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Pharmacology & Toxicology Class Test-2

This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam. Pharmacology & Toxicology Class Test | Pharmacology & Toxicology DPEE Test

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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE-2 | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Which one of the following non-narcotic agents inhabits mainly cyclooxygenase(COX) in CNS?

Acetylsalicylic acid

Paracetamol

Ketorolac

Ibuprofen

2 / 50

Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) is:

A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the liver to the tissues

A lipoprotein that contains relatively small amounts of cholesterol and triglycerides and is associated with a decreased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called alpha-lipoprotein

Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to adipose tissue where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase

A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein

3 / 50

Select the anti-seizure drug with an analgesic component of effect:

Carbamazepine

Phenytoin

Clonazepam

Ethosuximide

4 / 50

All of the following statements concerning Cholestyramine

(Questran) are true, EXCEPT:

It works by directly binding cholesterol in the blood

It is an effective drug for treatment of types IIa and IIb hyperlipidemia

It is not well tolerated by patients

It would not be a good choice for treating patients with familial hypertriglyceridemia (type IV)

5 / 50

Correct statement concerning aspirin include all of the following EXCEPT:

It inhabits mainly peripheral COX

It stimulates respiration by a direct action on the respiratory center

It does not have an anti-inflammatory effect

It inhabits platelet aggregation

6 / 50

Kappa and delta agonists:

Close a voltage-gated ca2+ channels an presynaptic never terminals

Both a and b

Inhabit of arachidonate cyclooxygenase in CNS

Inhabit postsynaptic neurons by opening K+ channels

7 / 50

Which of the following opioid analgesics is a strong mu receptor agonist?

Naloxone

Buprenorphine

Morphine

Pentazocine

8 / 50

Lipoprotein is:

Mediators of inflammatory process

Any of various fat-soluble or water-soluble organic substances essential in minute amounts for normal growth and activity of the body and obtained naturally from plant and animal foods

Product of endocrine gland secretion

A conjugated protein having a lipid component; the principle means for transporting lipids in the blood

9 / 50

Hypertryglyceridemia denotes high blood levels of triglycerides. It has been associated with atherosclerosis, even in the absence of hypercholesterolemia (high cholesterol levels). The consideration is:

False

True

10 / 50

Which of the following non-narcotic agents is salicylic acid derivative?

Ketamine

Aspirin

Phenylbutazone

Tramadol

11 / 50

Select the non-narcotic drug, which is a para aminophenol derivative:

Baclofen

Analgin

Aspirin

Paracetamol

12 / 50

Indicate the opioid receptor type, which is responsible for dysphoria and vasomotor stimulation:

Delta-receptors

Mu-receptors

All of the above

Kappa-receptors

13 / 50

Correct the statement concerning ketorolac include all of the following EXCEPT:

It has a high potential for physical dependence and abuse

It is an effective as morphine for a short-term relief from moderate to severe pain

It inhabits COX

It does not produce respiratory depression

14 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Breast Carcinoma

Dysmenorrhoea

Hypertension

Cerebral thrombosis

15 / 50

Analgin usefulness is limited by:

Agranulocytosis

Erosions and gastric bleeding

Hearing impairment

Methemoglobinemia

16 / 50

Methemoglobinemia is possible adverse effect of:

Ketorolac

Aspirin

Paracetamol

Analgin

17 / 50

Which of the following mediators are found mainly in long descending pathway from the midbrain to the dorsal horn?

Dynorphin

Enkephalin

Glutamate

Prostaglandin E

18 / 50

Nonnarcotic analgesics are mainly effective against pain associated with:

Myocardial infarction

Inflammation or tissue damage

Surgery

Trauma

19 / 50

Narcotic analgesics should:

Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect

Induce loss of sensation

Relieve severe pain

Induce a stupor or somnolent state

20 / 50

Indicate the nonopioid agents of central effect with analgesic activity:

Reserpine

Clopheline

Prazosin

Propranolol

21 / 50

High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is:

A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein

A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the liver to the tissues

Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to adipose tissue where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase

22 / 50

Indicate the neurons, which are located in the locus ceruleus or the lateral tegmental area of the reticular formation:

Gabaergic

Nonadrenergic

Serotonergic

Both (Nonadrenergic & Gabaergic)

Dopaminergic

23 / 50

Second-order pain is:

Effectively reduced by non-narcotic analgesics

Associated with fine myelinated A-delta fibers

Dull, burning pain

Sharp, well-localized pain

24 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Ethanol

Salicylates

Clofibrate

Prednisolone

25 / 50

Non-narcotic agents causes:

Euphoria

Respiratory depression

Antipyretic effect

Physical dependence

26 / 50

Select the brain and spinal cord regions, which are involved in the transmission of pain?

The substantia gelatinosa

All of the above

The ventral and medial parts of the thalamus

The limbic system, including the amygdaloidal nucleus and the hypothalamus

27 / 50

Tick mixed (opioid/non-opioid) agent:

Butorphanol

Paracetamol

Sodium valproate

Tramadol

28 / 50

Characteristic Findings of salicylism include:

All of the above

Headache, mental confusion and drowsiness

Hyperthermia, sweating, thirst, hyperventilation, vomiting and diarrhea

Tinnitus and difficult in hearing

29 / 50

For which of the following conditions could aspirin be used prophylactically?

Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema

Metabolic acidosis

Peptic ulcers

Thromboembolism

30 / 50

Chemical mediators in the nociceptive pathway are all of the following EXCEPT:

Enkephalins

Substance P

Kinins

Prostaglandins

31 / 50

Non-narcotic analgesics are all of the following drugs EXCEPT:

Acetylsalicylic acid

Butorphanol

Ketorolac

Paracetamol

32 / 50

All of the following are undesirable effects of aspirin EXCEPT:

Gastritis with focal erosions

Bleeding due to a decrease of platelet aggregation

Tolerance and physical addiction

Reversible renal insufficiency

33 / 50

Which of the following consideration about type I familial hyperlipoproteinemia is true:

Type I familial hyperlipoproteinemia characterized by increased serum concentrations of chylomicrons, pre-low-density lipoproteins, and triglycerides that are considered to be the result of a combination of fat and carbohydrate-induced hyperlipemia

Type I familial hyperlipoproteinemia marked by the increased serum concentrations of chylomicrons and triglycerides, which decreased if the diet become fat free, decreased concentrations of high- and low-density lipoproteins, which increased if the diet is fat free, and decreased tissues lipoprotein lipase activity

34 / 50

Indicate the non-narcotic analgesic, which lacks an anti-inflammatory effect:

Aspirin

Paracetamol

Naloxone

Metamizole

35 / 50

Tick pyrazolone derivative:

Ketorolac

Methyl Salicylate

Analgin

Paracetamol

36 / 50

Which of the following analgesics is a phenanthrene derivative:

Methadone

Fentanyl

Morphine

Pentazocine

37 / 50

Chylomicron is:

A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the liver to the tissues

A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein

Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to adipose tissues where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase

38 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

Pregnancy

All of the above

Renal insufficiency

IDDM

39 / 50

Indicate the chemical mediators in the antinociceptive descending pathway:

All of the above

Dynorphin

Met- and leu-enkephalin

BETA-endorphin

40 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Agranulocytosis

Alopecia

Nephritis

Drug fever

41 / 50

Mu (µ) receptors are associated with:

Dysphoria, hallucinations, respiratory and vasomotor stimulation

Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory stimulation, physical dependence

Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory depression, physical dependence

Spinal analgesia, mydriasis, sedation, physical dependence

42 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

43 / 50

Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) is:

A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the liver to the tissues

A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein

Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to adipose tissue where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase

44 / 50

Which of the following nonopioid agents is an antidepressant with analgesic activity?

Amitriptyline

Moclobemide

Tranylcypramine

Fluoxetine

45 / 50

Tick narcotic analgesic, which is a phenylpiperidine derivative:

Codeline

Dezocine

Fentanyl

Buprenorphine

46 / 50

Hypercholesterolemia ( or hypercholesteremia) is an abnormally high concentration of cholesterol in the blood. This consideration is:

True

False

47 / 50

Which of the following opioid receptor type is responsible for euphoria and respiratory depression?

Mu-receptors

Kappa-receptors

All of the above

Delta-receptors

48 / 50

Hyperlipoproteinemia is a condition marked by an abnormally high level of lipoprotein in the blood. This consideration is:

True

False

49 / 50

Most of non-narcotic analgesics have:

Antipyretic effect

Anti-Inflammatory effect

All of the above

Analgesic effect

50 / 50

Which of the following Supraspinal structures is implicated in pain-modulating descending pathways?

The aria postrema

The limbic cortex

The hypothalamus

The midbrain periaqueductal gray

Your score is

The average score is 31%

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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Ion pair transport

Facilitated diffusion

Passive diffusion

Active transport

2 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinomimetic

Cholinesterase inhibitor

Cholinolytics

Sympathomimetic

3 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Scopolamine

Atropine

Metoclopramide

Carbamazepine

4 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Constipation

Block accommodation reflex

Bronchoconstriction

5 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Hypertension

Dry mouth

Tachycardia

Bradycardia

6 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Grape juice

Rifampicin

Carbamazepine

Barbiturates

7 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Respiratory difficulty

Tremor

Palpitation

Cerebral heamorrhage

8 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Mydriasis

Reduced sweating

Loss of accommodation

9 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Antagonist

Competitive antagonism

Partial agonist

Non-competitive antagonism

10 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Heart

Cerebral cortex

Exocrine gland

Corpus striatum

11 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

None of above

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

12 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Inhibits GIT motility

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Prevents miosis

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

13 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Pyridostigmine

Neostigmine

Edrophonium

Physostigmine

14 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

Detect the impurity in a given drug

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

15 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Stimulation of insulin release

Suppression of glucagon secretion

Suppression of insulin secretion

None of above

16 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

17 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Addition

Antagonism

Synergism

Potentiation

18 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

Neostigmine

Pralidoxime

None of the above

Physostigmine

19 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Methylation

Glucuronide conjugation

Sulfate conjunction:

α amino acid conjunction

20 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Epinephrine

Dopamine

Isopropanol

All of the above

21 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Acetylcholine

Atropine

Isoprenaline

Noradrenaline

22 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Amitriptyline

Digoxin

Warfarin

Alcohol

23 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

24 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Amphetamine

Dopamine

Ephedrine

All of the above

25 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Cerebral thrombosis

Dysmenorrhoea

Hypertension

Breast Carcinoma

26 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

All of the above

Scopolamines

Atropine

Phenothiazines

27 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Ethanol

Salicylates

Clofibrate

Prednisolone

28 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Pilocarpine

Bethanechol

Atropine

Physostigmine

29 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M1 antagonist

M3 agonist

M3 antagonist

M2 antagonist

30 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Gallamine

Pancuronium

Tubocurarine

All of the above

31 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

32 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

None of the above

To check the activity straight muscle

33 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

P and S

Q and R

R and S

Q and S

34 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

All of the above

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

35 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

All of the above

Physostigmine

Atropine

Neostigmine

36 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

All of the above

Competing at receptor sites

Inhibiting release from storage sites

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

37 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Diazepam

Carbamazepine

Paraldehyde

Phenytoin

38 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Alopecia

Nephritis

Agranulocytosis

Drug fever

39 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

All of the above

IDDM

Renal insufficiency

Pregnancy

40 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Gallamine

D-tubocurarine

Hexamethonium

Succinylcholine

41 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

F S H

Prolactin

Vasopressin

42 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

GPCR

Ion channel

Steroid receptor

Enzyme linked

43 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Tubocurarine

Neostigmine

Pralidoxime

Physostigmine

44 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Physostigmine

Ecothiopate

Both a and b

Dispropyl flurophosphate

45 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Cyclopentolate

Darifenacin

Pirenzepine

Hyoscine

46 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To stimulate would healing

All of the above

To cause haemeostasis

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

47 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Histamine

Insulin

Oxytocin

Prolactin

48 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

Desmethyl spironolactone

Canrenone

None of the above

Acetylspironolactone

49 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Miosis

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Mental aberration

Increased heart rate

50 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Blocking B1 receptor

Blocking B2 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

Stimulating B2 receptor

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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Pharmaceutics MCQs for DPEE Exam

1 / 100

Critical speed of the ball mill is the speed at which-

A. Ball cascade over one another.

B. Balls begin to centrifuge with mill.

C. Ball starts tumbling.

D. Not define.

2 / 100

A per I.P. temperature range for incubation in sterility testing is.

A. 20-25°C

B. 25-30°C

C. 30-35°C

D. 25-40°C

3 / 100

An agent used to clean the surface of teeth & decreases the tooth decay, mouth odour is

A. Dental cone

B. Abrasive

C. Dentifrice

D. Dental paste

4 / 100

Which of the following is a two phase gel system ?

A. Milk of Magnesia

B. HPMC gel

C. CMC gel

D. Carbomer gel

5 / 100

Simple syrup is a saturated solution of.............

A. Sucrose

B. Fructose

C. Dextrose

D. None of these

6 / 100

.............. is used as a throat paint vehicle.

A. Glycerine

B. Water

C. Syrup

D. Solutions

7 / 100

....................... drops are used in otic cavity.

A. Eye

B. Ear

C. Nasal

D. None of these

8 / 100

Rate of sedimentation is high in ?

A. Flocculated

B. De-flocculated

C. Both

D. None

9 / 100

Which one of these is an example of ayurvedic drug?

A. Arks

B. Bhasmas

C. Asavas

D. All of these

10 / 100

The syrup is.................... in nature.

A. Aqueous

B. Non aqueous

C. Gas

D. Solid

11 / 100

As per sedimentation theory, if particle size of suspended particle decrease so sedimentation rate decrease...

(So what would be effect on absorption of drug when taken orally????)

A. Absorption increase

B. Absorption decrease

C. No effect

D. Both A & B

12 / 100

Nasal drops are ...................

A. Isotonic

B. Hypertonic

C. Hypotonic

D. None

13 / 100

Suspension contains.................

A. Insoluble solids

B. Oil phase

C. Soluble solids

D. Grease

14 / 100

For ideal suspension, the sedimentation volume should be......................

A. Zero

B. Equal to one

C. More than one

D. Less than one

15 / 100

Which of the following excipient act as preservative...................

A. Sorbitol monolactrate

B. Tyloxopol

C. Benzethenium chloride

D. Thiomersal

16 / 100

Dusting powder should be pass through

A. Sieve number 120

B. Sieve number 22

C. Sieve number 80

D. Sieve number 44

17 / 100

Hydrolytic resistance test is performed on glass to check:

A. Mechanical strength

B. Liberation of alkali

C. Meteried value

D. Dip tube

18 / 100

Which dosage form is prepared from rice paper, which is made by pouring a mixture of rice flour and water

A. Cachets

B. Snuffs

C. Insufflations

D. Both A and B

19 / 100

Following is the same for all crystals of the same materials.

A. Sizes of the faces of crystal

B. Sizes of the edge of the crystals

C. Angles made by the faces of crystals.

D. All of the above.

20 / 100

Abrasive agents used in dentifrices are

A. Calcium Sulphate

B. Sodium Carbonate

C. Magnesium Carbonate

D. All of the Above

21 / 100

Which of the following method is used in preparation of ointment ?

A. Dry gum method

B. Wet gum method

C. Bottle method

D. Fusion method

22 / 100

......................... are very thick and stiff.

A. Pastes

B. Ointments

C. Jellies

D. Poulties

23 / 100

Fluoride content in paste is.....................

A. NMT 1 PPM

B. NMT 10 PPM

C. NMT 100 PPM

D. NMT 1000 PPM

24 / 100

Suspending agent imparts ..........................

A. Solubility

B. Viscosity

C. Absorption

D. Wetting

25 / 100

How much glass of 10% w/w ammonia solution can be made from 1800mg of 28% w/w strong ammonia solution?

A. 5020 gm

B. 5040 gm

C. 5080 gm

D. 5kg

26 / 100

The another name of wool fat is...............

A. Lanolin

B. Anhydrous lanolin

C. Hydrous wool fat

D. Wool alcohol

27 / 100

In ball mill occupy how much area for suitable size reduction.

A. 60-80%.

B. 80-90%.

C. 30-50%.

D. 20-25%.

28 / 100

In aerosol, diptube is usually made of:

A. Polyamides

B. Polypropylene

C. Metal

D. Neoprene

29 / 100

Which paper is used for wrapping of powder.

A. Plastic paper

B. Art paper

C. White Glazed Paper

D. Amber colour paper

30 / 100

Choose the correct option; Following is not the mechanism of size reduction.

A. Impact and attrition.

B. Cutting

C. Elutriation

D. Brushing

31 / 100

Coarse powder is also known as-

A. 44/85.

B. 22/60.

C. 10/44.

D. None of these.

32 / 100

Triple roller mill is used in the preparation of..................

A. Ointment

B. Paste

C. Cream

D. All

33 / 100

Which powder is used into the body cavities as well as umbilical cords of infants.

A. Medicated dusting powder

B. Fine powder

C. Surgical dusting powder

D. Both A and B

34 / 100

Elixirs are..............

A. Hydro alcoholic liquid

B. Aqueous

C. Viscous

D. Semi solids

35 / 100

The concentration of sucrose in Simple syrup BP.

A. 40.74% w/w

B. 60.70% w/w

C. 66.70% w/w

D. 70.50% w/w

36 / 100

The powder which absorb moisture from the atmosphere are called

A. Hygroscopic powder

B. Deliquescent powder

C. Efflorescent powder

D. All of the Above

37 / 100

The monophasic liquid dosage form is................ solutions.

A. True

B. Course

C. Fine

D. Micro

38 / 100

Medical dusting powder used mainly

A. Superficial skin condition

B. During surgery

C. In to body cavities

D. In major wounds

39 / 100

Contact lens are usually made from

A. Polymethyl methacrylate

B. Polyvinyl chloride

C. Carboxymethyl cellulose

D. Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose

40 / 100

In aerosol, diptube is usually made for:

A. Propellent

B. Actuator

C. Meteried value

D. Dip tube

41 / 100

Which of the following is not an indication for use of pessary

A. As a therapeutic test

B. When future childbearing is intended in near future

C. Refusal for operation by patient

D. Non healing decubitus ulcer

42 / 100

Cachets are also known as

A. Soft gelatin capsule

B. Hard gelatin capsule

C. Water capsule

D. Both A and B

43 / 100

Dusting powder should be applied with

A. Powder puff

B. Sterilized gauze pad

C. Both A and B

D. Palm

44 / 100

Water soluble bases are also known as_____

A. Lanolin

B. Wool fat

C. Grease less ointment base

D. Greasy ointment base

45 / 100

Following ratio is used for the preparation of emulsion...............

A. Fixed oil : Water : Gum (4:2:1)

B. Volatile Oil : Water : Gum (2:2:1)

C. Mineral Oil : Water : Gum (3:2:1)

D. All of the above

46 / 100

............... is not a type of syrup.

A. Simple syrup

B. Medicated syrup

C. Flavoured syrup

D. Mixed syrup

47 / 100

Rectal suppositories intended for adult use usually weight approximately

A. 2g

B. 5g

C. 4g

D. 6g

48 / 100

Endodermic ointments are act as____

A. Protectant

B. Antiseptic

C. Stimulant

D. Parasiticides

49 / 100

The bioavailability of flocculated suspension is .........................

A. Relatively high

B. Comparatively less

C. Both A and B

D. None of the above

50 / 100

What is the pH of tears?

A. 5.0

B. 6.5

C. 7.0

D. 7.4

51 / 100

Suppository bases___________

A. Theobroma oil is example

B. Maintain shape

C. Helps in insertion into the body cavity

D. All of the Above

52 / 100

DOP used in validation of HEPA filter is ............................

A. Dioetylpthalate

B. Dioetylpyruvate

C. Dioetanepthalazine

D. Dioetahedraphaladehyde

53 / 100

Choose the correct mill, whose acts on the principle of impact only.

A. Roller mill.

B. Hammer mill.

C. Ball mill.

D. Both b and c.

54 / 100

The word posos means.................

A. How many

B. How much

C. How about

D. Amount

55 / 100

Nasal drops should have pH...............

A. 5-6

B. 6-7

C. 7-8

D. 8-9

56 / 100

For separating different-different densities material which equipment is mostly used?

A. Cyclone separator.

B. Sieving

C. Elutriation

D. Sedimentation

57 / 100

Inhalation of dusting powder by infants may lead to

A. Pulmonary inflammation

B. Nausea and vomiting

C. Cancer

D. All of the Above

58 / 100

Paste show which type of flow?

A. Dilatant

B. Plastic

C. Pseudo plastic

D. Shear Thinning

59 / 100

1 table spoonful mean...............

A. 4 ml

B. 8ml

C. 15 ml

D. 20

60 / 100

Douches are meant for application in .....................

A. Buccal cavity

B. Rectal cavity

C. Nasal cavity

D. Vaginal cavity

61 / 100

Which of the following substance is used as an inactivating agent for "Sulfonamides".

A. PABA (Para Amino Benzoic Acid)

B. Acetyl Transferase

C. Penicillinase

D. Penicillamine

62 / 100

Liniments must not be applied on the............skin.

A. Swelled

B. Broken

C. Painful

D. Normal

63 / 100

What is label condition for eye drops?

A. Discard 24 hours after first opening

B. Discard 30 days after first opening

C. Discard one year after first opening

D. Discard 5 years after first opening

64 / 100

Mechanical sieving device is works on the methods.

A. Agitation method.

B. Brushing method.

C. Centrifugal method.

D. All of the above

65 / 100

For any suitable sieve how much sieving area is required (in percentage)?

A. 20-25.

B. 35-40.

C. 65-80.

D. 15-25.

66 / 100

.............. is widely used to convert carbomer solution into gel/

A. Citric Acid

B. Sodium Bicarbonate

C. Triethanolamine

D. All of the Above

67 / 100

Standard unit volume in metric system is...............

A. Microlitre

B. Milliliter

C. Centiliter

D. Liter

68 / 100

Ampoule generally contain:

A. Single dose parenteral products

B. Multiple dose parenteral products

C. Two or three dosage

D. None of the above

69 / 100

In mixing of powder which method is used when poten substance are mixed with a large amount of diluents.

A. Spatulation

B. Geometric dilution

C. Trituration

D. Sifting

70 / 100

Which of the following ointment is not classified according to its therapeutic use ?

A. Antibiotic ointment

B. Diadermic ointment

C. Antifungal ointment

D. Keratolytic ointment

71 / 100

Buffering agent is also called as....................

A. Sweetening agent

B. Thickening agent

C. pH modifiers

D. Wetting agent

72 / 100

Transfusion bottles are made of:

A. Neutral glass

B. Molded glass

C. Soda glass

D. Sulphured glass

73 / 100

The label shake well before use is indicated on the mixture containing-

A. Soluble medicaments

B. Potent medicament

C. Diffusible medicaments

D. Miscible liquid

74 / 100

Brownian movement of particle in suspension cause..........................

A. Assist sedimentation

B. Promote sedimentation

C. Prevent sedimentation

D. Increase sedimentation rate

75 / 100

Saccharin is an example of..................

A. Natural sweetening agent

B. Flavouring agent

C. Artificial sweetening agent

D. Humectant

76 / 100

In artificial syrup which ingredients is used.

A. Glucose

B. Sucrose

C. Fructose

D. Saccharine

77 / 100

Choose the correct option.

A. Impact → Roller mill.

B. Cutting → Cutter mill.

C. Compression→ Colloid mill.

D. Attrition → Ball mill.

78 / 100

If particle size is 1 micro-meter to 100 micro-meters ........

A. Coarse dispersion

B. Colloidal dispersion

C. Flocculated

D. De-flocculated

79 / 100

Choose the correct synonyms of the size reduction.

A. Pulverizing

B. Grinding

C. Comminution

D. All of the above

80 / 100

Water for injection differs from sterile distilled water as it is free from ..........................

A. Antioxidant

B. Preservatives

C. Pyrogens

D. Carbon Dioxide

81 / 100

Plastisizers are added in plastic to provides:

A. Flexibility

B. Mechanical strength

C. Heat stability

D. None of the above

82 / 100

Choose the correct synonyms of the size separation.

A. Sieving

B. Sifting

C. Screening.

D. All of the above.

83 / 100

Some powders absorb moisture to such a great extent that they go in to solution are known as-

A. Efflorescent powder

B. Medicated powder

C. Hygroscopic powder

D. Deliquescent powder

84 / 100

Which of the following ointment is not classified according to therapeutic use?

A. Antibiotics ointment

B. Diadermic ointment

C. Antifungal Ointment

D. Keratolytic ointment

85 / 100

In which container dusting powder are dispensed

A. Sifter top container

B. Plastic container

C. Stainless steel container

D. Glas container

86 / 100

Which of the following is not a semisolid dosage form?

A. Paste

B. Cream

C. Ointments

D. Suspension

87 / 100

Which one is finely divided solid dosage forms inhaled to nostrils.

A. Insufflations

B. Medicated dusting powder

C. Snuffs

D. Both A and B

88 / 100

Which of the following formulations would not be applicable to ocular administration?

A. Solution

B. Liniment

C. Suspension

D. Ointment

89 / 100

Standard unit volume in metric system is...............

A. Microlitre

B. Milliliter

C. Centiliter

D. Liter

90 / 100

Which of the following is not monophasic Liquid dosage form........

A. Solution

B. Gargles

C. Suspension

D. Enemas

91 / 100

Which of the following is not a vehicle......

A. Glycerol

B. Butylated hydroxyl toluene

C. Water

D. Rose water

92 / 100

Choose incorrect option regarding ball mill.

A. Ball rotation is important aspects during reduction.

B. It works only on the principle of impact.

C. Ball mill produce loud noise.

D. Due to wearing contamination cause during operation.

93 / 100

In suspension, if particle size of suspended particle decrease so............

A. Surface free energy decrease

B. Surface area decrease

C. Surface free energy increase

D. System becomes thermodynamically stable

94 / 100

Sieves are arranged during the size separation of powder.

A. Ascending order.

B. Descending order.

C. Random order.

D. All the above.

95 / 100

A powder of which all the particle pass through the 85 number of sieve.

A. Very fine powder.

B. Fine powder.

C. Coarse powder.

D. Moderately coarse powder.

96 / 100

Endodermic Ointments are act as______________

A. Protectant

B. Antiseptic

C. Stimulant

D Parasiticides

97 / 100

Castor oil is used in lipsticks for

A. Building viscosity

B. Giving a shine

C. Preventing bleed

D. Dispersing oxide

98 / 100

Pharmaceutical suspension are generally...........

A. Flocculated

B. De-flocculated

C. Both

D. None

99 / 100

In dilute suspension, the concentration of solid should be......................

A. 2-10%

B. 50%

C. 0.5%

D. 30%

100 / 100

The following ingredient is used as an antioxidant and chelating agent............

A. EDTA

B. Citric Acid

C Ascorbic Acid

Phenyl Mercuric Acetate

Your score is

The average score is 35%

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318

Created by

Noteskarts

Pharmacognosy Class Test | Pharmacognosy DPEE Test

1 / 50

Stellate trichomes are present in

Humulus

Pyrethrum

Hammaelis

Calendula officinalis

2 / 50

Natural cytokinin is

Kinetin

Zeatin

Adenine

None

3 / 50

Which of the following is not a micronutrient?

Molybdenum

Copper

Zinc

Hydrogen

4 / 50

Which one is also known as extra-nuclear?

Golgi complex

Plastid

Argon

Mitochondria

5 / 50

Closed collateral vascular bundles are the characteristics of

Dicotyledonous plant

Monocotyledonous plant

Weeds

None of the above

6 / 50

Keris test is used for

Caffeine

Aloes

Presence of deoxy sugar

Rancidity of fats and oils

7 / 50

Manoalide, a marine drug, is

Antifungal

Muscle relaxant

Anti-inflammatory

Antipyretic

8 / 50

Which is not one of the parameter of quantitative chemical tests of fixed oils and fat?

Viscosity

Reichert-Meissel value

Peroxide value

Hydroxyl value

9 / 50

Which of the following causes fruit ripening?

Auxin

Cytokinin

Gibberellins

Ethylene

10 / 50

For vitamin A,

1IU is, contains 76 mg of standard preparation

1IU is contained 0.025 μg of standard preparation

1IU is present in 0.344μg of standard preparation

1 IU is present in 7.7 μg of standard preparation

11 / 50

Corm is present in

Saffron

Colchicum

Nux-vomica

A and B

12 / 50

Which marine drug has a cardiovascular activity?

Spongosine

Anthropleurins

Saxitoxin

A and B

13 / 50

Chlorophytum borivilianum is used as

Anti-fertility

Antipyretic

Aphrodisiac

Expectorant

14 / 50

Centroxylic stands for

Phloem in the centre surrounded by xylem

Xylem in the centre surrounded by phloem

Phloem in the centre surrounded by cambium

Xylem in the centre surrounded by cambium

15 / 50

Iodine value for oils and fats is measured as

Iodine present in oils

Extent of unsaturation

Extent of saturation

None of the above

16 / 50

Iodine number of fat is determined to know:

Free fatty acid

Average molecular size

Relative unsaturation

All of the above

17 / 50

The germination capacity of seeds is tested by

Rolled towel test

Germination index

Locast test

Testa swelling test

18 / 50

Halphen's test is used for

Detection of cotton seed oil as an adulterant

Detection of artificial invert sugar

Saponins

Tannins

19 / 50

Which of the following is not a micronutrient?

Molybdenum

Copper

Zinc

Hydrogen

20 / 50

Chrysanthemum is mainly used as

Pesticide

Insecticide

Rodenticide

Larvicide

21 / 50

Which one is essential vitamin in culture media?

Thiamine

Ascorbic acid

Pantothenic acid

Biotin

22 / 50

For the formation of shoot which ratio of plant growth regulators is required ?

Auxin:cytokinin (1:4)

Auxin:cytokinin (4:1)

Auxin:cytokinin (100:1)

Auxin:cytokinin (1:100)

23 / 50

The number of milligram of KOH required to combine with fatty acids which are present in glyceride from in 1 gram of sample of oil or fat is called

Difference between saponification value and acid value

Ester value

Acid value

Both (A) and (B)

24 / 50

Gibberelin obtained from fungus is

Gibberellin fujikuroi

Fusarium heterospermum

Aspergillus niger

A and B

25 / 50

Aril is present in

Nutmeg

Cardamom

Strophanthus

Castor

26 / 50

Antileukemic compound bryostatin is isolated from marine organism

Bugula neritina

Tethya crypta

Lissoclinum patella

Trididemnum species

27 / 50

Aril is

Outgrowth from micropyle and covering the seed

Stiff-bristle like appendages with wavy flowering glume of grasses

Warty out growth from micropyle

Succulent growth from hilum covering entire seed

28 / 50

All are true about leaflets, except

Bud or branch is absent in leaflets

Leaflets are arranged in pairs

Leaflets are asymmetric at the bases

Examples include rose, neem, digitise and senna etc.

29 / 50

Monophybrids describes

One pair of different characters

Two pairs of different characters

More than two pairs of different characters

None of the above

30 / 50

Open collateral vascular bundles are the characteristics of

Dicotyledonous plant

Monocotyledonous plant

Weeds

None of the above

31 / 50

In protoplast culture protoplasm is isolated by using

Cellulase

Macerozyme

Both

None

32 / 50

In which Ayurvedic formulation preservative is not required?

Lepa

Vatika

Asava

Pisti

33 / 50

Chemodemes refer to

Chemical race

Taxonomic race

Physical race

None of the above

34 / 50

Silk consists of:

Keratin

Fibroin

Resins

None of the above

35 / 50

In plant tissue culture surface sterilization of explant is done by

Sodium hypochloride

Bromine water

Hydrogen peroxide

All of the above

36 / 50

Adaptogen are substances which

Improve physical endurance

Maintain stamina in adverse and difficult environment

Increase the tolerance to change in environment

All of the above

37 / 50

Biosynthesis of alizarin follows the

Shikkimic acid pathway

Mevalonic acid pathway

Both A and B

Acetate pathway

38 / 50

Marine fungus is the source for

Penicillin

Cephalosporin

Zonarol

Avarol

39 / 50

All are plant growth promoters except

Abscisic acid

Auxin

Gibberellin

Cytokinin

40 / 50

The biological source of cotton fiber is

Cyamopsis tetragonolobus

Gossypium barbadense

Arachis hypogaea

Saraca indica

41 / 50

The callus is

Differentiated cell mass

Biomass

Isolated roots

Undifferentiated cell mass

42 / 50

Which drug has a cytotoxic activity?

Anthropleurins

Laminine

Ara-C

Saxitoxin

43 / 50

Candelabra trichomes are present in

Verbascum thapsus

Digitalis purpurea

Senna angustifolia

Helicteris isora

44 / 50

Relation between ester value saponification value and acid value is

Ester Value = Saponification value - Acid value

Ester Value = Saponification value + Acid value

Acid value = Ester value - Saponification value

B and C

45 / 50

Which one is not an intermediate in shikimik acid pathway?

Erythrose 4 phosphate

Chrosmic acid

Shikimik acid

Prephenic acid

46 / 50

Palisade ratio is

Total number of palisade cells beneath each upper epidermal cell

Total number of palisade cells beneath mesophyll

Average number of palisade cells beneath each upper epidermal cells

None of the above

47 / 50

Caruncle is present in

Nutmeg

Cardamom

Strophanthus

Castor

48 / 50

Centroxylic vascular bundle is present in

Malefern

Sweat flag

Maize

Sunflower

49 / 50

1 IU of vitamin A represents

0.0344 μg of standard preparation

0.344 μg of standard preparation

0.443 mg of standard preparation

0.77g of standard preparation

50 / 50

According to Ayurveda PITA (bile) is responsible for:

Transmitting sense impression to the mind

Providing the static energy for holding body tissues together

All digestive and metabolic activities

Lubrication of various points of friction

Your score is

The average score is 27%

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