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Pharmacotherapeutics Quiz

  • Pharmacotherapeutics MCQs, multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from Pharmacotherapeutics MCQs Quiz, Pharmacist Exam MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
  • This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam. 
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Pharmacotherapeutics MCQs

1 / 25

A patient with Peptic Ulcer Disease is prescribed a medication to inhibit acid and pepsin secretion. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

2 / 25

A patient who has had a stroke is prescribed a medication to dissolve blood clots. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

3 / 25

A patient with anemia is prescribed a medication to increase red blood cell production. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

4 / 25

Which of the following is considered a first-line therapy for hypertension?

5 / 25

A patient with hyperthyroidism is prescribed a medication to block the effects of thyroid hormone. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

6 / 25

A patient with hypothyroidism is prescribed a medication to replace the thyroid hormone. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

7 / 25

A patient with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed a medication to prevent future heart attacks. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

8 / 25

A patient with COPD is prescribed a medication to reduce inflammation in the airways. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

9 / 25

A patient with asthma is prescribed a medication to reduce inflammation in the airways. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

10 / 25

A patient with Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed a medication to reduce stomach acid. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

11 / 25

A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a medication to increase insulin production. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

12 / 25

A patient with congestive heart failure is prescribed a medication to improve blood flow and reduce the workload on the heart. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

13 / 25

A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a medication to lower blood sugar levels. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

14 / 25

A patient with hyperthyroidism is prescribed a medication to reduce thyroid hormone production. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

15 / 25

A patient with migraines is prescribed a medication to prevent headaches. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

16 / 25

A patient with hyperlipidemia is prescribed a medication to lower cholesterol levels. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

17 / 25

A patient with COPD is prescribed a medication to help clear mucus from the lungs. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

18 / 25

A patient with Alcoholic liver disease is prescribed a medication to reduce inflammation and fibrosis in the liver. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

19 / 25

A patient with epilepsy is prescribed a medication to prevent seizures. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

20 / 25

A patient with sickle cell anemia is prescribed a medication to prevent sickle cell crises. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

21 / 25

A patient with Alzheimer's disease is prescribed a medication to improve memory and cognitive function. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

22 / 25

A patient with Parkinson's disease is prescribed a medication to increase dopamine levels in the brain. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

23 / 25

A patient with angina is prescribed a medication that improves blood flow to the heart. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

24 / 25

A patient with COPD is prescribed a medication to help with breathing. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

25 / 25

A patient with asthma is prescribed a medication to open up constricted airways. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

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Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

2 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

3 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

4 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

5 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

6 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

7 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

8 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

9 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

10 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

11 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

12 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

13 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

14 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

15 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

16 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

17 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

18 / 50

Functional group present in INH

19 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

20 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

21 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

22 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

23 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

24 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

25 / 50

Antiseptic are

26 / 50

DDS stands for......

27 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

28 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

29 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

30 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

31 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

32 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

33 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

34 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

35 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

36 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

37 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

38 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

39 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

40 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C30H62 . 

41 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

42 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

43 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

44 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

45 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

46 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

47 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

48 / 50

Excystation is _______

49 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

50 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

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The average score is 23%

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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

2 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

3 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

4 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

5 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

6 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

7 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

8 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

9 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

10 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

11 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

12 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

13 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

14 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

15 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

16 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

17 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

18 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

19 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

20 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

21 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

22 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

23 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

24 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

25 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

26 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

27 / 50

Darifenacin is a

28 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

29 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

30 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

31 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

32 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

33 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

34 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

35 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

36 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

37 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

38 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

39 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

40 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

41 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

42 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

43 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

44 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

45 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

46 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

47 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

48 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

49 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

50 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

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The average score is 30%

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1760

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. Insulin comes under

2 / 25

2. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

3 / 25

3. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

4 / 25

4. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

5 / 25

5. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

6 / 25

6. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

7 / 25

7. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

8 / 25

8. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

9 / 25

9. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

10 / 25

10. "Schedule F3" is related with

11 / 25

11. Schedule M, states that

12 / 25

12. Form 20 states that

13 / 25

13. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

14 / 25

14. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

15 / 25

15. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

16 / 25

16. Pharmacy Act is established in

17 / 25

17. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

18 / 25

18. Spurious drug comes under

19 / 25

19. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

20 / 25

20. Appendix II is about

21 / 25

21. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

22 / 25

22. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

23 / 25

23. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

24 / 25

24. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

25 / 25

25. Crocin is sale under

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The average score is 39%

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358

1 / 50

1. Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

2 / 50

2. Injection syringe and needles are covered under

3 / 50

3. In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

4 / 50

4. Aspirin sodium comes under

5 / 50

5. DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

6 / 50

6. As per D and C act schedule T stated about

7 / 50

7. Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

8 / 50

8. The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

9 / 50

9. Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

10 / 50

10. Schedule C is related to

11 / 50

11. Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

12 / 50

12. As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

13 / 50

13. List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

14 / 50

14. MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

15 / 50

15. Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

16 / 50

16. Dettol comes under

17 / 50

17. For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

18 / 50

18. Schedule N states

19 / 50

19. List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

20 / 50

20. MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

21 / 50

21. Example of Schedule G drug is

22 / 50

22. In 1954 one of the following act is passed

23 / 50

23. For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

24 / 50

24. If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

25 / 50

25. The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

26 / 50

26. As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

27 / 50

27. Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

28 / 50

28. Patent Act is established in

29 / 50

29. Pack size of drug is covered under

30 / 50

30. Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

31 / 50

31. Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

32 / 50

32. Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

33 / 50

33. Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

34 / 50

34. Coca, opium and hemp come under:

35 / 50

35. TGA is regulatory agency of………….

36 / 50

36. In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

37 / 50

37. The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

38 / 50

38. Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

39 / 50

39. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

40 / 50

40. One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

41 / 50

41. Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

42 / 50

42. Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

43 / 50

43. For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

44 / 50

44. List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

45 / 50

45. As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

46 / 50

46. Hatch Waxman Act is related to

47 / 50

47. Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

48 / 50

48. Schedule J is related to

49 / 50

49. If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

50 / 50

50. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

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The average score is 37%

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