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DPEE Test Series Free Quiz Test

DPEE Test Series Free Quiz Test multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from DPEE Test Series Free Quiz Test Quiz, Pharmacist Exam MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam.

865

Created by

Noteskarts

DPEE Quiz Series-1

1 / 100

What is the name of the enzyme that catalyzes the formation of glucose from lactic acid in the liver?

Lactate dehydrogenase

Pyruvate dehydrogenase

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

Gluconeogenesis

2 / 100

What is the name of the enzyme that catalyzes the formation of pyruvate from glucose in the cytoplasm?

Pyruvate dehydrogenase

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

Phosphofructokinase

Hexokinase

3 / 100

What is the name of the enzyme that catalyzes the formation of glucose from amino acids

Gluconeogenesis

Glutamine synthetase

Transaminase

Glutamate dehydrogenase

4 / 100

What is the name of the enzyme that catalyzes the breakdown of fatty acids in the liver?

Lipoprotein lipase

Hormone-sensitive lipase

Triacylglycerol lipase

Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase

5 / 100

What is the name of the enzyme that catalyzes the formation of urea in the liver?

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase

Ornithine transcarbamoylase

Argininosuccinate synthetase

Arginase

6 / 100

What is the name of the enzyme that catalyzes the breakdown of glucose in the muscle?

Glycogen phosphorylase

Glucose-6-phosphatase

Glucose-6-dehydrogenase

Pyruvate dehydrogenase

7 / 100

What is the name of the enzyme that catalyzes the formation of ATP in the mitochondria?

Pyruvate dehydrogenase

Lactate dehydrogenase

Adenosine triphosphate synthase

Cytochrome c oxidase

8 / 100

What is the main function of the liver in the body?

To produce bile for digestion

To detoxify harmful substances

To produce hormones

To produce enzymes for digestion

9 / 100

What is the name of the protein that is responsible for blood clotting?

Fibrinogen

Prothrombin

Thrombin

Factor IX

10 / 100

What is the main function of the pancreas in the body?

To produce insulin and glucagon

To produce enzymes for digestion

To produce hormones for growth and development

To filter and excrete waste products

11 / 100

Local anesthetics produce:

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

12 / 100

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Clofibrate

Salicylates

Ethanol

Prednisolone

13 / 100

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Drug fever

Agranulocytosis

Alopecia

Nephritis

14 / 100

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

IDDM

Pregnancy

Renal insufficiency

All of the above

15 / 100

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Breast Carcinoma

Cerebral thrombosis

Hypertension

Dysmenorrhoea

16 / 100

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

Prolactin

F S H

Vasopressin

17 / 100

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Bradycardia

Tachycardia

Hypertension

Dry mouth

18 / 100

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Paraldehyde

Phenytoin

Diazepam

Carbamazepine

19 / 100

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Atropine

Scopolamine

Carbamazepine

Metoclopramide

20 / 100

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Respiratory difficulty

Palpitation

Cerebral heamorrhage

Tremor

21 / 100

Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

Form 32

Form 31

Form 30

Form36

22 / 100

Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

Form 24D

Form 25E

Form 20

Form 21

23 / 100

Form 20 states that

Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

24 / 100

Insulin comes under

Schedule H

Schedule J

Schedule G

Schedule O

25 / 100

Spurious drug comes under

Section 17

Section 17A

Section 17B

Section 3B

26 / 100

"Schedule F3" is related with

Standard for surgical dressing

Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

Standard for ophthalmic preparation

Standard for production of sera

27 / 100

Appendix II is about

Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

Format for submission of clinical trial reports

Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

28 / 100

Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

At temperature which not exceed 5°C

At temperature which not exceed 20°C

In cold place

29 / 100

Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

Schedule Y

Schedule U

Schedule U1

Schedule V

30 / 100

In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

31 / 100

What is the pH of tears?

A. 5.0

B. 6.5

C. 7.0

D. 7.4

32 / 100

Contact lens are usually made from

A. Polymethyl methacrylate

B. Polyvinyl chloride

C. Carboxymethyl cellulose

D. Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose

33 / 100

Which of the following substance is used as an inactivating agent for "Sulfonamides".

A. PABA (Para Amino Benzoic Acid)

B. Acetyl Transferase

C. Penicillinase

D. Penicillamine

34 / 100

A per I.P. temperature range for incubation in sterility testing is.

A. 20-25°C

B. 25-30°C

C. 30-35°C

D. 25-40°C

35 / 100

Water for injection differs from sterile distilled water as it is free from ..........................

A. Antioxidant

B. Preservatives

C. Pyrogens

D. Carbon Dioxide

36 / 100

The following ingredient is used as an antioxidant and chelating agent............

A. EDTA

B. Citric Acid

C Ascorbic Acid

Phenyl Mercuric Acetate

37 / 100

DOP used in validation of HEPA filter is ............................

A. Dioetylpthalate

B. Dioetylpyruvate

C. Dioetanepthalazine

D. Dioetahedraphaladehyde

38 / 100

An agent used to clean the surface of teeth & decreases the tooth decay, mouth odour is

A. Dental cone

B. Abrasive

C. Dentifrice

D. Dental paste

39 / 100

Which of the following is not an indication for use of pessary

A. As a therapeutic test

B. When future childbearing is intended in near future

C. Refusal for operation by patient

D. Non healing decubitus ulcer

40 / 100

Castor oil is used in lipsticks for

A. Building viscosity

B. Giving a shine

C. Preventing bleed

D. Dispersing oxide

41 / 100

Which is not one of the parameter of quantitative chemical tests of fixed oils and fat?

Viscosity

Reichert-Meissel value

Peroxide value

Hydroxyl value

42 / 100

Which one is also known as extra-nuclear?

Golgi complex

Plastid

Argon

Mitochondria

43 / 100

All are plant growth promoters except

Abscisic acid

Auxin

Gibberellin

Cytokinin

44 / 100

Which of the following causes fruit ripening?

Auxin

Cytokinin

Gibberellins

Ethylene

45 / 100

Chrysanthemum is mainly used as

Pesticide

Insecticide

Rodenticide

Larvicide

46 / 100

Natural cytokinin is

Kinetin

Zeatin

Adenine

None

47 / 100

Palisade ratio is

Total number of palisade cells beneath each upper epidermal cell

Total number of palisade cells beneath mesophyll

Average number of palisade cells beneath each upper epidermal cells

None of the above

48 / 100

According to Ayurveda PITA (bile) is responsible for:

Transmitting sense impression to the mind

Providing the static energy for holding body tissues together

All digestive and metabolic activities

Lubrication of various points of friction

49 / 100

Halphen's test is used for

Detection of cotton seed oil as an adulterant

Detection of artificial invert sugar

Saponins

Tannins

50 / 100

Aril is

Outgrowth from micropyle and covering the seed

Stiff-bristle like appendages with wavy flowering glume of grasses

Warty out growth from micropyle

Succulent growth from hilum covering entire seed

51 / 100

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

A. Temperature below 15°c

B. Temperature above 15°c

C. Temperature should be 30°c

D. Temperature between 15-30°c

52 / 100

Functional group present in INH

A. Carbohydrazide

B. Carbonyl group

C. Carboxamide

D. Carboxylic group

53 / 100

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethionamide

C. Triacetazone

D. None of the above

54 / 100

Major side effects of INH.....

A. Crystalluria

B. Peripheral neuropathy

C. Liver damage

D. Metabolic syndrome

55 / 100

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Isoniazid

D. Ethambutol

56 / 100

IUPAC name of INH is ...

A. Pyrazine-4- carbohydrazide

B. Pyridine-4- carbohydrazide

C. pyrimidine-4- carbohydrazide

D. pyridine-4-carboxamide

57 / 100

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

A. Clofazimine and Rifampicin

B. Dopamine and Rifampicin

C. Clofazimine and ofloxacin

D. All of them

58 / 100

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

A. Salicylic acid

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Dapsone

D. Methyl salicylic acid

59 / 100

DDS stands for......

A. Diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. Diamino divinyl sulphone

C. Dimethyl diphenyl sulphone

D. Diphenyl sulphone

60 / 100

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

A. Aniline

B. Sulfone

C. Amine

D. All of them

61 / 100

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

A. Pyridine

B. Imidazole

C. Pyrimidine

D. Pyrazine

62 / 100

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

A. Jaundice

B. Diarrhea

C. Peripheral neuropathy

D. All of them

63 / 100

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

A. Ethambutol

B. Diazepam

C. Haldol

D. Isoniazid

64 / 100

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

A. Amoebic dysentery

B. Helminth infection

C. Fungal infection

D. None of them

65 / 100

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Entamoeba subtilis

D. Entamoeba chrysogenum

66 / 100

Extra intestinal infections include

A. Hepatic amoebiasis

B. Pulmonary amebiasis

C. Cerebral amobiasis

D. All of the above

67 / 100

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

A. Direct contact

B. Formites

C. Contaminated food and drink

D. Rodents

68 / 100

Excystation is _______

A. Formation of trophozoites from cyst

B. Formation of cyst from trophozoites

C. Both of them

D. None of them

69 / 100

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Dapsone

D. Di-iodohydroxy quinoline

70 / 100

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

A. Moxifloxacin

B. Dapsone

C. Clofazimine

D. Ethambutol

71 / 100

What is the role of the hospital formulary in drug distribution?

To provide information about drugs

To ensure that the correct drugs are used

To provide information about the hospital's drug policies

To have no role in the process

72 / 100

What is the impact of incorrect drug distribution on patient safety?

No impact

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Increases the cost of healthcare

73 / 100

What is the role of pharmacists in drug distribution for out-patients?

To provide information about drugs

To ensure that the correct drugs are dispensed to the correct patients

To provide information about the hospital formulary

To have no role in the process

74 / 100

What is the role of pharmacists in drug distribution for in-patients?

To provide information about drugs

To ensure that the correct drugs are administered to the correct patients at the correct time

To provide information about the hospital formulary

To have no role in the process

75 / 100

What is the primary difference between drug distribution for in-patients and out-patients?

The type of drugs used

The location of the patients

The frequency of drug administration

The dose of the drugs

76 / 100

What is the impact of effective supply chain management on patient safety?

No impact

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Increases the cost of healthcare

77 / 100

What is the role of pharmacists in supply chain management?

To provide information about drugs

To monitor drug supplies and ensure an adequate supply

To provide information about the hospital formulary

To have no role in the process

78 / 100

What is the impact of poor supply chain management on patient care?

No impact

Increases the risk of drug shortages

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Increases the cost of healthcare

79 / 100

What is the role of inventory control in supply chain management?

To increase the cost of drugs

To reduce the cost of drugs

To maintain an adequate supply of drugs

To increase the sale of drugs

80 / 100

What is the primary objective of supply chain management in hospital pharmacy?

To increase the cost of drugs

To reduce the cost of drugs

To maintain an adequate supply of drugs

To increase the sale of drugs

81 / 100

What is the significance of addressing non-adherence to medication regimens?

To reduce the risk of adverse effects

To improve patient outcomes

To reduce healthcare costs

All of the above

82 / 100

What is medication adherence?

The ability of a patient to follow a medication regimen

The act of taking medication as prescribed

The willingness of a patient to take medication

All of the above

83 / 100

What is the significance of regularly reviewing and updating Patient Information Leaflets (PILs)?

To ensure that the information provided is accurate and up-to-date

To reduce the risk of medication errors

To comply with regulatory requirements

All of the above

84 / 100

What is the significance of non-verbal communication (body language) in patient-pharmacist interactions?

To convey empathy and understanding

To enhance patient trust and rapport

To improve patient satisfaction

All of the above

85 / 100

What is the significance of using appropriate tone and pace when communicating with a patient over the telephone?

To improve patient understanding

To reduce the risk of misinterpretation

To increase patient satisfaction

All of the above

86 / 100

What is the significance of regular training and education for staff in minimizing dispensing errors?

To enhance staff knowledge and skills

To reduce the risk of human error

To comply with regulatory requirements

All of the above

87 / 100

What is the most common type of dispensing error

Medication labeling errors

Medication substitution errors

Medication dosing errors

Medication administration errors

88 / 100

What is a dispensing error?

An error in the preparation or labeling of a medication

An error in the administration of a medication

An error in the prescription or order for a medication

An error in the storage or handling of a medication

89 / 100

What is the role of a community pharmacist in checking for potential drug interactions or allergies?

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

To improve patient outcomes

To monitor medication efficacy

All of the above

90 / 100

What is a prescription?

A written order for medication from a physician or other authorized prescriber

A written order for a diagnostic test or procedure

A written order for physical therapy

A written order for a specialist consultation

91 / 100

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Mydriasis

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Reduced sweating

Loss of accommodation

92 / 100

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Inhibits GIT motility

Prevents miosis

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

93 / 100

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Suppression of insulin secretion

Stimulation of insulin release

Suppression of glucagon secretion

None of above

94 / 100

Darifenacin is a

M1 antagonist

M2 antagonist

M3 agonist

M3 antagonist

95 / 100

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Isopropanol

Epinephrine

Dopamine

All of the above

96 / 100

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

Atropine

All of the above

97 / 100

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

None of above

98 / 100

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Physostigmine

Pralidoxime

Neostigmine

Tubocurarine

99 / 100

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Ephedrine

Amphetamine

Dopamine

All of the above

100 / 100

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Gallamine

Hexamethonium

Succinylcholine

D-tubocurarine

Your score is

The average score is 34%

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1764

Created on June 10, 2022 By

NotesKarts

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

A. Disinfection

B. Antisepsis

C. Sterilization

D. Coronisation

2 / 50

Functional group present in INH

A. Carbohydrazide

B. Carbonyl group

C. Carboxamide

D. Carboxylic group

3 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

A. Jaundice

B. Diarrhea

C. Peripheral neuropathy

D. All of them

4 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

A. Amoebic dysentery

B. Helminth infection

C. Fungal infection

D. None of them

5 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

A. Sulphamethoxine

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphamethoxy pyridazine

6 / 50

DDS stands for......

A. Diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. Diamino divinyl sulphone

C. Dimethyl diphenyl sulphone

D. Diphenyl sulphone

7 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

A. Silver

B. Titanium

C. Lead

D. Tin

8 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

A. Clofazimine and Rifampicin

B. Dopamine and Rifampicin

C. Clofazimine and ofloxacin

D. All of them

9 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

A. Damage to DNA

B. Enzyme inhibition

C. Cell wall destruction

D. All of them

10 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

A. Alkanes

B. Alkenes

C. Alkynes

D. Alkaloids

11 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

A. Salicylic acid

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Dapsone

D. Methyl salicylic acid

12 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

A. Cotrimoxazole

B. Sulphadiazine

C. Sulphacetamide sodium

D. Sulphamethoxazole

13 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

A. Ethambutol

B. Diazepam

C. Haldol

D. Isoniazid

14 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Entamoeba subtilis

D. Entamoeba chrysogenum

15 / 50

Antiseptic are

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

16 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

A. Specifying the number of carbon atoms associated with the bond

B. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at beginning of the C=C bond

C. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at end of the C=C bond

D. Specifying the number of carbon atoms in the entire chain

17 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

A. Phenyl and benzyl

B. Propyl and phenyl

C. Methyl and benzyl

D. Butyl and phenyl

18 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

A. para amino salicylic acid

B. Clofazimine

C. Dapsone

D. Ethambutol

19 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

A. Pyridine

B. Imidazole

C. Pyrimidine

D. Pyrazine

20 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

A. Exactly a double bond

B. Exactly a triple bond

C. Exactly two double bond

D. More than two double bond

21 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

A. Moxifloxacin

B. Dapsone

C. Clofazimine

D. Ethambutol

22 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

A. 4,4'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. 2,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

C. 4,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

D. 4,4'-diamino dimethyl sulphone

23 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphacetamide

B. Sulphasalazine

C. Sulphapyridine

D. Sulphadoxine

24 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

A. Hepatic amoebiasis

B. Pulmonary amebiasis

C. Cerebral amobiasis

D. All of the above

25 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

A. Compared to antibiotics

B. Compared to statins

C. Compared to sulpha drugs

D. Compared to antitubercular drugs

26 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

A. Crystalluria

B. Peripheral neuropathy

C. Liver damage

D. Metabolic syndrome

27 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

A. Sulphadimethoxine

B. Sulphadoxine

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphadimethoxy pyridazine

28 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

A. Bacteria

B. Spores

C. Fungi

D. Viruses

29 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

A. Aniline

B. Sulfone

C. Amine

D. All of them

30 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

31 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

A. Direct contact

B. Formites

C. Contaminated food and drink

D. Rodents

32 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

A. Methyl Group

B. Ethynyl group

C. Propionyl group

D. Propargyl group

33 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

A. Chlorhexidine

B. Diazepam

C. Miglitol

D. Lorazepam

34 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Isoniazid

D. Ethambutol

35 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethionamide

C. Triacetazone

D. None of the above

36 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Dapsone

D. Di-iodohydroxy quinoline

37 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

A. ene

B. ic

C. one

D. yl

38 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C₃₀H_{62 .}

A. Propdecane

B. Eicosane

C. Triacontane

D. Dodecane

39 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

A. Piperidine

B. Pyridine

C. Oxazole

D. Pyrimidine

40 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

A. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase

B. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase

C. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase

D. Activation of DNA gyrase

41 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

A. Benzoyl peroxide

B. Tramadol

C. Zidovudine

D. Fluoxetine

42 / 50

Excystation is _______

A. Formation of trophozoites from cyst

B. Formation of cyst from trophozoites

C. Both of them

D. None of them

43 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

A. Alcohol

B. Phenol

C. Iodine

D. All of the above

44 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

A. Crystalluria

B. Hansen's disease

C. Liver cirrhosis

D. Mendel disease

45 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

A. Temperature below 15°c

B. Temperature above 15°c

C. Temperature should be 30°c

D. Temperature between 15-30°c

46 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

A. Pyrazine-4- carbohydrazide

B. Pyridine-4- carbohydrazide

C. pyrimidine-4- carbohydrazide

D. pyridine-4-carboxamide

47 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

A. Vicucidal

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacteriostatic

D. Disinfectant

48 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphamethoxazole

B. Sulfafuraole

C. Sulphadimidine

D. Sulphapyridine

49 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

A. True

B. False

50 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

A. Cyclopropane

B. Cyclobutane

C. Cyclopentane

D. Cyclohexane

Your score is

The average score is 23%

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2655

Created by

NotesKarts

Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

IDDM

Pregnancy

Renal insufficiency

All of the above

2 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Tubocurarine

Physostigmine

Pralidoxime

Neostigmine

3 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

4 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Blocking B2 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

Stimulating B2 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

5 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

None of the above

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

To check the activity straight muscle

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

6 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Diazepam

Paraldehyde

Carbamazepine

Phenytoin

7 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Rifampicin

Carbamazepine

Grape juice

Barbiturates

8 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

Detect the impurity in a given drug

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

9 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Hypertension

Dry mouth

Bradycardia

Tachycardia

10 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Non-competitive antagonism

Antagonist

Partial agonist

Competitive antagonism

11 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

Physostigmine

Pralidoxime

None of the above

Neostigmine

12 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To cause haemeostasis

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

All of the above

To stimulate would healing

13 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

GPCR

Steroid receptor

Enzyme linked

Ion channel

14 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Mydriasis

Reduced sweating

Loss of accommodation

15 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Block accommodation reflex

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Constipation

Bronchoconstriction

16 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

All of the above

Competing at receptor sites

Inhibiting release from storage sites

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

17 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

None of above

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

18 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Noradrenaline

Acetylcholine

Atropine

Isoprenaline

19 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Ion pair transport

Active transport

Passive diffusion

Facilitated diffusion

20 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Isopropanol

All of the above

Epinephrine

Dopamine

21 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Cerebral heamorrhage

Respiratory difficulty

Tremor

Palpitation

22 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

23 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

R and S

P and S

Q and R

Q and S

24 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M1 antagonist

M3 antagonist

M3 agonist

M2 antagonist

25 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

α amino acid conjunction

Methylation

Glucuronide conjugation

Sulfate conjunction:

26 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Heart

Cerebral cortex

Corpus striatum

Exocrine gland

27 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinolytics

Cholinomimetic

Sympathomimetic

Cholinesterase inhibitor

28 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

Prolactin

Vasopressin

F S H

29 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Dysmenorrhoea

Breast Carcinoma

Cerebral thrombosis

Hypertension

30 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Atropine

Carbamazepine

Scopolamine

Metoclopramide

31 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

32 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Potentiation

Antagonism

Synergism

Addition

33 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Both a and b

Ecothiopate

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Physostigmine

34 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Stimulation of insulin release

Suppression of insulin secretion

None of above

Suppression of glucagon secretion

35 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Alcohol

Warfarin

Digoxin

Amitriptyline

36 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

Inhibits GIT motility

Prevents miosis

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

37 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Oxytocin

Prolactin

Insulin

Histamine

38 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

Pyridostigmine

Edrophonium

39 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Ethanol

Prednisolone

Salicylates

Clofibrate

40 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Amphetamine

Ephedrine

Dopamine

All of the above

41 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Pancuronium

Tubocurarine

Gallamine

All of the above

42 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Succinylcholine

D-tubocurarine

Gallamine

Hexamethonium

43 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

All of the above

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

44 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

None of the above

Desmethyl spironolactone

Acetylspironolactone

Canrenone

45 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Darifenacin

Pirenzepine

Cyclopentolate

Hyoscine

46 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Pilocarpine

Bethanechol

Atropine

Physostigmine

47 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Miosis

Increased heart rate

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Mental aberration

48 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Alopecia

Agranulocytosis

Nephritis

Drug fever

49 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

Scopolamines

All of the above

Phenothiazines

Atropine

50 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Atropine

All of the above

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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1750

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. Insulin comes under

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule J

d. Schedule G

2 / 25

2. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 1

b. 5

c. 2

d. 3

3 / 25

3. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To prescribe drug

b. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

c. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

d. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

4 / 25

4. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. In cold place

b. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

c. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

d. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

5 / 25

5. Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

6 / 25

6. "Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

b. Standard for production of sera

c. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

d. Standard for surgical dressing

7 / 25

7. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule U1

b. Schedule U

c. Schedule V

d. Schedule Y

8 / 25

8. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 21

b. Form 24D

c. Form 25E

d. Form 20

9 / 25

9. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule C

d. Schedule M

10 / 25

10. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule U

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule W

d. Schedule X

11 / 25

11. Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule W

d. Schedule H

12 / 25

12. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form 30

b. Form36

c. Form 31

d. Form 32

13 / 25

13. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Capsule

b. Antigen

c. Toxins

d. Sera

14 / 25

14. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Three

b. Six

c. Four

d. Five

15 / 25

15. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. Election of Registered Pharmacists

b. Central Government

c. State Government of Delhi

d. President

16 / 25

16. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule D

c. Schedule F

d. Schedule B

17 / 25

17. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 20

b. Form 36

c. Form 32

d. Form 24

18 / 25

18. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule S

c. Schedule E

d. Schedule O

19 / 25

19. Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

b. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

c. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

d. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

20 / 25

20. Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 17A

b. Section 3B

c. Section 17

d. Section 17B

21 / 25

21. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Three years

b. Five years

c. Four years

d. Six years

22 / 25

22. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 1

b. 2

c. 4

d. 3

23 / 25

23. Appendix II is about

a. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

b. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

c. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

d. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

24 / 25

24. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Drug

b. Adulterated drug

c. Spurious drug

d. Misbranded drug

25 / 25

25. Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1919

b. 1995

c. 1948

d. 1940

Your score is

The average score is 39%

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356

1 / 50

1. As per D and C act schedule T stated about

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Medical device

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Homeopathy drugs

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Allopathy drugs

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs

2 / 50

2. Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

a. FF

b. D

c. A

d. Q

3 / 50

3. Patent Act is established in

a. 1919

b. 1948

c. 1940

d. 1970

4 / 50

4. The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

a. Schedule F

b. Schedule M

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule Y

5 / 50

5. Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

a. 1948

b. 1919

c. 1954

d. 1985

6 / 50

6. List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

a. Schedule I

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule H

d. Schedule G

7 / 50

7. Aspirin sodium comes under

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule J

d. Schedule Y

8 / 50

8. Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

a. Phase V

b. Phase I

c. Phase II

d. Phase III

9 / 50

9. Schedule J is related to

a. List of disease and ailments which drug cannot claim.

b. Pack sizes of drugs.

c. Curable disease

d. GMP

10 / 50

10. Schedule N states

a. List of minimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy

b. Standard for cosmetics

c. Requirement of factory premises and hygienic condition to complied

d. List of minimum equipment required for manufacturing of drug.

11 / 50

11. In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

a. 10-12 patients

b. 500 patients

c. 100 patients

d. 1-10 patients

12 / 50

12. Injection syringe and needles are covered under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule Q

c. Schedule A

d. Schedule B

13 / 50

13. Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

a. V

b. W

c. Y

d. X

14 / 50

14. In 1954 one of the following act is passed

a. Poisonous Act.

b. Drug and magic Remedies Act

c. The Medical Termination of pregnancy Act

d. Narcotic and psychotropic substance Act

15 / 50

15. Coca, opium and hemp come under:

a. Spurious Drug Act

b. Insecticide Act

c. Poisons Act

d. Dangerous Drug Act

16 / 50

16. One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

a. Chief administrative medical officer of the state

b. Chief pharmacist of government hospital

c. Assistant drug controller

d. All

17 / 50

17. DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

a. Four

b. Five

c. Six

d. Eight

18 / 50

18. Dettol comes under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule Q

d. Schedule N

19 / 50

19. As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

a. Skin cosmetic preparation

b. Ophthalmic preparation

c. Ointment formulation

d. Parenteral preparation

20 / 50

20. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

a. Every 2 year

b. Every 6 year

c. Every 3 year

d. Every 5 year

21 / 50

21. Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

a. Efficacy and Safety of drug in longer number of patients (500 patients)

b. Long time adverse effects aster marketing drug

c. Determine Possible therapeutic uses, Effective doses range

d. To determine maximum tolerated dose in humans, Pharmacodynamics effects, Adverse effect.

22 / 50

22. For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

a. 500 square meters

b. 400 square meters

c. 250 square meters

d. 150 square meters

23 / 50

23. If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

a. True Drug

b. Spurious Drug

c. Misbranded Drug

d. Adulterated Drug

24 / 50

24. Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

a. In cold place

b. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

c. At the Temperature 2°C to 8°C and it must not allow to freeze

d. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

25 / 50

25. As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

a. Temperature not exceeding 5°C

b. A cool place

c. A Cold place

d. Well closed container, protect from light, in cool place, protect from light

26 / 50

26. For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

a. Symbol H displayed on right top corner of the label.

b. Symbol N displayed on left top corner of the label.

c. Symbol N is red displayed on left top corner of the label

d. Symbol X given in red

27 / 50

27. TGA is regulatory agency of………….

a. India

b. Denmark

c. Zimbabwe

d. Australia

28 / 50

28. The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

a. 1950

b. 1955

c. 1985

d. 1940

29 / 50

29. Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

a. Misbranded drugs

b. Ayurvedic drugs

c. Schedule ‘C’ ‘G’ drugs

d. Toilet preparations

30 / 50

30. Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

a. Form 24

b. Form 27

c. Form 26

d. Form 25

31 / 50

31. Hatch Waxman Act is related to

a. Banned drugs

b. Dangerous drugs Act

c. Over the counter drugs

d. Spurious drugs Act

32 / 50

32. Example of Schedule G drug is

a. Metformin

b. Barbital

c. Cefuroxime

d. Enalapril

33 / 50

33. The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

a. Ministry of Education

b. Central Government

c. President, Pharmacy Council of India

d. Drug Controller

34 / 50

34. MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

a. UK

b. Brazil

c. South Africa

d. Denmark

35 / 50

35. In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

a. President of India

b. Government Analyst

c. The officer in charge of drugs control organization

d. Chief Administrator medical officer of state

36 / 50

36. Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

a. O

b. R1

c. S

d. R

37 / 50

37. For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

a. 21

b. 20

c. 20B

d. 21B

38 / 50

38. List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

a. Schedule Q

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule O

39 / 50

39. Schedule C is related to

a. List of Homeopathy product

b. List of Biological and Immunological product

c. List of Ayurvedic product

d. List of Allopathic product

40 / 50

40. As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

a. List of maximum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

b. Area for opening retail pharmacy

c. List of minimum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

d. Area required to open wholesale drug store

41 / 50

41. If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

a. Yellow

b. White

c. Blue

d. Red

42 / 50

42. Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

a. List of incurable diseases

b. Guidelines for clinical Trials

c. None of the above

d. List of generic drugs

43 / 50

43. Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

a. 3

b. 4

c. 2

d. 1

44 / 50

44. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

a. Seven

b. Six

c. Nine

d. Five

45 / 50

45. List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

a. K

b. H

c. X

d. G

46 / 50

46. Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

a. Requirements of factory premises

b. List of prescription drugs

c. List of drug exempted from the provision of import of drugs

d. Disease or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure

47 / 50

47. Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

a. Schedule J

b. Schedule L

c. Schedule K

d. Schedule P

48 / 50

48. MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

a. UK

b. Denmark

c. Brazil

d. South Africa

49 / 50

49. Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

a. A

b. C and C1

c. B

d. X

50 / 50

50. Pack size of drug is covered under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule P1

Your score is

The average score is 38%

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