Pharmacotherapeutics Quiz

  • Pharmacotherapeutics MCQs, multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from Pharmacotherapeutics MCQs Quiz, Pharmacist Exam MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
  • This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam. 
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Pharmacotherapeutics MCQs

1 / 25

A patient with Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed a medication to reduce stomach acid. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

2 / 25

A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a medication to lower blood sugar levels. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

3 / 25

A patient with angina is prescribed a medication that improves blood flow to the heart. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

4 / 25

A patient with COPD is prescribed a medication to reduce inflammation in the airways. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

5 / 25

A patient with hyperlipidemia is prescribed a medication to lower cholesterol levels. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

6 / 25

A patient with asthma is prescribed a medication to reduce inflammation in the airways. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

7 / 25

A patient with congestive heart failure is prescribed a medication to improve blood flow and reduce the workload on the heart. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

8 / 25

A patient with migraines is prescribed a medication to prevent headaches. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

9 / 25

A patient with Peptic Ulcer Disease is prescribed a medication to inhibit acid and pepsin secretion. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

10 / 25

A patient with COPD is prescribed a medication to help clear mucus from the lungs. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

11 / 25

A patient who has had a stroke is prescribed a medication to dissolve blood clots. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

12 / 25

A patient with hyperthyroidism is prescribed a medication to block the effects of thyroid hormone. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

13 / 25

A patient with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed a medication to prevent future heart attacks. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

14 / 25

A patient with COPD is prescribed a medication to help with breathing. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

15 / 25

A patient with anemia is prescribed a medication to increase red blood cell production. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

16 / 25

A patient with Alcoholic liver disease is prescribed a medication to reduce inflammation and fibrosis in the liver. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

17 / 25

A patient with Parkinson's disease is prescribed a medication to increase dopamine levels in the brain. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

18 / 25

A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a medication to increase insulin production. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

19 / 25

A patient with hyperthyroidism is prescribed a medication to reduce thyroid hormone production. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

20 / 25

A patient with Alzheimer's disease is prescribed a medication to improve memory and cognitive function. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

21 / 25

Which of the following is considered a first-line therapy for hypertension?

22 / 25

A patient with asthma is prescribed a medication to open up constricted airways. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

23 / 25

A patient with epilepsy is prescribed a medication to prevent seizures. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

24 / 25

A patient with hypothyroidism is prescribed a medication to replace the thyroid hormone. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

25 / 25

A patient with sickle cell anemia is prescribed a medication to prevent sickle cell crises. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

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Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

2 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

3 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

4 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

5 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

6 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

7 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

8 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

9 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

10 / 50

Excystation is _______

11 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

12 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

13 / 50

DDS stands for......

14 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

15 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

16 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

17 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

18 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C30H62 . 

19 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

20 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

21 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

22 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

23 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

24 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

25 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

26 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

27 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

28 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

29 / 50

Antiseptic are

30 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

31 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

32 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

33 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

34 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

35 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

36 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

37 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

38 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

39 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

40 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

41 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

42 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

43 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

44 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

45 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

46 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

47 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

48 / 50

Functional group present in INH

49 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

50 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

Your score is

The average score is 23%

0%

2673
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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

2 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

3 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

4 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

5 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

6 / 50

Darifenacin is a

7 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

8 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

9 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

10 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

11 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

12 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

13 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

14 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

15 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

16 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

17 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

18 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

19 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

20 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

21 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

22 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

23 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

24 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

25 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

26 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

27 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

28 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

29 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

30 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

31 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

32 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

33 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

34 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

35 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

36 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

37 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

38 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

39 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

40 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

41 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

42 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

43 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

44 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

45 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

46 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

47 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

48 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

49 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

50 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Your score is

The average score is 30%

0%

1754

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

2 / 25

2. Schedule M, states that

3 / 25

3. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

4 / 25

4. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

5 / 25

5. Form 20 states that

6 / 25

6. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

7 / 25

7. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

8 / 25

8. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

9 / 25

9. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

10 / 25

10. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

11 / 25

11. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

12 / 25

12. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

13 / 25

13. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

14 / 25

14. Insulin comes under

15 / 25

15. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

16 / 25

16. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

17 / 25

17. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

18 / 25

18. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

19 / 25

19. Appendix II is about

20 / 25

20. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

21 / 25

21. Spurious drug comes under

22 / 25

22. Pharmacy Act is established in

23 / 25

23. "Schedule F3" is related with

24 / 25

24. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

25 / 25

25. Crocin is sale under

Your score is

The average score is 39%

0%

358

1 / 50

1. DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

2 / 50

2. Schedule C is related to

3 / 50

3. List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

4 / 50

4. List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

5 / 50

5. Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

6 / 50

6. As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

7 / 50

7. Example of Schedule G drug is

8 / 50

8. Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

9 / 50

9. Pack size of drug is covered under

10 / 50

10. Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

11 / 50

11. Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

12 / 50

12. In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

13 / 50

13. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

14 / 50

14. Dettol comes under

15 / 50

15. The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

16 / 50

16. Hatch Waxman Act is related to

17 / 50

17. Schedule N states

18 / 50

18. Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

19 / 50

19. As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

20 / 50

20. Schedule J is related to

21 / 50

21. Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

22 / 50

22. The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

23 / 50

23. Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

24 / 50

24. Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

25 / 50

25. MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

26 / 50

26. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

27 / 50

27. As per D and C act schedule T stated about

28 / 50

28. MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

29 / 50

29. Patent Act is established in

30 / 50

30. Injection syringe and needles are covered under

31 / 50

31. For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

32 / 50

32. In 1954 one of the following act is passed

33 / 50

33. Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

34 / 50

34. Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

35 / 50

35. TGA is regulatory agency of………….

36 / 50

36. The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

37 / 50

37. Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

38 / 50

38. List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

39 / 50

39. As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

40 / 50

40. Aspirin sodium comes under

41 / 50

41. Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

42 / 50

42. For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

43 / 50

43. One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

44 / 50

44. Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

45 / 50

45. Coca, opium and hemp come under:

46 / 50

46. For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

47 / 50

47. Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

48 / 50

48. If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

49 / 50

49. If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

50 / 50

50. In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

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The average score is 37%

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