GPAT Quiz 2024

  • GPAT multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from GPAT Quiz, GPAT Mock Test Series, GPAT Exam 2024 MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
  • This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam. 
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GPAT Mock Test Series 2

1 / 50

1. Calcium salt of acidic polysaccharides is present in

2 / 50

2. Iaspgol seeds are adulterated with

3 / 50

3. Which functional group is transferred by coenzyme pyridoxal phosphate?

4 / 50

4. In which plant trichomes contain resin?

5 / 50

5. Catechins and gallic acids are the examples of

6 / 50

6. The algae Garcilaria contervoides is used for the preparation of

7 / 50

7. Myroxylon balsmum is the official source of

8 / 50

8. Guggulipid obtained from the commiphoramukul belongs to family

9 / 50

9. Tannins do not respond to

10 / 50

10. Chemically gums consist of

11 / 50

11. Potato starch contains ________________ % of ash value.

12 / 50

12. On melting double stranded DNA gives more number of?

13 / 50

13. Arabin oxidase is present in one of the following carbohydrate:

14 / 50

14. Condensed tannins

15 / 50

15. Barium chloride is used for the identification of
(a)  (b)
(c)  (d)

16 / 50

16. Ashoka bark contains

17 / 50

17. The purgative property of myrobalan is due to presence of

18 / 50

18. Galls are vegetable outgrowths formed on the twigs of

19 / 50

19. _______is the Ca++ channel blocker

20 / 50

20. Indian gum is obtained from

21 / 50

21. Myrrh is

22 / 50

22. Spearmint contains

23 / 50

23. Fiehe’s test is for

24 / 50

24. Behda consist of dried ripe fruits of Terminalia balerica, which belongs to family

25 / 50

25. Caramel has ____________ as a chemical constituent.

26 / 50

26. Gold beater’s skin test is used to detect the presence of

27 / 50

27. Wheat is derived from

28 / 50

28. Ferulic acid present in asafoetida on treatment with HCI produces

29 / 50

29. Black catechu gives _______ colour with FeCl3

30 / 50

30. Colophony contains about 90% of

31 / 50

31. Trgacanth contains _______ % of moisture content.

32 / 50

32. Balsams are resinous substances which contain large proportions of

33 / 50

33. Gumghatti is classified as a

34 / 50

34. With ferric chloride hydrolysable tannins produce

35 / 50

35. __________% of pectin is obtained from carrots.
(a) 10 (b) 10 to 12
(c) 10 to 15 (d) 5

36 / 50

36. Gossypol, a compound that has received major attention as male contraceptive
(a) Is a hydroxylated bi naphthalene derivative found in cotton seed oil

(b) Is an aorizanol ester found in rice bran oil

(c) Exhibits toxicity such as hypokalemic-induced paralysis

(d) Acts as an androgen antagonist.

37 / 50

37. All of the following come under Leguminosae except

38 / 50

38. Synonum of amla is

39 / 50

39. Hydrolysable tannins on hydrolysis by acid yields

40 / 50

40. Gallic acid is an active chemical constituent of

41 / 50

41. Commercially dextran is known as

42 / 50

42. Bahera belongs to __________ family.

43 / 50

43. Triphlachurna contains

44 / 50

44. Carrageen an is a

45 / 50

45. Acacia catechu belongs to family

46 / 50

46. The predominant chemical constituent of galls is

47 / 50

47. One of the following is also known as Indian gooseberry:

48 / 50

48. What is the advantage L-Dopa over dopamine?

49 / 50

49. Cymopsis tetragonolobus is a source for

50 / 50

50. Example of pseudo tannis type is

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Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

2 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

3 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

4 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

5 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

6 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

7 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

8 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

9 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

10 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

11 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

12 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

13 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C30H62 . 

14 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

15 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

16 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

17 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

18 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

19 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

20 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

21 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

22 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

23 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

24 / 50

Excystation is _______

25 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

26 / 50

DDS stands for......

27 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

28 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

29 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

30 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

31 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

32 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

33 / 50

Antiseptic are

34 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

35 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

36 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

37 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

38 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

39 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

40 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

41 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

42 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

43 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

44 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

45 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

46 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

47 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

48 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

49 / 50

Functional group present in INH

50 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

2 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

3 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

4 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

5 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

6 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

7 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

8 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

9 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

10 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

11 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

12 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

13 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

14 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

15 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

16 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

17 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

18 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

19 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

20 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

21 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

22 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

23 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

24 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

25 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

26 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

27 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

28 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

29 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

30 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

31 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

32 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

33 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

34 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

35 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

36 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

37 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

38 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

39 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

40 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

41 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

42 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

43 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

44 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

45 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

46 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

47 / 50

Darifenacin is a

48 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

49 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

50 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

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GPAT Mock Test-2024

1 / 100

Measurement of inulin renal clearance is a measure for

2 / 100

The rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis is one of the following:

3 / 100

An isosteric replacement for carboxylic acid group is

4 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is prescribed for the treatment of Philadelphia chromosome positive patients with chronic myeloid Leukemia?

5 / 100

In organic molecules, fluorescence seldom results from absorption of UV radiation of wavelengths lower than

6 / 100

Highly branched three dimensional macromolecules with controlled structures with all bonds originating from a central core are known as

7 / 100

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

8 / 100

Which of the following monoclonal antibodies is prescribed for patients with non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

9 / 100

Triterpenoids are active constituents of

10 / 100

Aliskiren acts by

11 / 100

Many xenobiotics are oxidized by cytochrome P450 in order to

12 / 100

A compound will be sensitive towards IR radiation only when one of the following properties undergo
transition on

13 / 100

Which filler can not be used for the preparation of tablets for amine containing basic drugs to avoid discolouration of the tablets?

14 / 100

Purity of water can be assessed by determining one of its following properties instrumentally:

15 / 100

An example of N-glycoside is

16 / 100

Identify the one rational combination which has clinical benefit:

17 / 100

Which one of the following is not an ex-officio member of Pharmacy Council of India?

18 / 100

Tropane alkaloids are not present in

19 / 100

Amitryptyline is synthesized from the following starting material:

20 / 100

Proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole and lansoprazole contain the following ring system:

21 / 100

Glass transition temperature is detected through
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

22 / 100

The ability of human eye using illuminated area to detect a particle is limited to

23 / 100

Bloom strength is used to check the quality of
(a) (b)
(c)  (d)

24 / 100

Drugs in suspensions and semi-solid formulations always degrade by

25 / 100

In the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and Rules, the Schedule relating to GMP is

26 / 100

Digitalis toxicity is enhanced by co-administration of

27 / 100

Select the correct combination of drugs for the treatment of patients suffering from Hepatitis C.

28 / 100

What quantities of 95% v/v and 45% v/v alcohols are to be mixed to make 800 mL of 65% v/v alcohol?

29 / 100

It is required to maintain a therapeutic concentration of 10 microgram/mL for 12 hours of a drug having half life of 1.386 h and Vd of 5 L. The dose required in a sustained release product will be

30 / 100

A metabolite obtained from Aspergillus terreus that can bind very tightly to HMG CoA reductase enzyme is

31 / 100

One of the following statements is not true:

32 / 100

Guggul lipids are obtained from

33 / 100

Chemical nomenclature of procaine is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

34 / 100

Cardiac glycosides have the following configuration in the Aglycone part of the steroid nucleus:

35 / 100

Cyclophosphamide as anticancer agent acts as

36 / 100

Quassia wood is adulterated with

37 / 100

Nicotinic action of acetylcholine is blocked by the drug

38 / 100

Choose the right combination:

39 / 100

Indicate the HPLC detector that is most sensitive to change in temperature:

40 / 100

Class 100 area is referred to

41 / 100

Eugenol is present in

42 / 100

Gingkgo biloba is used for its

43 / 100

Rabies vaccine (living) is prepared using

44 / 100

Sildenafil is used for treatment of one of the following
disorders:

45 / 100

Which one of the following drugs does not act through G-Protein coupled receptors?

46 / 100

The applicability of Noyes-Whitney equation is to describe

47 / 100

Humectants added in cosmetic preparations generally act by

48 / 100

The following protein/polypeptide has a quaternary structure:

49 / 100

In thiazides, following substituent is essential for diuretic activity:

50 / 100

The role of borax in cold creams is

51 / 100

Which one of the following drugs specifically inhibits calcineurin in the activated T lymphocytes?

52 / 100

Bacopa monnieri plant belongs to the family

53 / 100

The temperature condition for storage of drug products under cold temperature is given as

54 / 100

Which one of the following is the commonly used bulking agent in the formulation of freeze dried low dose drug products?

55 / 100

In organic molecules, fluorescence seldom results from absorption of UV radiation of wavelengths lower than

56 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is not a typical antipsychotic agent?

57 / 100

Thioglycolic acid-like compounds have applications in following type of cosmetic formulations:

58 / 100

Which one of the following is a flocculating agent for a negatively charged drug?

59 / 100

The common structural feature amongst the three
categories of anti-convulsant drugs barbiturates,
succinimides and hydantoins is
(a)  (b)
(c)  (d)

60 / 100

Aminotransferases usually requires the following for their activity:

61 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is most effective in preventing transmission of HIV virus from the mother to the foetus?

62 / 100

For glyburide, all of the following metabolic reactions are logical except:

63 / 100

Ganciclovir is mainly used for the treatment of infection caused by

64 / 100

The volume of distribution of a drug administered at a dose of 300 mg and exhibiting 30 microgram/mL instantaneous concentration in plasma shall be

65 / 100

The given antibiotic is an example of ansamycins:

66 / 100

In Gas-Liquid Chromatography, some of the samples need to be derivatized in order to increase their

67 / 100

Streptomycin cannot be given orally for treatment of tuberculosis because

68 / 100

The effects observed following systemic administration of levodopa in the treatment of Parkinsonism have been
attributed to its catabolism to dopamine. Carbidopa can markedly increase the proportion of levodopa that
crosses the blood-brain barrier by

69 / 100

A drug (200 mg dose) administered in tablet form and as intravenous injection (50 mg dose) showed AUG of 100 and 200 microgram h/mL, respectively. The absolute availability of the drug through oral administration is

70 / 100

X-ray crystallographic analysis of an optically active compound determines its

71 / 100

In nail polish, the following polymer is used as a film-former:

72 / 100

In the mixing of thymol and menthol, the following type of incompatibility occurs:

73 / 100

The chemical behaviour of morphine alkaloid is

74 / 100

Improvement of memory in Alzheimer’s disease is brought about by drugs which increase transmission in

75 / 100

In the TCA cycle, at which of the following enzyme-catalysed steps, incorporation of elements of water into an intermediate of the cycle takes place?

76 / 100

Barbiturates with substitution at the following position possess acceptable hypnotic activity:

77 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is withdrawn from the market due to torsade de pointes?

78 / 100

Drugs following one compartment open model pharmacokinetics eliminate

79 / 100

Which one of the following is used as a mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder and also in certain epileptic
convulsions?

80 / 100

Identify the drug which is not used in the treatment of malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum.

81 / 100

Artemisinin contains the following group in its structure:

82 / 100

The amount of barbaloin present in Aloe vera is

83 / 100

Myasthenia gravis is diagnosed with improved neuromuscular function by using

84 / 100

Anisocytic stomata are present in

85 / 100

Which one of the following is a plasminogen activator?

86 / 100

Alkaloids are not precipitated by

87 / 100

Geriatric population should be included in the following phase of clinical trials:

88 / 100

The healing agent used in hand creams is

89 / 100

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor is

90 / 100

The characteristic of non-linear pharmacokinetics includes:

91 / 100

Stevens Johnson syndrome is the most common adverse effect associated with one of the following category of drugs:

92 / 100

Which of the following non-opioid analgesics is a prodrug?

93 / 100

Oxidative phosphorylation involves

94 / 100

Coulter counter is used in determination of

95 / 100

Ethambutol molecule has

96 / 100

How many mL of a 1:500 w/v stock solution should be used to make 5 litres of 1:2000 w/v solution?

97 / 100

One mg of Lycopodium spores used in quantitative microscopy contains an average of

98 / 100

In which of the following techniques, the sample is kept below triple point?

99 / 100

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

100 / 100

At physiological pH, the following compound would be mostly in the

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Pharmacology MCQs for DPEE and GPAT

1 / 51

What is implied by «active transport»?

2 / 51

Parasympathomimetic drugs cause:

3 / 51

An agonist is a substance that:

4 / 51

If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it’s called:

5 / 51

Indicate the local anesthetic agent, which has a shorter duration of action:

6 / 51

Muscarinic receptors are located in:

7 / 51

The symptoms of mushroom poisoning include all of the following EXCEPT:

8 / 51

Which of the following drugs is both a muscarinic and nicotinic blocker?

9 / 51

What does “affinity” mean?

10 / 51

Pharmacokinetics is:

 

11 / 51

Indicate the local anesthetic, which is an ester of paraaminobenzoic acid:

12 / 51

Indicate a muscarinic receptor-blocking drug:

13 / 51

The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:

14 / 51

A hydrophilic medicinal agent has the following property:

15 / 51

Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs through liver is minimized:

16 / 51

What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

17 / 51

An antagonist is a substance that:

18 / 51

Which of the following drugs is a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant?

19 / 51

Indicate the drug, which has greater potency of the local anesthetic action:

20 / 51

What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

21 / 51

M3 receptor subtype is located:

22 / 51

Which one of the following groups is responsible for the duration of the local anesthetic action?

23 / 51

Which of the following direct-acting cholinomimetics is mainly muscarinic in action?

24 / 51

Which of the following agents is a ganglion-blocking drug?

25 / 51

A good local anesthetic agent shouldn’t cause:

26 / 51

Pharmacodynamics involves the following?

27 / 51

Characteristics of carbachol include all of the following EXCEPT:

28 / 51

Which one of the following groups is responsible for the potency and the toxicity of local anesthetics?

29 / 51

Most local anesthetic agents consist of:

30 / 51

The group of nicotinic receptor-blocking drugs consists of:

31 / 51

Indicate a cholinomimetic agent, which is related to direct-acting drugs:

32 / 51

What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

33 / 51

The mechanism of atropine action is:

34 / 51

The reasons determing bioavailability are:

35 / 51

Acetylcholine is not a specific neurotransmitter at:

36 / 51

Indicate the location of M2 cholinoreceptor type:

37 / 51

Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following EXCEPT:

38 / 51

Pick out the answer which is the most appropriate to the term “receptor”

39 / 51

What kind of substances can’t permeate membranes by passive diffusion?

40 / 51

Ionizable group is responsible for:

41 / 51

Which one of the following local anesthetics is an ester of benzoic acid?

42 / 51

Indicate the drug, which is rapidly and fully distributed into CNS and has a greater effect than most other antimuscarinic
agents?

43 / 51

Acetylcholine is not used in clinical practice because:

44 / 51

Indicate the skeletal muscle relaxant, which is a depolarizing agent:

45 / 51

If an agonist can produce maximal effects and has high efficacy it’s called:

46 / 51

Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following?

47 / 51

Which of the following cholinomimetics activates both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors?

48 / 51

Target proteins which a drug molecule binds are:

49 / 51

Local anesthetics produce:

50 / 51

The effect of the drug on parasympathetic function declines rapidly in all organs EXCEPT:

51 / 51

What does the term “bioavailability” mean?

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