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Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz 2023-24

Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz

Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz, Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Test, Pharmacist Exam MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam.

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Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz

1 / 25

What is the impact of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP) on patient safety?

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

No impact

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Increases the risk of medication errors

2 / 25

What is the role of pharmacists in drug distribution for in-patients?

To ensure that the correct drugs are administered to the correct patients at the correct time

To provide information about drugs

To provide information about the hospital formulary

To have no role in the process

3 / 25

What is the role of the hospital formulary in drug distribution?

To ensure that the correct drugs are used

To provide information about drugs

To provide information about the hospital's drug policies

To have no role in the process

4 / 25

What is the primary objective of supply chain management in hospital pharmacy?

To increase the sale of drugs

To maintain an adequate supply of drugs

To reduce the cost of drugs

To increase the cost of drugs

5 / 25

How does the role of hospital pharmacists vary between developed and developing countries?

The role is more significant in developed countries

There is no variation

It depends on the specific country and healthcare system

The role is more significant in developing countries

6 / 25

Which country has the highest number of hospital pharmacies?

United States

Germany

India

China

7 / 25

How does a hospital pharmacist interact with other healthcare professionals?

As a competitor

As an adversary

As a team member

Independently

8 / 25

In what setting does a hospital pharmacist work?

Hospital

Manufacturing facility

Retail pharmacy

Community pharmacy

9 / 25

What is the impact of effective supply chain management on patient safety?

Increases the cost of healthcare

No impact

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

10 / 25

What is the main challenge faced by hospital pharmacies in developing countries?

Lack of funding for healthcare

All of the above

Limited access to new drugs

Lack of qualified pharmacists

11 / 25

What is the impact of incorrect drug distribution on patient safety?

No impact

Increases the cost of healthcare

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

12 / 25

What is the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic on hospital pharmacies globally?

Increased demand for over-the-counter drugs

Increased demand for drugs

No impact

Decreased demand for drugs

13 / 25

How does Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP) improve the quality of care in hospitals?

By promoting the safe and effective use of medications

By reducing the number of drugs dispensed

By reducing the number of pharmacists in hospitals

By increasing the cost of healthcare

14 / 25

What is the purpose of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

To provide information to healthcare professionals

To increase the sale of drugs

To reduce healthcare costs

To ensure safe and effective use of medications

15 / 25

What is the role of inventory control in supply chain management?

To increase the cost of drugs

To increase the sale of drugs

To maintain an adequate supply of drugs

To reduce the cost of drugs

16 / 25

What is the main role of a hospital pharmacist?

Conducting research

Dispensing medications

Providing pharmaceutical care to patients

Selling over-the-counter drugs

17 / 25

What is the role of pharmacists in supply chain management?

To provide information about the hospital formulary

To provide information about drugs

To have no role in the process

To monitor drug supplies and ensure an adequate supply

18 / 25

What is one of the key objectives of hospital pharmacy?

To ensure safe and effective use of medications

To increase the sale of drugs

To provide information to healthcare professionals

To reduce healthcare costs

19 / 25

What is one of the key components of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

Drug dispensing

Drug advertising

Drug manufacturing

Drug labeling

20 / 25

How do international regulatory agencies, such as the World Health Organization (WHO), influence hospital pharmacy practices?

They only regulate the production of drugs

They only regulate the sale of drugs

They set global standards for drug use and safety

They have no influence

21 / 25

What is the impact of poor supply chain management on patient care?

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Increases the risk of drug shortages

No impact

Increases the cost of healthcare

22 / 25

What is the role of pharmacists in drug distribution for out-patients?

To provide information about the hospital formulary

To provide information about drugs

To ensure that the correct drugs are dispensed to the correct patients

To have no role in the process

23 / 25

Who sets the standards for Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

Retail pharmacies

Hospital pharmacies

Regulatory agencies

Drug manufacturers

24 / 25

What is the primary difference between drug distribution for in-patients and out-patients?

The frequency of drug administration

The location of the patients

The type of drugs used

The dose of the drugs

25 / 25

What is the importance of hospital pharmacists in the healthcare system?

They play a crucial role in ensuring safe and effective patient care

They are only responsible for dispensing drugs

They only participate in research studies

They are not important

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The average score is 51%

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Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz

1 / 25

What is the significance of regularly reviewing and updating Patient Information Leaflets (PILs)?

All of the above

To ensure that the information provided is accurate and up-to-date

To reduce the risk of medication errors

To comply with regulatory requirements

2 / 25

What is the significance of non-verbal communication (body language) in patient-pharmacist interactions?

To convey empathy and understanding

To improve patient satisfaction

All of the above

To enhance patient trust and rapport

3 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in the management of chronic conditions?

All of the above

Making medication adjustments

Monitoring patient progress

Providing patient education

4 / 25

What is medication therapy management (MTM)?

A service provided by a nurse to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a specialist to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a community pharmacist to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a physician to optimize patient outcomes

5 / 25

What is the significance of addressing non-adherence to medication regimens?

All of the above

To improve patient outcomes

To reduce healthcare costs

To reduce the risk of adverse effects

6 / 25

What is the significance of regular training and education for staff in minimizing dispensing errors?

To reduce the risk of human error

To comply with regulatory requirements

All of the above

To enhance staff knowledge and skills

7 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in checking for potential drug interactions or allergies?

To monitor medication efficacy

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

All of the above

To improve patient outcomes

8 / 25

What is the significance of providing immunization services in a community pharmacy setting?

To improve patient outcomes

To increase access to immunization services

To increase patient convenience

All of the above

9 / 25

What are the key responsibilities of a community pharmacist in managing a pharmacy?

Providing patient counseling and education

All of the above

Ensuring compliance with regulations and laws

Maintaining inventory and ordering supplies

10 / 25

What is the purpose of conducting a medication review in a community pharmacy setting?

All of the above

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

To increase medication adherence

To monitor medication efficacy

11 / 25

What is the role of technology in community pharmacy management?

Improving patient safety

All of the above

Streamlining processes and increasing efficiency

Enhancing communication with healthcare providers

12 / 25

What is the most common type of dispensing error

Medication administration errors

Medication dosing errors

Medication substitution errors

Medication labeling errors

13 / 25

The process of quickly obtaining an out-of-stock medication in an urgent situation is called _________.

Final fllter

Emergency drug procurement

Bulk compounding log

Code cart

14 / 25

What is the significance of regular review and updating of SOPs in a pharmacy setting?

All of the above

To incorporate new technologies and best practices

To maintain the effectiveness of SOPs

To keep up with changes in regulations and laws

15 / 25

A record of medications compounded in the pharmacy is called _________.

Compounding log

Bulk compounding log

Yule time log

16 / 25

What is the most common type of community pharmacy?

Compounding pharmacy

Hospital pharmacy

Mail order pharmacy

Retail pharmacy

17 / 25

What is the main goal of community pharmacy management?

All of the above

To provide cost-effective care

To increase profits

To improve patient outcomes

18 / 25

What is a dispensing error?

An error in the administration of a medication

An error in the storage or handling of a medication

An error in the prescription or order for a medication

An error in the preparation or labeling of a medication

19 / 25

What is the area designed for the preparation of sterile products called?

Out-patient pharmacy

Clean room

In-patient pharmacy

Formulary

20 / 25

Good Pharmacy Practice and SOPs.

A set of guidelines for the safe and effective use of medications

All of the above

A set of guidelines for the management and operation of a pharmacy

A set of guidelines for the conduct of pharmacists and pharmacy staff

21 / 25

What is the significance of using appropriate tone and pace when communicating with a patient over the telephone?

To reduce the risk of misinterpretation

To increase patient satisfaction

To improve patient understanding

All of the above

22 / 25

Voluntary or involuntary removal of a drug product by the manufacturer, usually pertaining to a particular shipment or lot number is called _______.

Recall

IVPB

Code cart

23 / 25

What is medication adherence?

All of the above

The willingness of a patient to take medication

The act of taking medication as prescribed

The ability of a patient to follow a medication regimen

24 / 25

What is the primary role of a community pharmacist?

Conducting patient assessments

Providing health and wellness advice

All of the above

Dispensing medications

25 / 25

What is a prescription?

A written order for a specialist consultation

A written order for a diagnostic test or procedure

A written order for medication from a physician or other authorized prescriber

A written order for physical therapy

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The average score is 40%

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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Agranulocytosis

Drug fever

Nephritis

Alopecia

2 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Physostigmine

Both a and b

Ecothiopate

3 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Passive diffusion

Active transport

Ion pair transport

Facilitated diffusion

4 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Inhibits GIT motility

Prevents miosis

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

5 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

6 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

Detect the impurity in a given drug

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

7 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Pilocarpine

Bethanechol

Atropine

Physostigmine

8 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

Prolactin

Vasopressin

F S H

9 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Acetylcholine

Noradrenaline

Isoprenaline

Atropine

10 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

None of the above

To check the activity straight muscle

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

11 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Corpus striatum

Exocrine gland

Heart

Cerebral cortex

12 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

None of above

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

13 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Blocking B2 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

Stimulating B2 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

14 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Paraldehyde

Carbamazepine

Phenytoin

Diazepam

15 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

None of the above

Canrenone

Acetylspironolactone

Desmethyl spironolactone

16 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Sulfate conjunction:

α amino acid conjunction

Methylation

Glucuronide conjugation

17 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Dopamine

Epinephrine

Isopropanol

All of the above

18 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Palpitation

Cerebral heamorrhage

Respiratory difficulty

Tremor

19 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

All of the above

Renal insufficiency

Pregnancy

IDDM

20 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinesterase inhibitor

Cholinomimetic

Cholinolytics

Sympathomimetic

21 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

All of the above

Competing at receptor sites

Inhibiting release from storage sites

22 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

None of the above

Neostigmine

Pralidoxime

Physostigmine

23 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Miosis

Mental aberration

Increased heart rate

24 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Rifampicin

Carbamazepine

Barbiturates

Grape juice

25 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Hypertension

Tachycardia

Dry mouth

Bradycardia

26 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

27 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

R and S

Q and S

Q and R

P and S

28 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Atropine

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

All of the above

29 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Tubocurarine

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

Pralidoxime

30 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Cerebral thrombosis

Hypertension

Breast Carcinoma

Dysmenorrhoea

31 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

All of the above

To stimulate would healing

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

To cause haemeostasis

32 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M3 agonist

M1 antagonist

M2 antagonist

M3 antagonist

33 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Hyoscine

Darifenacin

Pirenzepine

Cyclopentolate

34 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Block accommodation reflex

Bronchoconstriction

Constipation

35 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

Pyridostigmine

Edrophonium

36 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Prednisolone

Ethanol

Salicylates

Clofibrate

37 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Suppression of glucagon secretion

None of above

Suppression of insulin secretion

Stimulation of insulin release

38 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Reduced sweating

Mydriasis

Loss of accommodation

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

39 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Tubocurarine

All of the above

Pancuronium

Gallamine

40 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Hexamethonium

Succinylcholine

Gallamine

D-tubocurarine

41 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

All of the above

42 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Potentiation

Addition

Synergism

Antagonism

43 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Metoclopramide

Atropine

Scopolamine

Carbamazepine

44 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

All of the above

Ephedrine

Dopamine

Amphetamine

45 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Amitriptyline

Alcohol

Warfarin

Digoxin

46 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Prolactin

Oxytocin

Insulin

Histamine

47 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

48 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Enzyme linked

Steroid receptor

GPCR

Ion channel

49 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

Phenothiazines

Atropine

All of the above

Scopolamines

50 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Partial agonist

Non-competitive antagonism

Competitive antagonism

Antagonist

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Antigen

b. Toxins

c. Capsule

d. Sera

2 / 25

Insulin comes under

a. Schedule J

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule H

3 / 25

Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 20

b. Form 21

c. Form 24D

d. Form 25E

4 / 25

How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Six

b. Three

c. Four

d. Five

5 / 25

Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1940

b. 1919

c. 1948

d. 1995

6 / 25

Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

7 / 25

"Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule M

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule R

d. Schedule C

8 / 25

Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

b. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

c. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

d. In cold place

9 / 25

Appendix II is about

a. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

b. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

c. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

d. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

10 / 25

Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

b. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

c. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

d. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

11 / 25

"Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

b. Standard for surgical dressing

c. Standard for production of sera

d. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

12 / 25

Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 17

b. Section 3B

c. Section 17B

d. Section 17A

13 / 25

In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. Election of Registered Pharmacists

b. President

c. State Government of Delhi

d. Central Government

14 / 25

If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Adulterated drug

b. Misbranded drug

c. Drug

d. Spurious drug

15 / 25

Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule B

b. Schedule D

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule F

16 / 25

Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 2

b. 4

c. 1

d. 3

17 / 25

Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule H

d. Schedule W

18 / 25

Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

b. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

c. To prescribe drug

d. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

19 / 25

Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule W

b. Schedule U

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule X

20 / 25

One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 32

b. Form 24

c. Form 20

d. Form 36

21 / 25

Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule S

b. Schedule E

c. Schedule R

d. Schedule O

22 / 25

Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule U

b. Schedule U1

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule V

23 / 25

Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Four years

b. Five years

c. Three years

d. Six years

24 / 25

Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form 32

b. Form 30

c. Form36

d. Form 31

25 / 25

In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 3

b. 5

c. 1

d. 2

Your score is

The average score is 40%

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1 / 50

Hatch Waxman Act is related to

a. Banned drugs

b. Dangerous drugs Act

c. Spurious drugs Act

d. Over the counter drugs

2 / 50

Dettol comes under

a. Schedule Q

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule N

3 / 50

Schedule J is related to

a. GMP

b. List of disease and ailments which drug cannot claim.

c. Curable disease

d. Pack sizes of drugs.

4 / 50

List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule Q

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule O

5 / 50

Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

a. Phase V

b. Phase II

c. Phase I

d. Phase III

6 / 50

In 1954 one of the following act is passed

a. The Medical Termination of pregnancy Act

b. Drug and magic Remedies Act

c. Narcotic and psychotropic substance Act

d. Poisonous Act.

7 / 50

For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

a. 21

b. 20

c. 21B

d. 20B

8 / 50

DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

a. Four

b. Six

c. Five

d. Eight

9 / 50

The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

a. 1950

b. 1940

c. 1985

d. 1955

10 / 50

As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

a. Ophthalmic preparation

b. Ointment formulation

c. Skin cosmetic preparation

d. Parenteral preparation

11 / 50

Example of Schedule G drug is

a. Enalapril

b. Metformin

c. Cefuroxime

d. Barbital

12 / 50

Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

a. Form 24

b. Form 27

c. Form 25

d. Form 26

13 / 50

As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

a. List of maximum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

b. List of minimum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

c. Area required to open wholesale drug store

d. Area for opening retail pharmacy

14 / 50

MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

a. Brazil

b. UK

c. Denmark

d. South Africa

15 / 50

Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

a. Long time adverse effects aster marketing drug

b. Determine Possible therapeutic uses, Effective doses range

c. To determine maximum tolerated dose in humans, Pharmacodynamics effects, Adverse effect.

d. Efficacy and Safety of drug in longer number of patients (500 patients)

16 / 50

Coca, opium and hemp come under:

a. Insecticide Act

b. Dangerous Drug Act

c. Poisons Act

d. Spurious Drug Act

17 / 50

If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

a. True Drug

b. Adulterated Drug

c. Misbranded Drug

d. Spurious Drug

18 / 50

Injection syringe and needles are covered under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule A

c. Schedule Q

d. Schedule B

19 / 50

Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

a. Toilet preparations

b. Ayurvedic drugs

c. Schedule ‘C’ ‘G’ drugs

d. Misbranded drugs

20 / 50

Patent Act is established in

a. 1970

b. 1940

c. 1948

d. 1919

21 / 50

If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

a. Red

b. White

c. Yellow

d. Blue

22 / 50

Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

b. In cold place

c. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

d. At the Temperature 2°C to 8°C and it must not allow to freeze

23 / 50

Aspirin sodium comes under

a. Schedule J

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule Y

24 / 50

Schedule N states

a. Standard for cosmetics

b. List of minimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy

c. Requirement of factory premises and hygienic condition to complied

d. List of minimum equipment required for manufacturing of drug.

25 / 50

Schedule C is related to

a. List of Homeopathy product

b. List of Ayurvedic product

c. List of Allopathic product

d. List of Biological and Immunological product

26 / 50

List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

a. G

b. K

c. X

d. H

27 / 50

The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

a. Schedule F

b. Schedule M

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule Y

28 / 50

One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

a. Chief pharmacist of government hospital

b. Assistant drug controller

c. All

d. Chief administrative medical officer of the state

29 / 50

List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule J

d. Schedule I

30 / 50

Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

a. Every 6 year

b. Every 2 year

c. Every 5 year

d. Every 3 year

31 / 50

In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

a. 10-12 patients

b. 1-10 patients

c. 500 patients

d. 100 patients

32 / 50

Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

a. Schedule K

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule L

d. Schedule J

33 / 50

Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

a. FF

b. Q

c. D

d. A

34 / 50

Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

a. 1

b. 3

c. 4

d. 2

35 / 50

Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

a. 1985

b. 1948

c. 1954

d. 1919

36 / 50

TGA is regulatory agency of………….

a. Zimbabwe

b. Denmark

c. India

d. Australia

37 / 50

Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

a. List of prescription drugs

b. Disease or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure

c. List of drug exempted from the provision of import of drugs

d. Requirements of factory premises

38 / 50

Pack size of drug is covered under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule P1

39 / 50

MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

a. Denmark

b. South Africa

c. Brazil

d. UK

40 / 50

Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

a. R

b. R1

c. O

d. S

41 / 50

In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

a. The officer in charge of drugs control organization

b. President of India

c. Chief Administrator medical officer of state

d. Government Analyst

42 / 50

For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

a. Symbol X given in red

b. Symbol H displayed on right top corner of the label.

c. Symbol N displayed on left top corner of the label.

d. Symbol N is red displayed on left top corner of the label

43 / 50

For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

a. 250 square meters

b. 150 square meters

c. 500 square meters

d. 400 square meters

44 / 50

As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

a. A cool place

b. Temperature not exceeding 5°C

c. Well closed container, protect from light, in cool place, protect from light

d. A Cold place

45 / 50

Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

a. A

b. X

c. C and C1

d. B

46 / 50

The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

a. President, Pharmacy Council of India

b. Central Government

c. Drug Controller

d. Ministry of Education

47 / 50

Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

a. List of incurable diseases

b. None of the above

c. Guidelines for clinical Trials

d. List of generic drugs

48 / 50

Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

a. Y

b. W

c. X

d. V

49 / 50

As per D and C act schedule T stated about

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Medical device

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Allopathy drugs

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Homeopathy drugs

50 / 50

State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

a. Nine

b. Seven

c. Six

d. Five

Your score is

The average score is 38%

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