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Pharmacotherapeutics Quiz

  • Pharmacotherapeutics MCQs, multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from Pharmacotherapeutics MCQs Quiz, Pharmacist Exam MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
  • This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam. 
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Pharmacotherapeutics MCQs

1 / 25

A patient who has had a stroke is prescribed a medication to dissolve blood clots. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

2 / 25

Which of the following is considered a first-line therapy for hypertension?

3 / 25

A patient with COPD is prescribed a medication to help clear mucus from the lungs. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

4 / 25

A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a medication to increase insulin production. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

5 / 25

A patient with Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed a medication to reduce stomach acid. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

6 / 25

A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a medication to lower blood sugar levels. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

7 / 25

A patient with asthma is prescribed a medication to reduce inflammation in the airways. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

8 / 25

A patient with hyperlipidemia is prescribed a medication to lower cholesterol levels. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

9 / 25

A patient with Alcoholic liver disease is prescribed a medication to reduce inflammation and fibrosis in the liver. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

10 / 25

A patient with sickle cell anemia is prescribed a medication to prevent sickle cell crises. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

11 / 25

A patient with asthma is prescribed a medication to open up constricted airways. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

12 / 25

A patient with COPD is prescribed a medication to reduce inflammation in the airways. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

13 / 25

A patient with epilepsy is prescribed a medication to prevent seizures. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

14 / 25

A patient with Parkinson's disease is prescribed a medication to increase dopamine levels in the brain. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

15 / 25

A patient with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed a medication to prevent future heart attacks. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

16 / 25

A patient with angina is prescribed a medication that improves blood flow to the heart. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

17 / 25

A patient with anemia is prescribed a medication to increase red blood cell production. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

18 / 25

A patient with hypothyroidism is prescribed a medication to replace the thyroid hormone. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

19 / 25

A patient with congestive heart failure is prescribed a medication to improve blood flow and reduce the workload on the heart. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

20 / 25

A patient with Peptic Ulcer Disease is prescribed a medication to inhibit acid and pepsin secretion. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

21 / 25

A patient with hyperthyroidism is prescribed a medication to block the effects of thyroid hormone. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

22 / 25

A patient with migraines is prescribed a medication to prevent headaches. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

23 / 25

A patient with Alzheimer's disease is prescribed a medication to improve memory and cognitive function. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

24 / 25

A patient with COPD is prescribed a medication to help with breathing. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

25 / 25

A patient with hyperthyroidism is prescribed a medication to reduce thyroid hormone production. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

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Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

DDS stands for......

2 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

3 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

4 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

5 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

6 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C30H62 . 

7 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

8 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

9 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

10 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

11 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

12 / 50

Antiseptic are

13 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

14 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

15 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

16 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

17 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

18 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

19 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

20 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

21 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

22 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

23 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

24 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

25 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

26 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

27 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

28 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

29 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

30 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

31 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

32 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

33 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

34 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

35 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

36 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

37 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

38 / 50

Excystation is _______

39 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

40 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

41 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

42 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

43 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

44 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

45 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

46 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

47 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

48 / 50

Functional group present in INH

49 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

50 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

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The average score is 22%

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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

2 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

3 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

4 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

5 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

6 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

7 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

8 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

9 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

10 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

11 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

12 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

13 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

14 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

15 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

16 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

17 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

18 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

19 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

20 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

21 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

22 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

23 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

24 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

25 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

26 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

27 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

28 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

29 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

30 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

31 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

32 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

33 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

34 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

35 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

36 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

37 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

38 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

39 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

40 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

41 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

42 / 50

Darifenacin is a

43 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

44 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

45 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

46 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

47 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

48 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

49 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

50 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

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The average score is 30%

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1683

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

2 / 25

2. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

3 / 25

3. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

4 / 25

4. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

5 / 25

5. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

6 / 25

6. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

7 / 25

7. Spurious drug comes under

8 / 25

8. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

9 / 25

9. Insulin comes under

10 / 25

10. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

11 / 25

11. Appendix II is about

12 / 25

12. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

13 / 25

13. Schedule M, states that

14 / 25

14. Pharmacy Act is established in

15 / 25

15. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

16 / 25

16. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

17 / 25

17. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

18 / 25

18. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

19 / 25

19. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

20 / 25

20. "Schedule F3" is related with

21 / 25

21. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

22 / 25

22. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

23 / 25

23. Form 20 states that

24 / 25

24. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

25 / 25

25. Crocin is sale under

Your score is

The average score is 39%

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351

1 / 50

1. The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

2 / 50

2. Schedule N states

3 / 50

3. Schedule C is related to

4 / 50

4. Patent Act is established in

5 / 50

5. As per D and C act schedule T stated about

6 / 50

6. Hatch Waxman Act is related to

7 / 50

7. Pack size of drug is covered under

8 / 50

8. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

9 / 50

9. TGA is regulatory agency of………….

10 / 50

10. Dettol comes under

11 / 50

11. Coca, opium and hemp come under:

12 / 50

12. As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

13 / 50

13. Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

14 / 50

14. One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

15 / 50

15. As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

16 / 50

16. Example of Schedule G drug is

17 / 50

17. For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

18 / 50

18. In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

19 / 50

19. As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

20 / 50

20. List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

21 / 50

21. Schedule J is related to

22 / 50

22. List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

23 / 50

23. In 1954 one of the following act is passed

24 / 50

24. Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

25 / 50

25. List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

26 / 50

26. Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

27 / 50

27. For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

28 / 50

28. Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

29 / 50

29. Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

30 / 50

30. Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

31 / 50

31. MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

32 / 50

32. If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

33 / 50

33. Injection syringe and needles are covered under

34 / 50

34. Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

35 / 50

35. Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

36 / 50

36. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

37 / 50

37. The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

38 / 50

38. MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

39 / 50

39. Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

40 / 50

40. Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

41 / 50

41. The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

42 / 50

42. Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

43 / 50

43. DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

44 / 50

44. Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

45 / 50

45. In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

46 / 50

46. For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

47 / 50

47. Aspirin sodium comes under

48 / 50

48. If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

49 / 50

49. Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

50 / 50

50. Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

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The average score is 37%

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