GPAT Quiz 2024

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  • This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam. 
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GPAT Mock Test Series 2

1 / 50

1. Catechins and gallic acids are the examples of

2 / 50

2. Hydrolysable tannins on hydrolysis by acid yields

3 / 50

3. Example of pseudo tannis type is

4 / 50

4. Wheat is derived from

5 / 50

5. Cymopsis tetragonolobus is a source for

6 / 50

6. Myroxylon balsmum is the official source of

7 / 50

7. Iaspgol seeds are adulterated with

8 / 50

8. Caramel has ____________ as a chemical constituent.

9 / 50

9. All of the following come under Leguminosae except

10 / 50

10. What is the advantage L-Dopa over dopamine?

11 / 50

11. Spearmint contains

12 / 50

12. Ferulic acid present in asafoetida on treatment with HCI produces

13 / 50

13. Behda consist of dried ripe fruits of Terminalia balerica, which belongs to family

14 / 50

14. Black catechu gives _______ colour with FeCl3

15 / 50

15. Bahera belongs to __________ family.

16 / 50

16. Myrrh is

17 / 50

17. The algae Garcilaria contervoides is used for the preparation of

18 / 50

18. Tannins do not respond to

19 / 50

19. With ferric chloride hydrolysable tannins produce

20 / 50

20. On melting double stranded DNA gives more number of?

21 / 50

21. Calcium salt of acidic polysaccharides is present in

22 / 50

22. Balsams are resinous substances which contain large proportions of

23 / 50

23. Gumghatti is classified as a

24 / 50

24. The predominant chemical constituent of galls is

25 / 50

25. __________% of pectin is obtained from carrots.
(a) 10 (b) 10 to 12
(c) 10 to 15 (d) 5

26 / 50

26. Chemically gums consist of

27 / 50

27. Acacia catechu belongs to family

28 / 50

28. Arabin oxidase is present in one of the following carbohydrate:

29 / 50

29. One of the following is also known as Indian gooseberry:

30 / 50

30. Trgacanth contains _______ % of moisture content.

31 / 50

31. Condensed tannins

32 / 50

32. Which functional group is transferred by coenzyme pyridoxal phosphate?

33 / 50

33. Indian gum is obtained from

34 / 50

34. Colophony contains about 90% of

35 / 50

35. Gold beater’s skin test is used to detect the presence of

36 / 50

36. Galls are vegetable outgrowths formed on the twigs of

37 / 50

37. Triphlachurna contains

38 / 50

38. Commercially dextran is known as

39 / 50

39. Gossypol, a compound that has received major attention as male contraceptive
(a) Is a hydroxylated bi naphthalene derivative found in cotton seed oil

(b) Is an aorizanol ester found in rice bran oil

(c) Exhibits toxicity such as hypokalemic-induced paralysis

(d) Acts as an androgen antagonist.

40 / 50

40. Fiehe’s test is for

41 / 50

41. In which plant trichomes contain resin?

42 / 50

42. Barium chloride is used for the identification of
(a)  (b)
(c)  (d)

43 / 50

43. Ashoka bark contains

44 / 50

44. Gallic acid is an active chemical constituent of

45 / 50

45. The purgative property of myrobalan is due to presence of

46 / 50

46. _______is the Ca++ channel blocker

47 / 50

47. Guggulipid obtained from the commiphoramukul belongs to family

48 / 50

48. Carrageen an is a

49 / 50

49. Potato starch contains ________________ % of ash value.

50 / 50

50. Synonum of amla is

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Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

2 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

3 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

4 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

5 / 50

DDS stands for......

6 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

7 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

8 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

9 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

10 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

11 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

12 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

13 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

14 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

15 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

16 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

17 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

18 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

19 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

20 / 50

Functional group present in INH

21 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

22 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

23 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C30H62 . 

24 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

25 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

26 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

27 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

28 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

29 / 50

Antiseptic are

30 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

31 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

32 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

33 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

34 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

35 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

36 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

37 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

38 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

39 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

40 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

41 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

42 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

43 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

44 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

45 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

46 / 50

Excystation is _______

47 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

48 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

49 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

50 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

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The average score is 22%

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Created by 8a4ab39bc76ef351bee70bf4a6f492d3 | Noteskarts, D.Pharma Notes PDF, D.Pharma 1st year Notes, Pharmacy Notes Noteskarts GPAT Online Mock Test & Quizzes, GPAT Quiz 2024NotesKarts

Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

2 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

3 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

4 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

5 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

6 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

7 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

8 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

9 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

10 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

11 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

12 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

13 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

14 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

15 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

16 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

17 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

18 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

19 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

20 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

21 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

22 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

23 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

24 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

25 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

26 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

27 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

28 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

29 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

30 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

31 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

32 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

33 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

34 / 50

Darifenacin is a

35 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

36 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

37 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

38 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

39 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

40 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

41 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

42 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

43 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

44 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

45 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

46 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

47 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

48 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

49 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

50 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

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The average score is 30%

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1483
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GPAT Mock Test-2024

1 / 100

The rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis is one of the following:

2 / 100

Stevens Johnson syndrome is the most common adverse effect associated with one of the following category of drugs:

3 / 100

In the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and Rules, the Schedule relating to GMP is

4 / 100

Drugs following one compartment open model pharmacokinetics eliminate

5 / 100

The given antibiotic is an example of ansamycins:

6 / 100

Nicotinic action of acetylcholine is blocked by the drug

7 / 100

In the mixing of thymol and menthol, the following type of incompatibility occurs:

8 / 100

In organic molecules, fluorescence seldom results from absorption of UV radiation of wavelengths lower than

9 / 100

Glass transition temperature is detected through
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

10 / 100

The volume of distribution of a drug administered at a dose of 300 mg and exhibiting 30 microgram/mL instantaneous concentration in plasma shall be

11 / 100

Which of the following monoclonal antibodies is prescribed for patients with non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

12 / 100

Class 100 area is referred to

13 / 100

Alkaloids are not precipitated by

14 / 100

Tropane alkaloids are not present in

15 / 100

Streptomycin cannot be given orally for treatment of tuberculosis because

16 / 100

In Gas-Liquid Chromatography, some of the samples need to be derivatized in order to increase their

17 / 100

One mg of Lycopodium spores used in quantitative microscopy contains an average of

18 / 100

An isosteric replacement for carboxylic acid group is

19 / 100

At physiological pH, the following compound would be mostly in the

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20 / 100

Rabies vaccine (living) is prepared using

21 / 100

Which one of the following drugs specifically inhibits calcineurin in the activated T lymphocytes?

22 / 100

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor is

23 / 100

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

24 / 100

Cardiac glycosides have the following configuration in the Aglycone part of the steroid nucleus:

25 / 100

Digitalis toxicity is enhanced by co-administration of

26 / 100

Ganciclovir is mainly used for the treatment of infection caused by

27 / 100

Which one of the following is the commonly used bulking agent in the formulation of freeze dried low dose drug products?

28 / 100

The following protein/polypeptide has a quaternary structure:

29 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is not a typical antipsychotic agent?

30 / 100

Barbiturates with substitution at the following position possess acceptable hypnotic activity:

31 / 100

Measurement of inulin renal clearance is a measure for

32 / 100

Which one of the following drugs does not act through G-Protein coupled receptors?

33 / 100

In the TCA cycle, at which of the following enzyme-catalysed steps, incorporation of elements of water into an intermediate of the cycle takes place?

34 / 100

Identify the drug which is not used in the treatment of malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum.

35 / 100

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

36 / 100

In which of the following techniques, the sample is kept below triple point?

37 / 100

The characteristic of non-linear pharmacokinetics includes:

38 / 100

Oxidative phosphorylation involves

39 / 100

Which filler can not be used for the preparation of tablets for amine containing basic drugs to avoid discolouration of the tablets?

40 / 100

Which one of the following is not an ex-officio member of Pharmacy Council of India?

41 / 100

The ability of human eye using illuminated area to detect a particle is limited to

42 / 100

In thiazides, following substituent is essential for diuretic activity:

43 / 100

Aminotransferases usually requires the following for their activity:

44 / 100

For glyburide, all of the following metabolic reactions are logical except:

45 / 100

How many mL of a 1:500 w/v stock solution should be used to make 5 litres of 1:2000 w/v solution?

46 / 100

Gingkgo biloba is used for its

47 / 100

Bloom strength is used to check the quality of
(a) (b)
(c)  (d)

48 / 100

Highly branched three dimensional macromolecules with controlled structures with all bonds originating from a central core are known as

49 / 100

The chemical behaviour of morphine alkaloid is

50 / 100

Purity of water can be assessed by determining one of its following properties instrumentally:

51 / 100

Coulter counter is used in determination of

52 / 100

Many xenobiotics are oxidized by cytochrome P450 in order to

53 / 100

Ethambutol molecule has

54 / 100

Triterpenoids are active constituents of

55 / 100

Which one of the following is a flocculating agent for a negatively charged drug?

56 / 100

Bacopa monnieri plant belongs to the family

57 / 100

Aliskiren acts by

58 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is most effective in preventing transmission of HIV virus from the mother to the foetus?

59 / 100

Myasthenia gravis is diagnosed with improved neuromuscular function by using

60 / 100

Proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole and lansoprazole contain the following ring system:

61 / 100

Choose the right combination:

62 / 100

Which one of the following is a plasminogen activator?

63 / 100

Select the correct combination of drugs for the treatment of patients suffering from Hepatitis C.

64 / 100

A compound will be sensitive towards IR radiation only when one of the following properties undergo
transition on

65 / 100

The amount of barbaloin present in Aloe vera is

66 / 100

Quassia wood is adulterated with

67 / 100

Identify the one rational combination which has clinical benefit:

68 / 100

The effects observed following systemic administration of levodopa in the treatment of Parkinsonism have been
attributed to its catabolism to dopamine. Carbidopa can markedly increase the proportion of levodopa that
crosses the blood-brain barrier by

69 / 100

Improvement of memory in Alzheimer’s disease is brought about by drugs which increase transmission in

70 / 100

One of the following statements is not true:

71 / 100

The healing agent used in hand creams is

72 / 100

The temperature condition for storage of drug products under cold temperature is given as

73 / 100

Eugenol is present in

74 / 100

Sildenafil is used for treatment of one of the following
disorders:

75 / 100

The role of borax in cold creams is

76 / 100

In organic molecules, fluorescence seldom results from absorption of UV radiation of wavelengths lower than

77 / 100

Amitryptyline is synthesized from the following starting material:

78 / 100

Guggul lipids are obtained from

79 / 100

Artemisinin contains the following group in its structure:

80 / 100

X-ray crystallographic analysis of an optically active compound determines its

81 / 100

Anisocytic stomata are present in

82 / 100

A metabolite obtained from Aspergillus terreus that can bind very tightly to HMG CoA reductase enzyme is

83 / 100

An example of N-glycoside is

84 / 100

What quantities of 95% v/v and 45% v/v alcohols are to be mixed to make 800 mL of 65% v/v alcohol?

85 / 100

A drug (200 mg dose) administered in tablet form and as intravenous injection (50 mg dose) showed AUG of 100 and 200 microgram h/mL, respectively. The absolute availability of the drug through oral administration is

86 / 100

It is required to maintain a therapeutic concentration of 10 microgram/mL for 12 hours of a drug having half life of 1.386 h and Vd of 5 L. The dose required in a sustained release product will be

87 / 100

Chemical nomenclature of procaine is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

88 / 100

Drugs in suspensions and semi-solid formulations always degrade by

89 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is withdrawn from the market due to torsade de pointes?

90 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is prescribed for the treatment of Philadelphia chromosome positive patients with chronic myeloid Leukemia?

91 / 100

The common structural feature amongst the three
categories of anti-convulsant drugs barbiturates,
succinimides and hydantoins is
(a)  (b)
(c)  (d)

92 / 100

Which one of the following is used as a mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder and also in certain epileptic
convulsions?

93 / 100

The applicability of Noyes-Whitney equation is to describe

94 / 100

Thioglycolic acid-like compounds have applications in following type of cosmetic formulations:

95 / 100

Geriatric population should be included in the following phase of clinical trials:

96 / 100

Humectants added in cosmetic preparations generally act by

97 / 100

In nail polish, the following polymer is used as a film-former:

98 / 100

Which of the following non-opioid analgesics is a prodrug?

99 / 100

Indicate the HPLC detector that is most sensitive to change in temperature:

100 / 100

Cyclophosphamide as anticancer agent acts as

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The average score is 20%

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Pharmacology MCQs for DPEE and GPAT

1 / 51

Indicate the drug, which has greater potency of the local anesthetic action:

2 / 51

Which of the following agents is a ganglion-blocking drug?

3 / 51

The effect of the drug on parasympathetic function declines rapidly in all organs EXCEPT:

4 / 51

Indicate the local anesthetic agent, which has a shorter duration of action:

5 / 51

Acetylcholine is not used in clinical practice because:

6 / 51

Indicate the local anesthetic, which is an ester of paraaminobenzoic acid:

7 / 51

The group of nicotinic receptor-blocking drugs consists of:

8 / 51

Which one of the following local anesthetics is an ester of benzoic acid?

9 / 51

Which of the following drugs is both a muscarinic and nicotinic blocker?

10 / 51

A good local anesthetic agent shouldn’t cause:

11 / 51

Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs through liver is minimized:

12 / 51

Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following EXCEPT:

13 / 51

What does “affinity” mean?

14 / 51

Which of the following cholinomimetics activates both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors?

15 / 51

What is implied by «active transport»?

16 / 51

What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

17 / 51

Pharmacodynamics involves the following?

18 / 51

An antagonist is a substance that:

19 / 51

Parasympathomimetic drugs cause:

20 / 51

Most local anesthetic agents consist of:

21 / 51

Indicate a cholinomimetic agent, which is related to direct-acting drugs:

22 / 51

Target proteins which a drug molecule binds are:

23 / 51

Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following?

24 / 51

Pick out the answer which is the most appropriate to the term “receptor”

25 / 51

The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:

26 / 51

Which one of the following groups is responsible for the potency and the toxicity of local anesthetics?

27 / 51

Characteristics of carbachol include all of the following EXCEPT:

28 / 51

The symptoms of mushroom poisoning include all of the following EXCEPT:

29 / 51

What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

30 / 51

Muscarinic receptors are located in:

31 / 51

An agonist is a substance that:

32 / 51

Indicate the location of M2 cholinoreceptor type:

33 / 51

Acetylcholine is not a specific neurotransmitter at:

34 / 51

Which of the following drugs is a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant?

35 / 51

If an agonist can produce maximal effects and has high efficacy it’s called:

36 / 51

If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it’s called:

37 / 51

What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

38 / 51

Indicate the skeletal muscle relaxant, which is a depolarizing agent:

39 / 51

Pharmacokinetics is:

 

40 / 51

Ionizable group is responsible for:

41 / 51

Indicate a muscarinic receptor-blocking drug:

42 / 51

M3 receptor subtype is located:

43 / 51

What does the term “bioavailability” mean?

44 / 51

Indicate the drug, which is rapidly and fully distributed into CNS and has a greater effect than most other antimuscarinic
agents?

45 / 51

Which one of the following groups is responsible for the duration of the local anesthetic action?

46 / 51

The mechanism of atropine action is:

47 / 51

A hydrophilic medicinal agent has the following property:

48 / 51

Local anesthetics produce:

49 / 51

What kind of substances can’t permeate membranes by passive diffusion?

50 / 51

Which of the following direct-acting cholinomimetics is mainly muscarinic in action?

51 / 51

The reasons determing bioavailability are:

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