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Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz 2023-24

Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz

Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz, Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Test, Pharmacist Exam MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam.

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Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz

1 / 25

What is the importance of hospital pharmacists in the healthcare system?

They only participate in research studies

They play a crucial role in ensuring safe and effective patient care

They are only responsible for dispensing drugs

They are not important

2 / 25

In what setting does a hospital pharmacist work?

Retail pharmacy

Manufacturing facility

Community pharmacy

Hospital

3 / 25

What is the main role of a hospital pharmacist?

Selling over-the-counter drugs

Conducting research

Dispensing medications

Providing pharmaceutical care to patients

4 / 25

Who sets the standards for Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

Retail pharmacies

Hospital pharmacies

Regulatory agencies

Drug manufacturers

5 / 25

How does the role of hospital pharmacists vary between developed and developing countries?

The role is more significant in developed countries

It depends on the specific country and healthcare system

The role is more significant in developing countries

There is no variation

6 / 25

What is the role of pharmacists in drug distribution for out-patients?

To provide information about drugs

To have no role in the process

To ensure that the correct drugs are dispensed to the correct patients

To provide information about the hospital formulary

7 / 25

What is one of the key objectives of hospital pharmacy?

To ensure safe and effective use of medications

To reduce healthcare costs

To increase the sale of drugs

To provide information to healthcare professionals

8 / 25

Which country has the highest number of hospital pharmacies?

Germany

India

United States

China

9 / 25

What is one of the key components of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

Drug manufacturing

Drug advertising

Drug labeling

Drug dispensing

10 / 25

How does a hospital pharmacist interact with other healthcare professionals?

As a team member

As an adversary

As a competitor

Independently

11 / 25

What is the main challenge faced by hospital pharmacies in developing countries?

Lack of qualified pharmacists

All of the above

Limited access to new drugs

Lack of funding for healthcare

12 / 25

What is the impact of effective supply chain management on patient safety?

Increases the cost of healthcare

No impact

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

13 / 25

What is the purpose of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

To increase the sale of drugs

To provide information to healthcare professionals

To ensure safe and effective use of medications

To reduce healthcare costs

14 / 25

How does Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP) improve the quality of care in hospitals?

By promoting the safe and effective use of medications

By increasing the cost of healthcare

By reducing the number of pharmacists in hospitals

By reducing the number of drugs dispensed

15 / 25

What is the primary objective of supply chain management in hospital pharmacy?

To increase the sale of drugs

To increase the cost of drugs

To reduce the cost of drugs

To maintain an adequate supply of drugs

16 / 25

What is the impact of incorrect drug distribution on patient safety?

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Increases the cost of healthcare

No impact

17 / 25

What is the role of pharmacists in drug distribution for in-patients?

To ensure that the correct drugs are administered to the correct patients at the correct time

To provide information about the hospital formulary

To provide information about drugs

To have no role in the process

18 / 25

How do international regulatory agencies, such as the World Health Organization (WHO), influence hospital pharmacy practices?

They set global standards for drug use and safety

They have no influence

They only regulate the sale of drugs

They only regulate the production of drugs

19 / 25

What is the role of pharmacists in supply chain management?

To provide information about the hospital formulary

To have no role in the process

To provide information about drugs

To monitor drug supplies and ensure an adequate supply

20 / 25

What is the role of inventory control in supply chain management?

To increase the cost of drugs

To increase the sale of drugs

To reduce the cost of drugs

To maintain an adequate supply of drugs

21 / 25

What is the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic on hospital pharmacies globally?

Increased demand for over-the-counter drugs

Decreased demand for drugs

Increased demand for drugs

No impact

22 / 25

What is the role of the hospital formulary in drug distribution?

To have no role in the process

To provide information about the hospital's drug policies

To provide information about drugs

To ensure that the correct drugs are used

23 / 25

What is the impact of poor supply chain management on patient care?

Increases the risk of drug shortages

No impact

Increases the cost of healthcare

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

24 / 25

What is the primary difference between drug distribution for in-patients and out-patients?

The type of drugs used

The frequency of drug administration

The location of the patients

The dose of the drugs

25 / 25

What is the impact of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP) on patient safety?

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

No impact

Increases the risk of medication errors

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The average score is 51%

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Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz

1 / 25

What is a dispensing error?

An error in the administration of a medication

An error in the storage or handling of a medication

An error in the prescription or order for a medication

An error in the preparation or labeling of a medication

2 / 25

What is medication therapy management (MTM)?

A service provided by a nurse to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a specialist to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a physician to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a community pharmacist to optimize patient outcomes

3 / 25

What are the key responsibilities of a community pharmacist in managing a pharmacy?

All of the above

Ensuring compliance with regulations and laws

Providing patient counseling and education

Maintaining inventory and ordering supplies

4 / 25

What is the purpose of conducting a medication review in a community pharmacy setting?

All of the above

To increase medication adherence

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

To monitor medication efficacy

5 / 25

What is the significance of using appropriate tone and pace when communicating with a patient over the telephone?

To improve patient understanding

All of the above

To increase patient satisfaction

To reduce the risk of misinterpretation

6 / 25

What is the significance of non-verbal communication (body language) in patient-pharmacist interactions?

To improve patient satisfaction

To enhance patient trust and rapport

To convey empathy and understanding

All of the above

7 / 25

What is the significance of providing immunization services in a community pharmacy setting?

To increase patient convenience

All of the above

To increase access to immunization services

To improve patient outcomes

8 / 25

What is the significance of regularly reviewing and updating Patient Information Leaflets (PILs)?

All of the above

To comply with regulatory requirements

To ensure that the information provided is accurate and up-to-date

To reduce the risk of medication errors

9 / 25

Good Pharmacy Practice and SOPs.

A set of guidelines for the management and operation of a pharmacy

A set of guidelines for the safe and effective use of medications

A set of guidelines for the conduct of pharmacists and pharmacy staff

All of the above

10 / 25

What is the most common type of community pharmacy?

Hospital pharmacy

Retail pharmacy

Compounding pharmacy

Mail order pharmacy

11 / 25

What is the significance of addressing non-adherence to medication regimens?

To reduce the risk of adverse effects

To improve patient outcomes

All of the above

To reduce healthcare costs

12 / 25

What is the main goal of community pharmacy management?

All of the above

To increase profits

To improve patient outcomes

To provide cost-effective care

13 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in checking for potential drug interactions or allergies?

To monitor medication efficacy

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

To improve patient outcomes

All of the above

14 / 25

What is the primary role of a community pharmacist?

All of the above

Conducting patient assessments

Providing health and wellness advice

Dispensing medications

15 / 25

What is the most common type of dispensing error

Medication administration errors

Medication substitution errors

Medication labeling errors

Medication dosing errors

16 / 25

A record of medications compounded in the pharmacy is called _________.

Yule time log

Compounding log

Bulk compounding log

17 / 25

What is the significance of regular training and education for staff in minimizing dispensing errors?

To enhance staff knowledge and skills

All of the above

To comply with regulatory requirements

To reduce the risk of human error

18 / 25

What is the significance of regular review and updating of SOPs in a pharmacy setting?

All of the above

To incorporate new technologies and best practices

To keep up with changes in regulations and laws

To maintain the effectiveness of SOPs

19 / 25

What is the role of technology in community pharmacy management?

Enhancing communication with healthcare providers

Improving patient safety

Streamlining processes and increasing efficiency

All of the above

20 / 25

What is medication adherence?

The ability of a patient to follow a medication regimen

All of the above

The willingness of a patient to take medication

The act of taking medication as prescribed

21 / 25

What is the area designed for the preparation of sterile products called?

Formulary

Out-patient pharmacy

In-patient pharmacy

Clean room

22 / 25

The process of quickly obtaining an out-of-stock medication in an urgent situation is called _________.

Emergency drug procurement

Bulk compounding log

Code cart

Final fllter

23 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in the management of chronic conditions?

Monitoring patient progress

All of the above

Making medication adjustments

Providing patient education

24 / 25

What is a prescription?

A written order for medication from a physician or other authorized prescriber

A written order for a specialist consultation

A written order for physical therapy

A written order for a diagnostic test or procedure

25 / 25

Voluntary or involuntary removal of a drug product by the manufacturer, usually pertaining to a particular shipment or lot number is called _______.

Code cart

Recall

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The average score is 40%

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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

R and S

Q and R

P and S

Q and S

2 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Pancuronium

Gallamine

All of the above

Tubocurarine

3 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Inhibiting release from storage sites

Competing at receptor sites

All of the above

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

4 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Bronchoconstriction

Block accommodation reflex

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Constipation

5 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Inhibits GIT motility

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

Prevents miosis

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

6 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Facilitated diffusion

Ion pair transport

Passive diffusion

Active transport

7 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Non-competitive antagonism

Partial agonist

Antagonist

Competitive antagonism

8 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

To cause haemeostasis

All of the above

To stimulate would healing

9 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

All of the above

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

10 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

To check the activity straight muscle

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

None of the above

11 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Sulfate conjunction:

Methylation

Glucuronide conjugation

α amino acid conjunction

12 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

Pralidoxime

Physostigmine

None of the above

Neostigmine

13 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

Detect the impurity in a given drug

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

14 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Ephedrine

All of the above

Dopamine

Amphetamine

15 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Barbiturates

Rifampicin

Carbamazepine

Grape juice

16 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Enzyme linked

Steroid receptor

Ion channel

GPCR

17 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Drug fever

Agranulocytosis

Nephritis

Alopecia

18 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Metoclopramide

Carbamazepine

Atropine

Scopolamine

19 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

Pregnancy

All of the above

IDDM

Renal insufficiency

20 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

21 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinesterase inhibitor

Cholinolytics

Cholinomimetic

Sympathomimetic

22 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

23 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Acetylcholine

Noradrenaline

Atropine

Isoprenaline

24 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Miosis

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Mental aberration

Increased heart rate

25 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Cyclopentolate

Darifenacin

Pirenzepine

Hyoscine

26 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Alcohol

Warfarin

Digoxin

Amitriptyline

27 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Reduced sweating

Mydriasis

Loss of accommodation

28 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Insulin

Prolactin

Histamine

Oxytocin

29 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

Scopolamines

Phenothiazines

Atropine

All of the above

30 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Palpitation

Tremor

Respiratory difficulty

Cerebral heamorrhage

31 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

Desmethyl spironolactone

None of the above

Acetylspironolactone

Canrenone

32 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Corpus striatum

Exocrine gland

Heart

Cerebral cortex

33 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M3 antagonist

M2 antagonist

M1 antagonist

M3 agonist

34 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Antagonism

Synergism

Addition

Potentiation

35 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Salicylates

Clofibrate

Ethanol

Prednisolone

36 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Cerebral thrombosis

Dysmenorrhoea

Hypertension

Breast Carcinoma

37 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

None of above

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

38 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Hexamethonium

Succinylcholine

Gallamine

D-tubocurarine

39 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

All of the above

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

Atropine

40 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Atropine

Bethanechol

Pilocarpine

Physostigmine

41 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Epinephrine

All of the above

Dopamine

Isopropanol

42 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Tachycardia

Bradycardia

Hypertension

Dry mouth

43 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Diazepam

Paraldehyde

Carbamazepine

Phenytoin

44 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Stimulating B2 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

Blocking B2 receptor

45 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

46 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

F S H

Vasopressin

Prolactin

47 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Physostigmine

Tubocurarine

Neostigmine

Pralidoxime

48 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

None of above

Suppression of insulin secretion

Suppression of glucagon secretion

Stimulation of insulin release

49 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Neostigmine

Pyridostigmine

Edrophonium

Physostigmine

50 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Both a and b

Ecothiopate

Physostigmine

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule W

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule H

d. Schedule Y

2 / 25

Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1919

b. 1940

c. 1995

d. 1948

3 / 25

One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 20

b. Form 24

c. Form 32

d. Form 36

4 / 25

Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 17A

b. Section 17B

c. Section 17

d. Section 3B

5 / 25

Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule V

b. Schedule U1

c. Schedule U

d. Schedule Y

6 / 25

In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 2

b. 3

c. 5

d. 1

7 / 25

Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 25E

b. Form 20

c. Form 21

d. Form 24D

8 / 25

If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Drug

b. Adulterated drug

c. Misbranded drug

d. Spurious drug

9 / 25

Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

10 / 25

"Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

b. Standard for surgical dressing

c. Standard for production of sera

d. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

11 / 25

Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

b. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

c. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

d. In cold place

12 / 25

Insulin comes under

a. Schedule J

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule O

13 / 25

Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule S

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule E

14 / 25

Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Six years

b. Four years

c. Three years

d. Five years

15 / 25

How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Five

b. Three

c. Four

d. Six

16 / 25

"Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule M

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule C

d. Schedule P

17 / 25

Appendix II is about

a. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

b. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

c. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

d. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

18 / 25

Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 3

b. 2

c. 4

d. 1

19 / 25

Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form 32

b. Form 30

c. Form 31

d. Form36

20 / 25

Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule U

c. Schedule W

d. Schedule X

21 / 25

Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Sera

b. Toxins

c. Capsule

d. Antigen

22 / 25

Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

b. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

c. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

d. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

23 / 25

Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To prescribe drug

b. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

c. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

d. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

24 / 25

In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. Central Government

b. State Government of Delhi

c. Election of Registered Pharmacists

d. President

25 / 25

Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule D

b. Schedule B

c. Schedule F

d. Schedule G

Your score is

The average score is 40%

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1 / 50

Patent Act is established in

a. 1948

b. 1970

c. 1919

d. 1940

2 / 50

Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule K

c. Schedule J

d. Schedule L

3 / 50

Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

a. Every 2 year

b. Every 6 year

c. Every 3 year

d. Every 5 year

4 / 50

MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

a. South Africa

b. Brazil

c. Denmark

d. UK

5 / 50

As per D and C act schedule T stated about

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Allopathy drugs

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Medical device

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Homeopathy drugs

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs

6 / 50

Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

a. Form 24

b. Form 26

c. Form 25

d. Form 27

7 / 50

List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

a. Schedule Q

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule R

d. Schedule O

8 / 50

The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

a. Schedule F

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule M

9 / 50

If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

a. Misbranded Drug

b. Spurious Drug

c. True Drug

d. Adulterated Drug

10 / 50

Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

a. None of the above

b. Guidelines for clinical Trials

c. List of generic drugs

d. List of incurable diseases

11 / 50

List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule H

d. Schedule I

12 / 50

As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

a. A cool place

b. A Cold place

c. Temperature not exceeding 5°C

d. Well closed container, protect from light, in cool place, protect from light

13 / 50

One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

a. Assistant drug controller

b. Chief pharmacist of government hospital

c. All

d. Chief administrative medical officer of the state

14 / 50

Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

a. X

b. V

c. W

d. Y

15 / 50

Pack size of drug is covered under

a. Schedule P1

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule O

16 / 50

The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

a. President, Pharmacy Council of India

b. Central Government

c. Ministry of Education

d. Drug Controller

17 / 50

MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

a. South Africa

b. Brazil

c. Denmark

d. UK

18 / 50

Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

a. Misbranded drugs

b. Ayurvedic drugs

c. Schedule ‘C’ ‘G’ drugs

d. Toilet preparations

19 / 50

In 1954 one of the following act is passed

a. The Medical Termination of pregnancy Act

b. Narcotic and psychotropic substance Act

c. Poisonous Act.

d. Drug and magic Remedies Act

20 / 50

For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

a. Symbol X given in red

b. Symbol H displayed on right top corner of the label.

c. Symbol N displayed on left top corner of the label.

d. Symbol N is red displayed on left top corner of the label

21 / 50

The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

a. 1950

b. 1940

c. 1955

d. 1985

22 / 50

Hatch Waxman Act is related to

a. Banned drugs

b. Over the counter drugs

c. Spurious drugs Act

d. Dangerous drugs Act

23 / 50

Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

a. R1

b. S

c. R

d. O

24 / 50

DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

a. Five

b. Four

c. Eight

d. Six

25 / 50

Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

a. List of drug exempted from the provision of import of drugs

b. Disease or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure

c. Requirements of factory premises

d. List of prescription drugs

26 / 50

For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

a. 500 square meters

b. 250 square meters

c. 150 square meters

d. 400 square meters

27 / 50

As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

a. List of minimum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

b. List of maximum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

c. Area required to open wholesale drug store

d. Area for opening retail pharmacy

28 / 50

In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

a. 500 patients

b. 100 patients

c. 10-12 patients

d. 1-10 patients

29 / 50

Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

a. D

b. FF

c. A

d. Q

30 / 50

In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

a. Government Analyst

b. President of India

c. The officer in charge of drugs control organization

d. Chief Administrator medical officer of state

31 / 50

Aspirin sodium comes under

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule J

32 / 50

If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

a. White

b. Red

c. Blue

d. Yellow

33 / 50

State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

a. Nine

b. Six

c. Seven

d. Five

34 / 50

Schedule J is related to

a. GMP

b. Pack sizes of drugs.

c. List of disease and ailments which drug cannot claim.

d. Curable disease

35 / 50

Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

a. X

b. C and C1

c. B

d. A

36 / 50

Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

a. Phase II

b. Phase I

c. Phase III

d. Phase V

37 / 50

Schedule C is related to

a. List of Homeopathy product

b. List of Allopathic product

c. List of Biological and Immunological product

d. List of Ayurvedic product

38 / 50

Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

a. To determine maximum tolerated dose in humans, Pharmacodynamics effects, Adverse effect.

b. Long time adverse effects aster marketing drug

c. Efficacy and Safety of drug in longer number of patients (500 patients)

d. Determine Possible therapeutic uses, Effective doses range

39 / 50

Coca, opium and hemp come under:

a. Spurious Drug Act

b. Poisons Act

c. Insecticide Act

d. Dangerous Drug Act

40 / 50

Injection syringe and needles are covered under

a. Schedule B

b. Schedule A

c. Schedule Q

d. Schedule P

41 / 50

Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

a. 1985

b. 1954

c. 1919

d. 1948

42 / 50

For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

a. 20

b. 20B

c. 21

d. 21B

43 / 50

TGA is regulatory agency of………….

a. India

b. Zimbabwe

c. Australia

d. Denmark

44 / 50

Schedule N states

a. Standard for cosmetics

b. List of minimum equipment required for manufacturing of drug.

c. List of minimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy

d. Requirement of factory premises and hygienic condition to complied

45 / 50

Example of Schedule G drug is

a. Enalapril

b. Barbital

c. Metformin

d. Cefuroxime

46 / 50

As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

a. Parenteral preparation

b. Ophthalmic preparation

c. Skin cosmetic preparation

d. Ointment formulation

47 / 50

Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

b. In cold place

c. At the Temperature 2°C to 8°C and it must not allow to freeze

d. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

48 / 50

Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

a. 4

b. 1

c. 2

d. 3

49 / 50

List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

a. K

b. X

c. H

d. G

50 / 50

Dettol comes under

a. Schedule N

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule Q

d. Schedule O

Your score is

The average score is 38%

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