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Pharmacology & Toxicology DPEE Test-2 | Pharmacology & Toxicology Class Test |

Pharmacology & Toxicology Class Test-2

This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam. Pharmacology & Toxicology Class Test | Pharmacology & Toxicology DPEE Test

Created by

Noteskarts

Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE-2 | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Analgin usefulness is limited by:

Methemoglobinemia

Agranulocytosis

Erosions and gastric bleeding

Hearing impairment

2 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Dysmenorrhoea

Breast Carcinoma

Cerebral thrombosis

Hypertension

3 / 50

Hypercholesterolemia ( or hypercholesteremia) is an abnormally high concentration of cholesterol in the blood. This consideration is:

False

True

4 / 50

Tick mixed (opioid/non-opioid) agent:

Sodium valproate

Butorphanol

Paracetamol

Tramadol

5 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Salicylates

Ethanol

Prednisolone

Clofibrate

6 / 50

Select the non-narcotic drug, which is a para aminophenol derivative:

Baclofen

Analgin

Paracetamol

Aspirin

7 / 50

Indicate the chemical mediators in the antinociceptive descending pathway:

BETA-endorphin

Dynorphin

All of the above

Met- and leu-enkephalin

8 / 50

Narcotic analgesics should:

Relieve severe pain

Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect

Induce loss of sensation

Induce a stupor or somnolent state

9 / 50

Correct the statement concerning ketorolac include all of the following EXCEPT:

It has a high potential for physical dependence and abuse

It does not produce respiratory depression

It is an effective as morphine for a short-term relief from moderate to severe pain

It inhabits COX

10 / 50

Which one of the following non-narcotic agents inhabits mainly cyclooxygenase(COX) in CNS?

Paracetamol

Ibuprofen

Ketorolac

Acetylsalicylic acid

11 / 50

Indicate the non-narcotic analgesic, which lacks an anti-inflammatory effect:

Metamizole

Aspirin

Paracetamol

Naloxone

12 / 50

Non-narcotic agents causes:

Euphoria

Antipyretic effect

Respiratory depression

Physical dependence

13 / 50

Indicate the neurons, which are located in the locus ceruleus or the lateral tegmental area of the reticular formation:

Dopaminergic

Both (Nonadrenergic & Gabaergic)

Serotonergic

Gabaergic

Nonadrenergic

14 / 50

Hyperlipoproteinemia is a condition marked by an abnormally high level of lipoprotein in the blood. This consideration is:

True

False

15 / 50

Chemical mediators in the nociceptive pathway are all of the following EXCEPT:

Enkephalins

Substance P

Kinins

Prostaglandins

16 / 50

Which of the following analgesics is a phenanthrene derivative:

Fentanyl

Methadone

Pentazocine

Morphine

17 / 50

For which of the following conditions could aspirin be used prophylactically?

Metabolic acidosis

Peptic ulcers

Thromboembolism

Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema

18 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

Pregnancy

IDDM

Renal insufficiency

All of the above

19 / 50

All of the following statements concerning Cholestyramine

(Questran) are true, EXCEPT:

It is an effective drug for treatment of types IIa and IIb hyperlipidemia

It works by directly binding cholesterol in the blood

It is not well tolerated by patients

It would not be a good choice for treating patients with familial hypertriglyceridemia (type IV)

20 / 50

All of the following are undesirable effects of aspirin EXCEPT:

Reversible renal insufficiency

Tolerance and physical addiction

Bleeding due to a decrease of platelet aggregation

Gastritis with focal erosions

21 / 50

Second-order pain is:

Dull, burning pain

Effectively reduced by non-narcotic analgesics

Associated with fine myelinated A-delta fibers

Sharp, well-localized pain

22 / 50

Which of the following opioid receptor type is responsible for euphoria and respiratory depression?

Mu-receptors

Delta-receptors

Kappa-receptors

All of the above

23 / 50

Characteristic Findings of salicylism include:

Hyperthermia, sweating, thirst, hyperventilation, vomiting and diarrhea

Tinnitus and difficult in hearing

Headache, mental confusion and drowsiness

All of the above

24 / 50

Indicate the nonopioid agents of central effect with analgesic activity:

Prazosin

Reserpine

Propranolol

Clopheline

25 / 50

Correct statement concerning aspirin include all of the following EXCEPT:

It does not have an anti-inflammatory effect

It inhabits platelet aggregation

It stimulates respiration by a direct action on the respiratory center

It inhabits mainly peripheral COX

26 / 50

Tick pyrazolone derivative:

Paracetamol

Ketorolac

Analgin

Methyl Salicylate

27 / 50

Hypertryglyceridemia denotes high blood levels of triglycerides. It has been associated with atherosclerosis, even in the absence of hypercholesterolemia (high cholesterol levels). The consideration is:

True

False

28 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Drug fever

Agranulocytosis

Nephritis

Alopecia

29 / 50

Lipoprotein is:

Any of various fat-soluble or water-soluble organic substances essential in minute amounts for normal growth and activity of the body and obtained naturally from plant and animal foods

Mediators of inflammatory process

A conjugated protein having a lipid component; the principle means for transporting lipids in the blood

Product of endocrine gland secretion

30 / 50

Tick narcotic analgesic, which is a phenylpiperidine derivative:

Codeline

Fentanyl

Buprenorphine

Dezocine

31 / 50

Which of the following consideration about type I familial hyperlipoproteinemia is true:

Type I familial hyperlipoproteinemia characterized by increased serum concentrations of chylomicrons, pre-low-density lipoproteins, and triglycerides that are considered to be the result of a combination of fat and carbohydrate-induced hyperlipemia

Type I familial hyperlipoproteinemia marked by the increased serum concentrations of chylomicrons and triglycerides, which decreased if the diet become fat free, decreased concentrations of high- and low-density lipoproteins, which increased if the diet is fat free, and decreased tissues lipoprotein lipase activity

32 / 50

Chylomicron is:

A lipoprotein that contains relatively small amounts of cholesterol and triglycerides and is associated with a decreased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called alpha-lipoprotein

A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein

Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to adipose tissues where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase

A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the liver to the tissues

33 / 50

Which of the following opioid analgesics is a strong mu receptor agonist?

Naloxone

Pentazocine

Buprenorphine

Morphine

34 / 50

Which of the following mediators are found mainly in long descending pathway from the midbrain to the dorsal horn?

Enkephalin

Glutamate

Dynorphin

Prostaglandin E

35 / 50

Kappa and delta agonists:

Inhabit of arachidonate cyclooxygenase in CNS

Inhabit postsynaptic neurons by opening K+ channels

Both a and b

Close a voltage-gated ca2+ channels an presynaptic never terminals

36 / 50

Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) is:

A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the liver to the tissues

A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein

Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to adipose tissue where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase

37 / 50

Which of the following non-narcotic agents is salicylic acid derivative?

Phenylbutazone

Ketamine

Aspirin

Tramadol

38 / 50

Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) is:

A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein

A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the liver to the tissues

Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to adipose tissue where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase

39 / 50

High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is:

Large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to adipose tissue where they are broken down by lipoprotein lipase

A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease. It is also called beta-lipoprotein

A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids to protein and carrying most cholesterol from the liver to the tissues

40 / 50

Which of the following nonopioid agents is an antidepressant with analgesic activity?

Fluoxetine

Amitriptyline

Moclobemide

Tranylcypramine

41 / 50

Which of the following Supraspinal structures is implicated in pain-modulating descending pathways?

The hypothalamus

The limbic cortex

The midbrain periaqueductal gray

The aria postrema

42 / 50

Select the anti-seizure drug with an analgesic component of effect:

Clonazepam

Carbamazepine

Ethosuximide

Phenytoin

43 / 50

Indicate the opioid receptor type, which is responsible for dysphoria and vasomotor stimulation:

All of the above

Mu-receptors

Delta-receptors

Kappa-receptors

44 / 50

Mu (µ) receptors are associated with:

Dysphoria, hallucinations, respiratory and vasomotor stimulation

Spinal analgesia, mydriasis, sedation, physical dependence

Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory depression, physical dependence

Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory stimulation, physical dependence

45 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

46 / 50

Methemoglobinemia is possible adverse effect of:

Aspirin

Ketorolac

Paracetamol

Analgin

47 / 50

Most of non-narcotic analgesics have:

Anti-Inflammatory effect

All of the above

Analgesic effect

Antipyretic effect

48 / 50

Non-narcotic analgesics are all of the following drugs EXCEPT:

Paracetamol

Butorphanol

Acetylsalicylic acid

Ketorolac

49 / 50

Nonnarcotic analgesics are mainly effective against pain associated with:

Inflammation or tissue damage

Trauma

Myocardial infarction

Surgery

50 / 50

Select the brain and spinal cord regions, which are involved in the transmission of pain?

All of the above

The substantia gelatinosa

The limbic system, including the amygdaloidal nucleus and the hypothalamus

The ventral and medial parts of the thalamus

Your score is

The average score is 31%

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Created by

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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

Pregnancy

IDDM

Renal insufficiency

All of the above

2 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Prevents miosis

Inhibits GIT motility

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

3 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Dopamine

All of the above

Epinephrine

Isopropanol

4 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

All of the above

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

5 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Amphetamine

All of the above

Ephedrine

Dopamine

6 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Clofibrate

Salicylates

Ethanol

Prednisolone

7 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Alopecia

Drug fever

Agranulocytosis

Nephritis

8 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To stimulate would healing

All of the above

To cause haemeostasis

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

9 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

Canrenone

Acetylspironolactone

None of the above

Desmethyl spironolactone

10 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Phenytoin

Carbamazepine

Paraldehyde

Diazepam

11 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Stimulating B2 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

Blocking B2 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

12 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Hyoscine

Darifenacin

Cyclopentolate

Pirenzepine

13 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Ecothiopate

Both a and b

Physostigmine

Dispropyl flurophosphate

14 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

Detect the impurity in a given drug

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

15 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Isoprenaline

Atropine

Acetylcholine

Noradrenaline

16 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Inhibiting release from storage sites

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

Competing at receptor sites

All of the above

17 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Edrophonium

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

Pyridostigmine

18 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

None of above

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

19 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Antagonism

Synergism

Addition

Potentiation

20 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Metoclopramide

Scopolamine

Carbamazepine

Atropine

21 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Mydriasis

Reduced sweating

Loss of accommodation

22 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

Atropine

Scopolamines

All of the above

Phenothiazines

23 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinomimetic

Sympathomimetic

Cholinesterase inhibitor

Cholinolytics

24 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M3 antagonist

M2 antagonist

M1 antagonist

M3 agonist

25 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

26 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Hypertension

Dysmenorrhoea

Cerebral thrombosis

Breast Carcinoma

27 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Increased heart rate

Mental aberration

Miosis

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

28 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Physostigmine

Pilocarpine

Bethanechol

Atropine

29 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Barbiturates

Carbamazepine

Rifampicin

Grape juice

30 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

F S H

Prolactin

Vasopressin

31 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Bronchoconstriction

Block accommodation reflex

Constipation

32 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Non-competitive antagonism

Competitive antagonism

Partial agonist

Antagonist

33 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Succinylcholine

Gallamine

Hexamethonium

D-tubocurarine

34 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

None of the above

To check the activity straight muscle

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

35 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Facilitated diffusion

Ion pair transport

Active transport

Passive diffusion

36 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Stimulation of insulin release

Suppression of glucagon secretion

None of above

Suppression of insulin secretion

37 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Ion channel

Steroid receptor

GPCR

Enzyme linked

38 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

α amino acid conjunction

Methylation

Glucuronide conjugation

Sulfate conjunction:

39 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Cerebral cortex

Heart

Exocrine gland

Corpus striatum

40 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Bradycardia

Dry mouth

Hypertension

Tachycardia

41 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

Q and R

P and S

Q and S

R and S

42 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

A stupor or somnolent state

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

43 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

44 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Cerebral heamorrhage

Tremor

Palpitation

Respiratory difficulty

45 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

All of the above

Pancuronium

Tubocurarine

Gallamine

46 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Atropine

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

All of the above

47 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

Pralidoxime

Tubocurarine

48 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Oxytocin

Prolactin

Histamine

Insulin

49 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

None of the above

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

Pralidoxime

50 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Digoxin

Warfarin

Amitriptyline

Alcohol

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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2798

Created on June 01, 2022 By

NotesKarts

Pharmaceutics MCQs for DPEE Exam

1 / 100

Sieves are arranged during the size separation of powder.

A. Ascending order.

B. Descending order.

C. Random order.

D. All the above.

2 / 100

Which of the following ointment is not classified according to its therapeutic use ?

A. Antibiotic ointment

B. Diadermic ointment

C. Antifungal ointment

D. Keratolytic ointment

3 / 100

Douches are meant for application in .....................

A. Buccal cavity

B. Rectal cavity

C. Nasal cavity

D. Vaginal cavity

4 / 100

Plastisizers are added in plastic to provides:

A. Flexibility

B. Mechanical strength

C. Heat stability

D. None of the above

5 / 100

If particle size is 1 micro-meter to 100 micro-meters ........

A. Coarse dispersion

B. Colloidal dispersion

C. Flocculated

D. De-flocculated

6 / 100

Castor oil is used in lipsticks for

A. Building viscosity

B. Giving a shine

C. Preventing bleed

D. Dispersing oxide

7 / 100

Liniments must not be applied on the............skin.

A. Swelled

B. Broken

C. Painful

D. Normal

8 / 100

In aerosol, diptube is usually made of:

A. Polyamides

B. Polypropylene

C. Metal

D. Neoprene

9 / 100

Choose the correct synonyms of the size separation.

A. Sieving

B. Sifting

C. Screening.

D. All of the above.

10 / 100

Suspension contains.................

A. Insoluble solids

B. Oil phase

C. Soluble solids

D. Grease

11 / 100

Choose the correct option.

A. Impact → Roller mill.

B. Cutting → Cutter mill.

C. Compression→ Colloid mill.

D. Attrition → Ball mill.

12 / 100

Buffering agent is also called as....................

A. Sweetening agent

B. Thickening agent

C. pH modifiers

D. Wetting agent

13 / 100

....................... drops are used in otic cavity.

A. Eye

B. Ear

C. Nasal

D. None of these

14 / 100

Triple roller mill is used in the preparation of..................

A. Ointment

B. Paste

C. Cream

D. All

15 / 100

The monophasic liquid dosage form is................ solutions.

A. True

B. Course

C. Fine

D. Micro

16 / 100

Which dosage form is prepared from rice paper, which is made by pouring a mixture of rice flour and water

A. Cachets

B. Snuffs

C. Insufflations

D. Both A and B

17 / 100

Which of the following is not a vehicle......

A. Glycerol

B. Butylated hydroxyl toluene

C. Water

D. Rose water

18 / 100

In artificial syrup which ingredients is used.

A. Glucose

B. Sucrose

C. Fructose

D. Saccharine

19 / 100

Hydrolytic resistance test is performed on glass to check:

A. Mechanical strength

B. Liberation of alkali

C. Meteried value

D. Dip tube

20 / 100

Which one of these is an example of ayurvedic drug?

A. Arks

B. Bhasmas

C. Asavas

D. All of these

21 / 100

Dusting powder should be pass through

A. Sieve number 120

B. Sieve number 22

C. Sieve number 80

D. Sieve number 44

22 / 100

The syrup is.................... in nature.

A. Aqueous

B. Non aqueous

C. Gas

D. Solid

23 / 100

Which of the following is a two phase gel system ?

A. Milk of Magnesia

B. HPMC gel

C. CMC gel

D. Carbomer gel

24 / 100

Choose the correct synonyms of the size reduction.

A. Pulverizing

B. Grinding

C. Comminution

D. All of the above

25 / 100

Critical speed of the ball mill is the speed at which-

A. Ball cascade over one another.

B. Balls begin to centrifuge with mill.

C. Ball starts tumbling.

D. Not define.

26 / 100

Which of the following formulations would not be applicable to ocular administration?

A. Solution

B. Liniment

C. Suspension

D. Ointment

27 / 100

Which of the following substance is used as an inactivating agent for "Sulfonamides".

A. PABA (Para Amino Benzoic Acid)

B. Acetyl Transferase

C. Penicillinase

D. Penicillamine

28 / 100

Brownian movement of particle in suspension cause..........................

A. Assist sedimentation

B. Promote sedimentation

C. Prevent sedimentation

D. Increase sedimentation rate

29 / 100

Choose the correct option; Following is not the mechanism of size reduction.

A. Impact and attrition.

B. Cutting

C. Elutriation

D. Brushing

30 / 100

What is the pH of tears?

A. 5.0

B. 6.5

C. 7.0

D. 7.4

31 / 100

Which paper is used for wrapping of powder.

A. Plastic paper

B. Art paper

C. White Glazed Paper

D. Amber colour paper

32 / 100

.............. is used as a throat paint vehicle.

A. Glycerine

B. Water

C. Syrup

D. Solutions

33 / 100

Rectal suppositories intended for adult use usually weight approximately

A. 2g

B. 5g

C. 4g

D. 6g

34 / 100

Pharmaceutical suspension are generally...........

A. Flocculated

B. De-flocculated

C. Both

D. None

35 / 100

Which of the following is not monophasic Liquid dosage form........

A. Solution

B. Gargles

C. Suspension

D. Enemas

36 / 100

Contact lens are usually made from

A. Polymethyl methacrylate

B. Polyvinyl chloride

C. Carboxymethyl cellulose

D. Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose

37 / 100

Dusting powder should be applied with

A. Powder puff

B. Sterilized gauze pad

C. Both A and B

D. Palm

38 / 100

The powder which absorb moisture from the atmosphere are called

A. Hygroscopic powder

B. Deliquescent powder

C. Efflorescent powder

D. All of the Above

39 / 100

......................... are very thick and stiff.

A. Pastes

B. Ointments

C. Jellies

D. Poulties

40 / 100

The another name of wool fat is...............

A. Lanolin

B. Anhydrous lanolin

C. Hydrous wool fat

D. Wool alcohol

41 / 100

Mechanical sieving device is works on the methods.

A. Agitation method.

B. Brushing method.

C. Centrifugal method.

D. All of the above

42 / 100

Which of the following excipient act as preservative...................

A. Sorbitol monolactrate

B. Tyloxopol

C. Benzethenium chloride

D. Thiomersal

43 / 100

For ideal suspension, the sedimentation volume should be......................

A. Zero

B. Equal to one

C. More than one

D. Less than one

44 / 100

Suspending agent imparts ..........................

A. Solubility

B. Viscosity

C. Absorption

D. Wetting

45 / 100

Medical dusting powder used mainly

A. Superficial skin condition

B. During surgery

C. In to body cavities

D. In major wounds

46 / 100

Endodermic ointments are act as____

A. Protectant

B. Antiseptic

C. Stimulant

D. Parasiticides

47 / 100

Choose incorrect option regarding ball mill.

A. Ball rotation is important aspects during reduction.

B. It works only on the principle of impact.

C. Ball mill produce loud noise.

D. Due to wearing contamination cause during operation.

48 / 100

............... is not a type of syrup.

A. Simple syrup

B. Medicated syrup

C. Flavoured syrup

D. Mixed syrup

49 / 100

Which of the following ointment is not classified according to therapeutic use?

A. Antibiotics ointment

B. Diadermic ointment

C. Antifungal Ointment

D. Keratolytic ointment

50 / 100

Following is the same for all crystals of the same materials.

A. Sizes of the faces of crystal

B. Sizes of the edge of the crystals

C. Angles made by the faces of crystals.

D. All of the above.

51 / 100

In aerosol, diptube is usually made for:

A. Propellent

B. Actuator

C. Meteried value

D. Dip tube

52 / 100

Which of the following method is used in preparation of ointment ?

A. Dry gum method

B. Wet gum method

C. Bottle method

D. Fusion method

53 / 100

Suppository bases___________

A. Theobroma oil is example

B. Maintain shape

C. Helps in insertion into the body cavity

D. All of the Above

54 / 100

The bioavailability of flocculated suspension is .........................

A. Relatively high

B. Comparatively less

C. Both A and B

D. None of the above

55 / 100

Ampoule generally contain:

A. Single dose parenteral products

B. Multiple dose parenteral products

C. Two or three dosage

D. None of the above

56 / 100

What is label condition for eye drops?

A. Discard 24 hours after first opening

B. Discard 30 days after first opening

C. Discard one year after first opening

D. Discard 5 years after first opening

57 / 100

An agent used to clean the surface of teeth & decreases the tooth decay, mouth odour is

A. Dental cone

B. Abrasive

C. Dentifrice

D. Dental paste

58 / 100

Cachets are also known as

A. Soft gelatin capsule

B. Hard gelatin capsule

C. Water capsule

D. Both A and B

59 / 100

Inhalation of dusting powder by infants may lead to

A. Pulmonary inflammation

B. Nausea and vomiting

C. Cancer

D. All of the Above

60 / 100

Standard unit volume in metric system is...............

A. Microlitre

B. Milliliter

C. Centiliter

D. Liter

61 / 100

DOP used in validation of HEPA filter is ............................

A. Dioetylpthalate

B. Dioetylpyruvate

C. Dioetanepthalazine

D. Dioetahedraphaladehyde

62 / 100

Paste show which type of flow?

A. Dilatant

B. Plastic

C. Pseudo plastic

D. Shear Thinning

63 / 100

The label shake well before use is indicated on the mixture containing-

A. Soluble medicaments

B. Potent medicament

C. Diffusible medicaments

D. Miscible liquid

64 / 100

Abrasive agents used in dentifrices are

A. Calcium Sulphate

B. Sodium Carbonate

C. Magnesium Carbonate

D. All of the Above

65 / 100

For separating different-different densities material which equipment is mostly used?

A. Cyclone separator.

B. Sieving

C. Elutriation

D. Sedimentation

66 / 100

Which one is finely divided solid dosage forms inhaled to nostrils.

A. Insufflations

B. Medicated dusting powder

C. Snuffs

D. Both A and B

67 / 100

In dilute suspension, the concentration of solid should be......................

A. 2-10%

B. 50%

C. 0.5%

D. 30%

68 / 100

Saccharin is an example of..................

A. Natural sweetening agent

B. Flavouring agent

C. Artificial sweetening agent

D. Humectant

69 / 100

Nasal drops are ...................

A. Isotonic

B. Hypertonic

C. Hypotonic

D. None

70 / 100

1 table spoonful mean...............

A. 4 ml

B. 8ml

C. 15 ml

D. 20

71 / 100

Nasal drops should have pH...............

A. 5-6

B. 6-7

C. 7-8

D. 8-9

72 / 100

Standard unit volume in metric system is...............

A. Microlitre

B. Milliliter

C. Centiliter

D. Liter

73 / 100

The concentration of sucrose in Simple syrup BP.

A. 40.74% w/w

B. 60.70% w/w

C. 66.70% w/w

D. 70.50% w/w

74 / 100

The following ingredient is used as an antioxidant and chelating agent............

A. EDTA

B. Citric Acid

C Ascorbic Acid

Phenyl Mercuric Acetate

75 / 100

In mixing of powder which method is used when poten substance are mixed with a large amount of diluents.

A. Spatulation

B. Geometric dilution

C. Trituration

D. Sifting

76 / 100

Which powder is used into the body cavities as well as umbilical cords of infants.

A. Medicated dusting powder

B. Fine powder

C. Surgical dusting powder

D. Both A and B

77 / 100

Choose the correct mill, whose acts on the principle of impact only.

A. Roller mill.

B. Hammer mill.

C. Ball mill.

D. Both b and c.

78 / 100

Water soluble bases are also known as_____

A. Lanolin

B. Wool fat

C. Grease less ointment base

D. Greasy ointment base

79 / 100

In ball mill occupy how much area for suitable size reduction.

A. 60-80%.

B. 80-90%.

C. 30-50%.

D. 20-25%.

80 / 100

Which of the following is not an indication for use of pessary

A. As a therapeutic test

B. When future childbearing is intended in near future

C. Refusal for operation by patient

D. Non healing decubitus ulcer

81 / 100

As per sedimentation theory, if particle size of suspended particle decrease so sedimentation rate decrease...

(So what would be effect on absorption of drug when taken orally????)

A. Absorption increase

B. Absorption decrease

C. No effect

D. Both A & B

82 / 100

In suspension, if particle size of suspended particle decrease so............

A. Surface free energy decrease

B. Surface area decrease

C. Surface free energy increase

D. System becomes thermodynamically stable

83 / 100

Coarse powder is also known as-

A. 44/85.

B. 22/60.

C. 10/44.

D. None of these.

84 / 100

A per I.P. temperature range for incubation in sterility testing is.

A. 20-25°C

B. 25-30°C

C. 30-35°C

D. 25-40°C

85 / 100

For any suitable sieve how much sieving area is required (in percentage)?

A. 20-25.

B. 35-40.

C. 65-80.

D. 15-25.

86 / 100

Water for injection differs from sterile distilled water as it is free from ..........................

A. Antioxidant

B. Preservatives

C. Pyrogens

D. Carbon Dioxide

87 / 100

In which container dusting powder are dispensed

A. Sifter top container

B. Plastic container

C. Stainless steel container

D. Glas container

88 / 100

Elixirs are..............

A. Hydro alcoholic liquid

B. Aqueous

C. Viscous

D. Semi solids

89 / 100

Endodermic Ointments are act as______________

A. Protectant

B. Antiseptic

C. Stimulant

D Parasiticides

90 / 100

Which of the following is not a semisolid dosage form?

A. Paste

B. Cream

C. Ointments

D. Suspension

91 / 100

Rate of sedimentation is high in ?

A. Flocculated

B. De-flocculated

C. Both

D. None

92 / 100

.............. is widely used to convert carbomer solution into gel/

A. Citric Acid

B. Sodium Bicarbonate

C. Triethanolamine

D. All of the Above

93 / 100

How much glass of 10% w/w ammonia solution can be made from 1800mg of 28% w/w strong ammonia solution?

A. 5020 gm

B. 5040 gm

C. 5080 gm

D. 5kg

94 / 100

Simple syrup is a saturated solution of.............

A. Sucrose

B. Fructose

C. Dextrose

D. None of these

95 / 100

Transfusion bottles are made of:

A. Neutral glass

B. Molded glass

C. Soda glass

D. Sulphured glass

96 / 100

Some powders absorb moisture to such a great extent that they go in to solution are known as-

A. Efflorescent powder

B. Medicated powder

C. Hygroscopic powder

D. Deliquescent powder

97 / 100

Fluoride content in paste is.....................

A. NMT 1 PPM

B. NMT 10 PPM

C. NMT 100 PPM

D. NMT 1000 PPM

98 / 100

A powder of which all the particle pass through the 85 number of sieve.

A. Very fine powder.

B. Fine powder.

C. Coarse powder.

D. Moderately coarse powder.

99 / 100

The word posos means.................

A. How many

B. How much

C. How about

D. Amount

100 / 100

Following ratio is used for the preparation of emulsion...............

A. Fixed oil : Water : Gum (4:2:1)

B. Volatile Oil : Water : Gum (2:2:1)

C. Mineral Oil : Water : Gum (3:2:1)

D. All of the above

Your score is

The average score is 35%

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321

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NotesKarts

Pharmacognosy Class Test | Pharmacognosy DPEE Test

1 / 50

In protoplast culture protoplasm is isolated by using

Cellulase

Macerozyme

Both

None

2 / 50

In which Ayurvedic formulation preservative is not required?

Lepa

Vatika

Asava

Pisti

3 / 50

Closed collateral vascular bundles are the characteristics of

Dicotyledonous plant

Monocotyledonous plant

Weeds

None of the above

4 / 50

Manoalide, a marine drug, is

Antifungal

Muscle relaxant

Anti-inflammatory

Antipyretic

5 / 50

Stellate trichomes are present in

Humulus

Pyrethrum

Hammaelis

Calendula officinalis

6 / 50

Candelabra trichomes are present in

Verbascum thapsus

Digitalis purpurea

Senna angustifolia

Helicteris isora

7 / 50

Chlorophytum borivilianum is used as

Anti-fertility

Antipyretic

Aphrodisiac

Expectorant

8 / 50

Adaptogen are substances which

Improve physical endurance

Maintain stamina in adverse and difficult environment

Increase the tolerance to change in environment

All of the above

9 / 50

The germination capacity of seeds is tested by

Rolled towel test

Germination index

Locast test

Testa swelling test

10 / 50

According to Ayurveda PITA (bile) is responsible for:

Transmitting sense impression to the mind

Providing the static energy for holding body tissues together

All digestive and metabolic activities

Lubrication of various points of friction

11 / 50

Keris test is used for

Caffeine

Aloes

Presence of deoxy sugar

Rancidity of fats and oils

12 / 50

Iodine value for oils and fats is measured as

Iodine present in oils

Extent of unsaturation

Extent of saturation

None of the above

13 / 50

Biosynthesis of alizarin follows the

Shikkimic acid pathway

Mevalonic acid pathway

Both A and B

Acetate pathway

14 / 50

Monophybrids describes

One pair of different characters

Two pairs of different characters

More than two pairs of different characters

None of the above

15 / 50

Which of the following is not a micronutrient?

Molybdenum

Copper

Zinc

Hydrogen

16 / 50

Which drug has a cytotoxic activity?

Anthropleurins

Laminine

Ara-C

Saxitoxin

17 / 50

Chrysanthemum is mainly used as

Pesticide

Insecticide

Rodenticide

Larvicide

18 / 50

Open collateral vascular bundles are the characteristics of

Dicotyledonous plant

Monocotyledonous plant

Weeds

None of the above

19 / 50

In plant tissue culture surface sterilization of explant is done by

Sodium hypochloride

Bromine water

Hydrogen peroxide

All of the above

20 / 50

Halphen's test is used for

Detection of cotton seed oil as an adulterant

Detection of artificial invert sugar

Saponins

Tannins

21 / 50

Which of the following is not a micronutrient?

Molybdenum

Copper

Zinc

Hydrogen

22 / 50

Aril is present in

Nutmeg

Cardamom

Strophanthus

Castor

23 / 50

Palisade ratio is

Total number of palisade cells beneath each upper epidermal cell

Total number of palisade cells beneath mesophyll

Average number of palisade cells beneath each upper epidermal cells

None of the above

24 / 50

Which marine drug has a cardiovascular activity?

Spongosine

Anthropleurins

Saxitoxin

A and B

25 / 50

Antileukemic compound bryostatin is isolated from marine organism

Bugula neritina

Tethya crypta

Lissoclinum patella

Trididemnum species

26 / 50

Silk consists of:

Keratin

Fibroin

Resins

None of the above

27 / 50

The biological source of cotton fiber is

Cyamopsis tetragonolobus

Gossypium barbadense

Arachis hypogaea

Saraca indica

28 / 50

Aril is

Outgrowth from micropyle and covering the seed

Stiff-bristle like appendages with wavy flowering glume of grasses

Warty out growth from micropyle

Succulent growth from hilum covering entire seed

29 / 50

The callus is

Differentiated cell mass

Biomass

Isolated roots

Undifferentiated cell mass

30 / 50

For the formation of shoot which ratio of plant growth regulators is required ?

Auxin:cytokinin (1:4)

Auxin:cytokinin (4:1)

Auxin:cytokinin (100:1)

Auxin:cytokinin (1:100)

31 / 50

1 IU of vitamin A represents

0.0344 μg of standard preparation

0.344 μg of standard preparation

0.443 mg of standard preparation

0.77g of standard preparation

32 / 50

Centroxylic stands for

Phloem in the centre surrounded by xylem

Xylem in the centre surrounded by phloem

Phloem in the centre surrounded by cambium

Xylem in the centre surrounded by cambium

33 / 50

The number of milligram of KOH required to combine with fatty acids which are present in glyceride from in 1 gram of sample of oil or fat is called

Difference between saponification value and acid value

Ester value

Acid value

Both (A) and (B)

34 / 50

Centroxylic vascular bundle is present in

Malefern

Sweat flag

Maize

Sunflower

35 / 50

Corm is present in

Saffron

Colchicum

Nux-vomica

A and B

36 / 50

Which is not one of the parameter of quantitative chemical tests of fixed oils and fat?

Viscosity

Reichert-Meissel value

Peroxide value

Hydroxyl value

37 / 50

All are true about leaflets, except

Bud or branch is absent in leaflets

Leaflets are arranged in pairs

Leaflets are asymmetric at the bases

Examples include rose, neem, digitise and senna etc.

38 / 50

Relation between ester value saponification value and acid value is

Ester Value = Saponification value - Acid value

Ester Value = Saponification value + Acid value

Acid value = Ester value - Saponification value

B and C

39 / 50

Which one is not an intermediate in shikimik acid pathway?

Erythrose 4 phosphate

Chrosmic acid

Shikimik acid

Prephenic acid

40 / 50

All are plant growth promoters except

Abscisic acid

Auxin

Gibberellin

Cytokinin

41 / 50

Gibberelin obtained from fungus is

Gibberellin fujikuroi

Fusarium heterospermum

Aspergillus niger

A and B

42 / 50

Which one is essential vitamin in culture media?

Thiamine

Ascorbic acid

Pantothenic acid

Biotin

43 / 50

Natural cytokinin is

Kinetin

Zeatin

Adenine

None

44 / 50

Marine fungus is the source for

Penicillin

Cephalosporin

Zonarol

Avarol

45 / 50

Iodine number of fat is determined to know:

Free fatty acid

Average molecular size

Relative unsaturation

All of the above

46 / 50

Chemodemes refer to

Chemical race

Taxonomic race

Physical race

None of the above

47 / 50

Which one is also known as extra-nuclear?

Golgi complex

Plastid

Argon

Mitochondria

48 / 50

For vitamin A,

1IU is, contains 76 mg of standard preparation

1IU is contained 0.025 μg of standard preparation

1IU is present in 0.344μg of standard preparation

1 IU is present in 7.7 μg of standard preparation

49 / 50

Which of the following causes fruit ripening?

Auxin

Cytokinin

Gibberellins

Ethylene

50 / 50

Caruncle is present in

Nutmeg

Cardamom

Strophanthus

Castor

Your score is

The average score is 27%

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