Pharmacotherapeutics Quiz

  • Pharmacotherapeutics MCQs, multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from Pharmacotherapeutics MCQs Quiz, Pharmacist Exam MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
  • This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam. 
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Pharmacotherapeutics MCQs

1 / 25

A patient with Peptic Ulcer Disease is prescribed a medication to inhibit acid and pepsin secretion. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

2 / 25

A patient with hyperthyroidism is prescribed a medication to block the effects of thyroid hormone. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

3 / 25

A patient with asthma is prescribed a medication to reduce inflammation in the airways. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

4 / 25

A patient with anemia is prescribed a medication to increase red blood cell production. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

5 / 25

A patient with hyperlipidemia is prescribed a medication to lower cholesterol levels. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

6 / 25

A patient with hypothyroidism is prescribed a medication to replace the thyroid hormone. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

7 / 25

A patient with angina is prescribed a medication that improves blood flow to the heart. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

8 / 25

A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a medication to increase insulin production. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

9 / 25

A patient who has had a stroke is prescribed a medication to dissolve blood clots. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

10 / 25

A patient with COPD is prescribed a medication to help with breathing. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

11 / 25

A patient with hyperthyroidism is prescribed a medication to reduce thyroid hormone production. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

12 / 25

A patient with Alcoholic liver disease is prescribed a medication to reduce inflammation and fibrosis in the liver. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

13 / 25

Which of the following is considered a first-line therapy for hypertension?

14 / 25

A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a medication to lower blood sugar levels. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

15 / 25

A patient with COPD is prescribed a medication to help clear mucus from the lungs. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

16 / 25

A patient with COPD is prescribed a medication to reduce inflammation in the airways. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

17 / 25

A patient with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed a medication to prevent future heart attacks. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

18 / 25

A patient with Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed a medication to reduce stomach acid. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

19 / 25

A patient with epilepsy is prescribed a medication to prevent seizures. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

20 / 25

A patient with Parkinson's disease is prescribed a medication to increase dopamine levels in the brain. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

21 / 25

A patient with Alzheimer's disease is prescribed a medication to improve memory and cognitive function. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

22 / 25

A patient with migraines is prescribed a medication to prevent headaches. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

23 / 25

A patient with asthma is prescribed a medication to open up constricted airways. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

24 / 25

A patient with sickle cell anemia is prescribed a medication to prevent sickle cell crises. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

25 / 25

A patient with congestive heart failure is prescribed a medication to improve blood flow and reduce the workload on the heart. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

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Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

2 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

3 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

4 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

5 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

6 / 50

Excystation is _______

7 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

8 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

9 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

10 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

11 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

12 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

13 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

14 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

15 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

16 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

17 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

18 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

19 / 50

Antiseptic are

20 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

21 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

22 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

23 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C30H62 . 

24 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

25 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

26 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

27 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

28 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

29 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

30 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

31 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

32 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

33 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

34 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

35 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

36 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

37 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

38 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

39 / 50

Functional group present in INH

40 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

41 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

42 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

43 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

44 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

45 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

46 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

47 / 50

DDS stands for......

48 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

49 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

50 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

Your score is

The average score is 22%

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2425
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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

2 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

3 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

4 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

5 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

6 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

7 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

8 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

9 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

10 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

11 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

12 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

13 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

14 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

15 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

16 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

17 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

18 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

19 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

20 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

21 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

22 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

23 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

24 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

25 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

26 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

27 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

28 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

29 / 50

Darifenacin is a

30 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

31 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

32 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

33 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

34 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

35 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

36 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

37 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

38 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

39 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

40 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

41 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

42 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

43 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

44 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

45 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

46 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

47 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

48 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

49 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

50 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Your score is

The average score is 30%

0%

1624

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

2 / 25

2. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

3 / 25

3. Crocin is sale under

4 / 25

4. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

5 / 25

5. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

6 / 25

6. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

7 / 25

7. Spurious drug comes under

8 / 25

8. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

9 / 25

9. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

10 / 25

10. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

11 / 25

11. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

12 / 25

12. Appendix II is about

13 / 25

13. Insulin comes under

14 / 25

14. Pharmacy Act is established in

15 / 25

15. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

16 / 25

16. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

17 / 25

17. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

18 / 25

18. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

19 / 25

19. Form 20 states that

20 / 25

20. Schedule M, states that

21 / 25

21. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

22 / 25

22. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

23 / 25

23. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

24 / 25

24. "Schedule F3" is related with

25 / 25

25. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

Your score is

The average score is 39%

0%

346

1 / 50

1. One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

2 / 50

2. List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

3 / 50

3. MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

4 / 50

4. The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

5 / 50

5. Aspirin sodium comes under

6 / 50

6. Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

7 / 50

7. The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

8 / 50

8. Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

9 / 50

9. Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

10 / 50

10. Example of Schedule G drug is

11 / 50

11. For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

12 / 50

12. For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

13 / 50

13. Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

14 / 50

14. As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

15 / 50

15. Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

16 / 50

16. Injection syringe and needles are covered under

17 / 50

17. Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

18 / 50

18. Schedule J is related to

19 / 50

19. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

20 / 50

20. As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

21 / 50

21. Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

22 / 50

22. For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

23 / 50

23. The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

24 / 50

24. Schedule N states

25 / 50

25. Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

26 / 50

26. If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

27 / 50

27. As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

28 / 50

28. Pack size of drug is covered under

29 / 50

29. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

30 / 50

30. TGA is regulatory agency of………….

31 / 50

31. Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

32 / 50

32. Hatch Waxman Act is related to

33 / 50

33. List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

34 / 50

34. Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

35 / 50

35. Coca, opium and hemp come under:

36 / 50

36. Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

37 / 50

37. If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

38 / 50

38. Schedule C is related to

39 / 50

39. Dettol comes under

40 / 50

40. In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

41 / 50

41. In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

42 / 50

42. In 1954 one of the following act is passed

43 / 50

43. MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

44 / 50

44. Patent Act is established in

45 / 50

45. DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

46 / 50

46. List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

47 / 50

47. Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

48 / 50

48. Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

49 / 50

49. As per D and C act schedule T stated about

50 / 50

50. Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

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The average score is 37%

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