

Which of the following ointment is not classified according to its therapeutic use ?

A. Antibiotic ointment

B. Diadermic ointment

C. Antifungal ointment

D. Keratolytic ointment

56 / 100

Water soluble bases are also known as_____

A. Lanolin

B. Wool fat

C. Grease less ointment base

D. Greasy ointment base

57 / 100

Which of the following method is used in preparation of ointment ?

A. Dry gum method

B. Wet gum method

C. Bottle method

D. Fusion method

58 / 100

The word posos means.................

A. How many

B. How much

C. How about

D. Amount

59 / 100

Which one is finely divided solid dosage forms inhaled to nostrils.

A. Insufflations

B. Medicated dusting powder

C. Snuffs

D. Both A and B

60 / 100

In aerosol, diptube is usually made for:

A. Propellent

B. Actuator

C. Meteried value

D. Dip tube

61 / 100

In mixing of powder which method is used when poten substance are mixed with a large amount of diluents.

A. Spatulation

B. Geometric dilution

C. Trituration

D. Sifting

62 / 100

Paste show which type of flow?

A. Dilatant

B. Plastic

C. Pseudo plastic

D. Shear Thinning

63 / 100

The another name of wool fat is...............

A. Lanolin

B. Anhydrous lanolin

C. Hydrous wool fat

D. Wool alcohol

64 / 100

What is the pH of tears?

A. 5.0

B. 6.5

C. 7.0

D. 7.4

65 / 100

Choose the correct mill, whose acts on the principle of impact only.

A. Roller mill.

B. Hammer mill.

C. Ball mill.

D. Both b and c.

66 / 100

Sieves are arranged during the size separation of powder.

A. Ascending order.

B. Descending order.

C. Random order.

D. All the above.

67 / 100

As per sedimentation theory, if particle size of suspended particle decrease so sedimentation rate decrease...

(So what would be effect on absorption of drug when taken orally????)

A. Absorption increase

B. Absorption decrease

C. No effect

D. Both A & B

68 / 100

Suspending agent imparts ..........................

A. Solubility

B. Viscosity

C. Absorption

D. Wetting

69 / 100

For ideal suspension, the sedimentation volume should be......................

A. Zero

B. Equal to one

C. More than one

D. Less than one

70 / 100

In aerosol, diptube is usually made of:

A. Polyamides

B. Polypropylene

C. Metal

D. Neoprene

71 / 100

An agent used to clean the surface of teeth & decreases the tooth decay, mouth odour is

A. Dental cone

B. Abrasive

C. Dentifrice

D. Dental paste

72 / 100

Which of the following is a two phase gel system ?

A. Milk of Magnesia

B. HPMC gel

C. CMC gel

D. Carbomer gel

73 / 100

Choose the correct option.

A. Impact → Roller mill.

B. Cutting → Cutter mill.

C. Compression→ Colloid mill.

D. Attrition → Ball mill.

74 / 100

Which of the following excipient act as preservative...................

A. Sorbitol monolactrate

B. Tyloxopol

C. Benzethenium chloride

D. Thiomersal

75 / 100

For separating different-different densities material which equipment is mostly used?

A. Cyclone separator.

B. Sieving

C. Elutriation

D. Sedimentation

76 / 100

Dusting powder should be pass through

A. Sieve number 120

B. Sieve number 22

C. Sieve number 80

D. Sieve number 44

77 / 100

Rate of sedimentation is high in ?

A. Flocculated

B. De-flocculated

C. Both

D. None

78 / 100

Transfusion bottles are made of:

A. Neutral glass

B. Molded glass

C. Soda glass

D. Sulphured glass

79 / 100

DOP used in validation of HEPA filter is ............................

A. Dioetylpthalate

B. Dioetylpyruvate

C. Dioetanepthalazine

D. Dioetahedraphaladehyde

80 / 100

Cachets are also known as

A. Soft gelatin capsule

B. Hard gelatin capsule

C. Water capsule

D. Both A and B

81 / 100

....................... drops are used in otic cavity.

A. Eye

B. Ear

C. Nasal

D. None of these

82 / 100

Brownian movement of particle in suspension cause..........................

A. Assist sedimentation

B. Promote sedimentation

C. Prevent sedimentation

D. Increase sedimentation rate

83 / 100

............... is not a type of syrup.

A. Simple syrup

B. Medicated syrup

C. Flavoured syrup

D. Mixed syrup

84 / 100

Dusting powder should be applied with

A. Powder puff

B. Sterilized gauze pad

C. Both A and B

D. Palm

85 / 100

Douches are meant for application in .....................

A. Buccal cavity

B. Rectal cavity

C. Nasal cavity

D. Vaginal cavity

86 / 100

How much glass of 10% w/w ammonia solution can be made from 1800mg of 28% w/w strong ammonia solution?

A. 5020 gm

B. 5040 gm

C. 5080 gm

D. 5kg

87 / 100

Buffering agent is also called as....................

A. Sweetening agent

B. Thickening agent

C. pH modifiers

D. Wetting agent

88 / 100

A per I.P. temperature range for incubation in sterility testing is.

A. 20-25°C

B. 25-30°C

C. 30-35°C

D. 25-40°C

89 / 100

Standard unit volume in metric system is...............

A. Microlitre

B. Milliliter

C. Centiliter

D. Liter

90 / 100

Which powder is used into the body cavities as well as umbilical cords of infants.

A. Medicated dusting powder

B. Fine powder

C. Surgical dusting powder

D. Both A and B

91 / 100

Hydrolytic resistance test is performed on glass to check:

A. Mechanical strength

B. Liberation of alkali

C. Meteried value

D. Dip tube

92 / 100

Suspension contains.................

A. Insoluble solids

B. Oil phase

C. Soluble solids

D. Grease

93 / 100

Which of the following substance is used as an inactivating agent for "Sulfonamides".

A. PABA (Para Amino Benzoic Acid)

B. Acetyl Transferase

C. Penicillinase

D. Penicillamine

94 / 100

What is label condition for eye drops?

A. Discard 24 hours after first opening

B. Discard 30 days after first opening

C. Discard one year after first opening

D. Discard 5 years after first opening

95 / 100

Following is the same for all crystals of the same materials.

A. Sizes of the faces of crystal

B. Sizes of the edge of the crystals

C. Angles made by the faces of crystals.

D. All of the above.

96 / 100

Coarse powder is also known as-

A. 44/85.

B. 22/60.

C. 10/44.

D. None of these.

97 / 100

Castor oil is used in lipsticks for

A. Building viscosity

B. Giving a shine

C. Preventing bleed

D. Dispersing oxide

98 / 100

Fluoride content in paste is.....................

A. NMT 1 PPM

B. NMT 10 PPM

C. NMT 100 PPM

D. NMT 1000 PPM

99 / 100

.............. is widely used to convert carbomer solution into gel/

A. Citric Acid

B. Sodium Bicarbonate

C. Triethanolamine

D. All of the Above

100 / 100

Water for injection differs from sterile distilled water as it is free from ..........................

A. Antioxidant

B. Preservatives

C. Pyrogens

D. Carbon Dioxide

Your score is

The average score is 33%

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307

Created by

NotesKarts

Pharmacognosy Class Test | Pharmacognosy DPEE Test

1 / 50

Aril is

Outgrowth from micropyle and covering the seed

Stiff-bristle like appendages with wavy flowering glume of grasses

Warty out growth from micropyle

Succulent growth from hilum covering entire seed

2 / 50

For the formation of shoot which ratio of plant growth regulators is required ?

Auxin:cytokinin (1:4)

Auxin:cytokinin (4:1)

Auxin:cytokinin (100:1)

Auxin:cytokinin (1:100)

3 / 50

Biosynthesis of alizarin follows the

Shikkimic acid pathway

Mevalonic acid pathway

Both A and B

Acetate pathway

4 / 50

Which drug has a cytotoxic activity?

Anthropleurins

Laminine

Ara-C

Saxitoxin

5 / 50

Natural cytokinin is

Kinetin

Zeatin

Adenine

None

6 / 50

Stellate trichomes are present in

Humulus

Pyrethrum

Hammaelis

Calendula officinalis

7 / 50

The callus is

Differentiated cell mass

Biomass

Isolated roots

Undifferentiated cell mass

8 / 50

Which of the following is not a micronutrient?

Molybdenum

Copper

Zinc

Hydrogen

9 / 50

Chlorophytum borivilianum is used as

Anti-fertility

Antipyretic

Aphrodisiac

Expectorant

10 / 50

Palisade ratio is

Total number of palisade cells beneath each upper epidermal cell

Total number of palisade cells beneath mesophyll

Average number of palisade cells beneath each upper epidermal cells

None of the above

11 / 50

Which of the following causes fruit ripening?

Auxin

Cytokinin

Gibberellins

Ethylene

12 / 50

Relation between ester value saponification value and acid value is

Ester Value = Saponification value - Acid value

Ester Value = Saponification value + Acid value

Acid value = Ester value - Saponification value

B and C

13 / 50

Antileukemic compound bryostatin is isolated from marine organism

Bugula neritina

Tethya crypta

Lissoclinum patella

Trididemnum species

14 / 50

1 IU of vitamin A represents

0.0344 μg of standard preparation

0.344 μg of standard preparation

0.443 mg of standard preparation

0.77g of standard preparation

15 / 50

Monophybrids describes

One pair of different characters

Two pairs of different characters

More than two pairs of different characters

None of the above

16 / 50

Which one is also known as extra-nuclear?

Golgi complex

Plastid

Argon

Mitochondria

17 / 50

Which one is not an intermediate in shikimik acid pathway?

Erythrose 4 phosphate

Chrosmic acid

Shikimik acid

Prephenic acid

18 / 50

Which is not one of the parameter of quantitative chemical tests of fixed oils and fat?

Viscosity

Reichert-Meissel value

Peroxide value

Hydroxyl value

19 / 50

Aril is present in

Nutmeg

Cardamom

Strophanthus

Castor

20 / 50

For vitamin A,

1IU is, contains 76 mg of standard preparation

1IU is contained 0.025 μg of standard preparation

1IU is present in 0.344μg of standard preparation

1 IU is present in 7.7 μg of standard preparation

21 / 50

Caruncle is present in

Nutmeg

Cardamom

Strophanthus

Castor

22 / 50

Centroxylic vascular bundle is present in

Malefern

Sweat flag

Maize

Sunflower

23 / 50

In protoplast culture protoplasm is isolated by using

Cellulase

Macerozyme

Both

None

24 / 50

According to Ayurveda PITA (bile) is responsible for:

Transmitting sense impression to the mind

Providing the static energy for holding body tissues together

All digestive and metabolic activities

Lubrication of various points of friction

25 / 50

Keris test is used for

Caffeine

Aloes

Presence of deoxy sugar

Rancidity of fats and oils

26 / 50

Open collateral vascular bundles are the characteristics of

Dicotyledonous plant

Monocotyledonous plant

Weeds

None of the above

27 / 50

The biological source of cotton fiber is

Cyamopsis tetragonolobus

Gossypium barbadense

Arachis hypogaea

Saraca indica

28 / 50

Candelabra trichomes are present in

Verbascum thapsus

Digitalis purpurea

Senna angustifolia

Helicteris isora

29 / 50

Which marine drug has a cardiovascular activity?

Spongosine

Anthropleurins

Saxitoxin

A and B

30 / 50

Corm is present in

Saffron

Colchicum

Nux-vomica

A and B

31 / 50

Halphen's test is used for

Detection of cotton seed oil as an adulterant

Detection of artificial invert sugar

Saponins

Tannins

32 / 50

In which Ayurvedic formulation preservative is not required?

Lepa

Vatika

Asava

Pisti

33 / 50

The number of milligram of KOH required to combine with fatty acids which are present in glyceride from in 1 gram of sample of oil or fat is called

Difference between saponification value and acid value

Ester value

Acid value

Both (A) and (B)

34 / 50

All are true about leaflets, except

Bud or branch is absent in leaflets

Leaflets are arranged in pairs

Leaflets are asymmetric at the bases

Examples include rose, neem, digitise and senna etc.

35 / 50

Manoalide, a marine drug, is

Antifungal

Muscle relaxant

Anti-inflammatory

Antipyretic

36 / 50

Chemodemes refer to

Chemical race

Taxonomic race

Physical race

None of the above

37 / 50

Iodine value for oils and fats is measured as

Iodine present in oils

Extent of unsaturation

Extent of saturation

None of the above

38 / 50

Silk consists of:

Keratin

Fibroin

Resins

None of the above

39 / 50

Gibberelin obtained from fungus is

Gibberellin fujikuroi

Fusarium heterospermum

Aspergillus niger

A and B

40 / 50

Adaptogen are substances which

Improve physical endurance

Maintain stamina in adverse and difficult environment

Increase the tolerance to change in environment

All of the above

41 / 50

Chrysanthemum is mainly used as

Pesticide

Insecticide

Rodenticide

Larvicide

42 / 50

In plant tissue culture surface sterilization of explant is done by

Sodium hypochloride

Bromine water

Hydrogen peroxide

All of the above

43 / 50

Marine fungus is the source for

Penicillin

Cephalosporin

Zonarol

Avarol

44 / 50

Which one is essential vitamin in culture media?

Thiamine

Ascorbic acid

Pantothenic acid

Biotin

45 / 50

The germination capacity of seeds is tested by

Rolled towel test

Germination index

Locast test

Testa swelling test

46 / 50

Closed collateral vascular bundles are the characteristics of

Dicotyledonous plant

Monocotyledonous plant

Weeds

None of the above

47 / 50

Iodine number of fat is determined to know:

Free fatty acid

Average molecular size

Relative unsaturation

All of the above

48 / 50

Centroxylic stands for

Phloem in the centre surrounded by xylem

Xylem in the centre surrounded by phloem

Phloem in the centre surrounded by cambium

Xylem in the centre surrounded by cambium

49 / 50

All are plant growth promoters except

Abscisic acid

Auxin

Gibberellin

Cytokinin

50 / 50

Which of the following is not a micronutrient?

Molybdenum

Copper

Zinc

Hydrogen

Your score is

The average score is 26%

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