GPAT Quiz 2024

  • GPAT multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from GPAT Quiz, GPAT Mock Test Series, GPAT Exam 2024 MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
  • This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam. 
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GPAT Mock Test Series 2

1 / 50

Behda consist of dried ripe fruits of Terminalia balerica, which belongs to family

2 / 50

__________% of pectin is obtained from carrots.
(a) 10 (b) 10 to 12
(c) 10 to 15 (d) 5

3 / 50

Synonum of amla is

4 / 50

With ferric chloride hydrolysable tannins produce

5 / 50

All of the following come under Leguminosae except

6 / 50

Calcium salt of acidic polysaccharides is present in

7 / 50

Trgacanth contains _______ % of moisture content.

8 / 50

Potato starch contains ________________ % of ash value.

9 / 50

Myroxylon balsmum is the official source of

10 / 50

Guggulipid obtained from the commiphoramukul belongs to family

11 / 50

Wheat is derived from

12 / 50

Bahera belongs to __________ family.

13 / 50

Caramel has ____________ as a chemical constituent.

14 / 50

Commercially dextran is known as

15 / 50

Myrrh is

16 / 50

Indian gum is obtained from

17 / 50

Triphlachurna contains

18 / 50

Barium chloride is used for the identification of
(a)  (b)
(c)  (d)

19 / 50

_______is the Ca++ channel blocker

20 / 50

Spearmint contains

21 / 50

Fiehe’s test is for

22 / 50

Iaspgol seeds are adulterated with

23 / 50

Gallic acid is an active chemical constituent of

24 / 50

In which plant trichomes contain resin?

25 / 50

What is the advantage L-Dopa over dopamine?

26 / 50

The predominant chemical constituent of galls is

27 / 50

Arabin oxidase is present in one of the following carbohydrate:

28 / 50

Carrageen an is a

29 / 50

Acacia catechu belongs to family

30 / 50

Condensed tannins

31 / 50

Gumghatti is classified as a

32 / 50

Gold beater’s skin test is used to detect the presence of

33 / 50

Black catechu gives _______ colour with FeCl3

34 / 50

Colophony contains about 90% of

35 / 50

Cymopsis tetragonolobus is a source for

36 / 50

Tannins do not respond to

37 / 50

Hydrolysable tannins on hydrolysis by acid yields

38 / 50

On melting double stranded DNA gives more number of?

39 / 50

Which functional group is transferred by coenzyme pyridoxal phosphate?

40 / 50

Chemically gums consist of

41 / 50

The purgative property of myrobalan is due to presence of

42 / 50

One of the following is also known as Indian gooseberry:

43 / 50

Ashoka bark contains

44 / 50

The algae Garcilaria contervoides is used for the preparation of

45 / 50

Example of pseudo tannis type is

46 / 50

Catechins and gallic acids are the examples of

47 / 50

Balsams are resinous substances which contain large proportions of

48 / 50

Galls are vegetable outgrowths formed on the twigs of

49 / 50

Gossypol, a compound that has received major attention as male contraceptive
(a) Is a hydroxylated bi naphthalene derivative found in cotton seed oil

(b) Is an aorizanol ester found in rice bran oil

(c) Exhibits toxicity such as hypokalemic-induced paralysis

(d) Acts as an androgen antagonist.

50 / 50

Ferulic acid present in asafoetida on treatment with HCI produces

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Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

2 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

3 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

4 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

5 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

6 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C30H62 . 

7 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

8 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

9 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

10 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

11 / 50

Functional group present in INH

12 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

13 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

14 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

15 / 50

Excystation is _______

16 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

17 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

18 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

19 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

20 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

21 / 50

DDS stands for......

22 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

23 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

24 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

25 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

26 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

27 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

28 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

29 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

30 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

31 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

32 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

33 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

34 / 50

Antiseptic are

35 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

36 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

37 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

38 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

39 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

40 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

41 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

42 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

43 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

44 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

45 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

46 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

47 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

48 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

49 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

50 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

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The average score is 23%

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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

2 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

3 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

4 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

5 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

6 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

7 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

8 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

9 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

10 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

11 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

12 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

13 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

14 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

15 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

16 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

17 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

18 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

19 / 50

Darifenacin is a

20 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

21 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

22 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

23 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

24 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

25 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

26 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

27 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

28 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

29 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

30 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

31 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

32 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

33 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

34 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

35 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

36 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

37 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

38 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

39 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

40 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

41 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

42 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

43 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

44 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

45 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

46 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

47 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

48 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

49 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

50 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

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GPAT Mock Test-2024

1 / 100

The role of borax in cold creams is

2 / 100

The given antibiotic is an example of ansamycins:

3 / 100

Glass transition temperature is detected through
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

4 / 100

Ethambutol molecule has

5 / 100

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

6 / 100

Which one of the following is a flocculating agent for a negatively charged drug?

7 / 100

Oxidative phosphorylation involves

8 / 100

In the TCA cycle, at which of the following enzyme-catalysed steps, incorporation of elements of water into an intermediate of the cycle takes place?

9 / 100

The temperature condition for storage of drug products under cold temperature is given as

10 / 100

Nicotinic action of acetylcholine is blocked by the drug

11 / 100

Myasthenia gravis is diagnosed with improved neuromuscular function by using

12 / 100

Chemical nomenclature of procaine is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

13 / 100

Humectants added in cosmetic preparations generally act by

14 / 100

In which of the following techniques, the sample is kept below triple point?

15 / 100

The effects observed following systemic administration of levodopa in the treatment of Parkinsonism have been
attributed to its catabolism to dopamine. Carbidopa can markedly increase the proportion of levodopa that
crosses the blood-brain barrier by

16 / 100

The volume of distribution of a drug administered at a dose of 300 mg and exhibiting 30 microgram/mL instantaneous concentration in plasma shall be

17 / 100

Gingkgo biloba is used for its

18 / 100

Artemisinin contains the following group in its structure:

19 / 100

A compound will be sensitive towards IR radiation only when one of the following properties undergo
transition on

20 / 100

In the mixing of thymol and menthol, the following type of incompatibility occurs:

21 / 100

Purity of water can be assessed by determining one of its following properties instrumentally:

22 / 100

In organic molecules, fluorescence seldom results from absorption of UV radiation of wavelengths lower than

23 / 100

Rabies vaccine (living) is prepared using

24 / 100

Coulter counter is used in determination of

25 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is withdrawn from the market due to torsade de pointes?

26 / 100

Which one of the following is a plasminogen activator?

27 / 100

Improvement of memory in Alzheimer’s disease is brought about by drugs which increase transmission in

28 / 100

One mg of Lycopodium spores used in quantitative microscopy contains an average of

29 / 100

Digitalis toxicity is enhanced by co-administration of

30 / 100

In organic molecules, fluorescence seldom results from absorption of UV radiation of wavelengths lower than

31 / 100

Quassia wood is adulterated with

32 / 100

Streptomycin cannot be given orally for treatment of tuberculosis because

33 / 100

Barbiturates with substitution at the following position possess acceptable hypnotic activity:

34 / 100

Identify the drug which is not used in the treatment of malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum.

35 / 100

Sildenafil is used for treatment of one of the following
disorders:

36 / 100

Choose the right combination:

37 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is not a typical antipsychotic agent?

38 / 100

Aminotransferases usually requires the following for their activity:

39 / 100

Triterpenoids are active constituents of

40 / 100

Measurement of inulin renal clearance is a measure for

41 / 100

Aliskiren acts by

42 / 100

Amitryptyline is synthesized from the following starting material:

43 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is prescribed for the treatment of Philadelphia chromosome positive patients with chronic myeloid Leukemia?

44 / 100

The chemical behaviour of morphine alkaloid is

45 / 100

The applicability of Noyes-Whitney equation is to describe

46 / 100

Which of the following monoclonal antibodies is prescribed for patients with non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

47 / 100

In thiazides, following substituent is essential for diuretic activity:

48 / 100

In the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and Rules, the Schedule relating to GMP is

49 / 100

Bloom strength is used to check the quality of
(a) (b)
(c)  (d)

50 / 100

Eugenol is present in

51 / 100

Stevens Johnson syndrome is the most common adverse effect associated with one of the following category of drugs:

52 / 100

Which one of the following drugs does not act through G-Protein coupled receptors?

53 / 100

Proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole and lansoprazole contain the following ring system:

54 / 100

What quantities of 95% v/v and 45% v/v alcohols are to be mixed to make 800 mL of 65% v/v alcohol?

55 / 100

The ability of human eye using illuminated area to detect a particle is limited to

56 / 100

Many xenobiotics are oxidized by cytochrome P450 in order to

57 / 100

How many mL of a 1:500 w/v stock solution should be used to make 5 litres of 1:2000 w/v solution?

58 / 100

Thioglycolic acid-like compounds have applications in following type of cosmetic formulations:

59 / 100

Which one of the following is not an ex-officio member of Pharmacy Council of India?

60 / 100

Indicate the HPLC detector that is most sensitive to change in temperature:

61 / 100

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

62 / 100

Guggul lipids are obtained from

63 / 100

One of the following statements is not true:

64 / 100

In nail polish, the following polymer is used as a film-former:

65 / 100

Select the correct combination of drugs for the treatment of patients suffering from Hepatitis C.

66 / 100

The following protein/polypeptide has a quaternary structure:

67 / 100

An example of N-glycoside is

68 / 100

Which filler can not be used for the preparation of tablets for amine containing basic drugs to avoid discolouration of the tablets?

69 / 100

Ganciclovir is mainly used for the treatment of infection caused by

70 / 100

Which one of the following is the commonly used bulking agent in the formulation of freeze dried low dose drug products?

71 / 100

A metabolite obtained from Aspergillus terreus that can bind very tightly to HMG CoA reductase enzyme is

72 / 100

Class 100 area is referred to

73 / 100

Which one of the following is used as a mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder and also in certain epileptic
convulsions?

74 / 100

Drugs following one compartment open model pharmacokinetics eliminate

75 / 100

For glyburide, all of the following metabolic reactions are logical except:

76 / 100

An isosteric replacement for carboxylic acid group is

77 / 100

The common structural feature amongst the three
categories of anti-convulsant drugs barbiturates,
succinimides and hydantoins is
(a)  (b)
(c)  (d)

78 / 100

The characteristic of non-linear pharmacokinetics includes:

79 / 100

Highly branched three dimensional macromolecules with controlled structures with all bonds originating from a central core are known as

80 / 100

Geriatric population should be included in the following phase of clinical trials:

81 / 100

Which one of the following drugs specifically inhibits calcineurin in the activated T lymphocytes?

82 / 100

It is required to maintain a therapeutic concentration of 10 microgram/mL for 12 hours of a drug having half life of 1.386 h and Vd of 5 L. The dose required in a sustained release product will be

83 / 100

At physiological pH, the following compound would be mostly in the

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84 / 100

Cyclophosphamide as anticancer agent acts as

85 / 100

The amount of barbaloin present in Aloe vera is

86 / 100

The rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis is one of the following:

87 / 100

Alkaloids are not precipitated by

88 / 100

Which of the following non-opioid analgesics is a prodrug?

89 / 100

Drugs in suspensions and semi-solid formulations always degrade by

90 / 100

X-ray crystallographic analysis of an optically active compound determines its

91 / 100

Bacopa monnieri plant belongs to the family

92 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is most effective in preventing transmission of HIV virus from the mother to the foetus?

93 / 100

In Gas-Liquid Chromatography, some of the samples need to be derivatized in order to increase their

94 / 100

The healing agent used in hand creams is

95 / 100

A drug (200 mg dose) administered in tablet form and as intravenous injection (50 mg dose) showed AUG of 100 and 200 microgram h/mL, respectively. The absolute availability of the drug through oral administration is

96 / 100

Tropane alkaloids are not present in

97 / 100

Cardiac glycosides have the following configuration in the Aglycone part of the steroid nucleus:

98 / 100

Anisocytic stomata are present in

99 / 100

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor is

100 / 100

Identify the one rational combination which has clinical benefit:

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The average score is 20%

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Pharmacology MCQs for DPEE and GPAT

1 / 51

Indicate the local anesthetic, which is an ester of paraaminobenzoic acid:

2 / 51

What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

3 / 51

Indicate a cholinomimetic agent, which is related to direct-acting drugs:

4 / 51

Acetylcholine is not used in clinical practice because:

5 / 51

The effect of the drug on parasympathetic function declines rapidly in all organs EXCEPT:

6 / 51

Local anesthetics produce:

7 / 51

What does the term “bioavailability” mean?

8 / 51

Pick out the answer which is the most appropriate to the term “receptor”

9 / 51

What does “affinity” mean?

10 / 51

What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

11 / 51

If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it’s called:

12 / 51

What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

13 / 51

Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs through liver is minimized:

14 / 51

Which one of the following local anesthetics is an ester of benzoic acid?

15 / 51

Indicate the drug, which is rapidly and fully distributed into CNS and has a greater effect than most other antimuscarinic
agents?

16 / 51

A hydrophilic medicinal agent has the following property:

17 / 51

Which of the following direct-acting cholinomimetics is mainly muscarinic in action?

18 / 51

What kind of substances can’t permeate membranes by passive diffusion?

19 / 51

Pharmacokinetics is:

 

20 / 51

A good local anesthetic agent shouldn’t cause:

21 / 51

An antagonist is a substance that:

22 / 51

Acetylcholine is not a specific neurotransmitter at:

23 / 51

The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:

24 / 51

Which one of the following groups is responsible for the potency and the toxicity of local anesthetics?

25 / 51

Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following?

26 / 51

Which of the following cholinomimetics activates both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors?

27 / 51

The symptoms of mushroom poisoning include all of the following EXCEPT:

28 / 51

Which of the following drugs is a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant?

29 / 51

The reasons determing bioavailability are:

30 / 51

What is implied by «active transport»?

31 / 51

Indicate the skeletal muscle relaxant, which is a depolarizing agent:

32 / 51

Muscarinic receptors are located in:

33 / 51

The group of nicotinic receptor-blocking drugs consists of:

34 / 51

Pharmacodynamics involves the following?

35 / 51

Indicate the local anesthetic agent, which has a shorter duration of action:

36 / 51

Ionizable group is responsible for:

37 / 51

Parasympathomimetic drugs cause:

38 / 51

M3 receptor subtype is located:

39 / 51

If an agonist can produce maximal effects and has high efficacy it’s called:

40 / 51

Most local anesthetic agents consist of:

41 / 51

Indicate the location of M2 cholinoreceptor type:

42 / 51

Which one of the following groups is responsible for the duration of the local anesthetic action?

43 / 51

Which of the following drugs is both a muscarinic and nicotinic blocker?

44 / 51

Which of the following agents is a ganglion-blocking drug?

45 / 51

Characteristics of carbachol include all of the following EXCEPT:

46 / 51

Indicate a muscarinic receptor-blocking drug:

47 / 51

The mechanism of atropine action is:

48 / 51

An agonist is a substance that:

49 / 51

Target proteins which a drug molecule binds are:

50 / 51

Indicate the drug, which has greater potency of the local anesthetic action:

51 / 51

Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following EXCEPT:

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