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Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz 2023-24

Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz

Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz, Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Test, Pharmacist Exam MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam.

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Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz

1 / 25

What is the impact of poor supply chain management on patient care?

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Increases the risk of drug shortages

No impact

Increases the cost of healthcare

2 / 25

How does a hospital pharmacist interact with other healthcare professionals?

As an adversary

Independently

As a competitor

As a team member

3 / 25

What is the primary objective of supply chain management in hospital pharmacy?

To increase the cost of drugs

To reduce the cost of drugs

To increase the sale of drugs

To maintain an adequate supply of drugs

4 / 25

What is the role of pharmacists in drug distribution for in-patients?

To provide information about the hospital formulary

To have no role in the process

To provide information about drugs

To ensure that the correct drugs are administered to the correct patients at the correct time

5 / 25

What is the primary difference between drug distribution for in-patients and out-patients?

The location of the patients

The dose of the drugs

The type of drugs used

The frequency of drug administration

6 / 25

In what setting does a hospital pharmacist work?

Hospital

Manufacturing facility

Community pharmacy

Retail pharmacy

7 / 25

How do international regulatory agencies, such as the World Health Organization (WHO), influence hospital pharmacy practices?

They only regulate the sale of drugs

They set global standards for drug use and safety

They only regulate the production of drugs

They have no influence

8 / 25

What is the purpose of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

To provide information to healthcare professionals

To reduce healthcare costs

To increase the sale of drugs

To ensure safe and effective use of medications

9 / 25

What is the main role of a hospital pharmacist?

Dispensing medications

Providing pharmaceutical care to patients

Conducting research

Selling over-the-counter drugs

10 / 25

What is the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic on hospital pharmacies globally?

Increased demand for over-the-counter drugs

Increased demand for drugs

Decreased demand for drugs

No impact

11 / 25

What is the impact of incorrect drug distribution on patient safety?

Increases the cost of healthcare

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

No impact

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

12 / 25

What is one of the key objectives of hospital pharmacy?

To increase the sale of drugs

To provide information to healthcare professionals

To reduce healthcare costs

To ensure safe and effective use of medications

13 / 25

How does the role of hospital pharmacists vary between developed and developing countries?

It depends on the specific country and healthcare system

The role is more significant in developing countries

There is no variation

The role is more significant in developed countries

14 / 25

What is the importance of hospital pharmacists in the healthcare system?

They only participate in research studies

They are only responsible for dispensing drugs

They play a crucial role in ensuring safe and effective patient care

They are not important

15 / 25

What is the role of pharmacists in supply chain management?

To have no role in the process

To monitor drug supplies and ensure an adequate supply

To provide information about the hospital formulary

To provide information about drugs

16 / 25

What is the main challenge faced by hospital pharmacies in developing countries?

Lack of funding for healthcare

Lack of qualified pharmacists

Limited access to new drugs

All of the above

17 / 25

What is the role of the hospital formulary in drug distribution?

To provide information about the hospital's drug policies

To ensure that the correct drugs are used

To have no role in the process

To provide information about drugs

18 / 25

What is the role of inventory control in supply chain management?

To reduce the cost of drugs

To increase the sale of drugs

To increase the cost of drugs

To maintain an adequate supply of drugs

19 / 25

Which country has the highest number of hospital pharmacies?

Germany

India

China

United States

20 / 25

How does Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP) improve the quality of care in hospitals?

By increasing the cost of healthcare

By promoting the safe and effective use of medications

By reducing the number of drugs dispensed

By reducing the number of pharmacists in hospitals

21 / 25

What is the role of pharmacists in drug distribution for out-patients?

To ensure that the correct drugs are dispensed to the correct patients

To provide information about drugs

To provide information about the hospital formulary

To have no role in the process

22 / 25

What is the impact of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP) on patient safety?

Increases the risk of medication errors

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

No impact

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

23 / 25

What is the impact of effective supply chain management on patient safety?

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Increases the cost of healthcare

No impact

24 / 25

Who sets the standards for Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

Drug manufacturers

Regulatory agencies

Hospital pharmacies

Retail pharmacies

25 / 25

What is one of the key components of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

Drug dispensing

Drug manufacturing

Drug labeling

Drug advertising

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The average score is 51%

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Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz

1 / 25

What is the main goal of community pharmacy management?

All of the above

To improve patient outcomes

To provide cost-effective care

To increase profits

2 / 25

What is the most common type of community pharmacy?

Hospital pharmacy

Retail pharmacy

Mail order pharmacy

Compounding pharmacy

3 / 25

Voluntary or involuntary removal of a drug product by the manufacturer, usually pertaining to a particular shipment or lot number is called _______.

IVPB

Code cart

Recall

4 / 25

What is the most common type of dispensing error

Medication dosing errors

Medication administration errors

Medication labeling errors

Medication substitution errors

5 / 25

A record of medications compounded in the pharmacy is called _________.

Compounding log

Yule time log

Bulk compounding log

6 / 25

What is the significance of addressing non-adherence to medication regimens?

To improve patient outcomes

All of the above

To reduce healthcare costs

To reduce the risk of adverse effects

7 / 25

What is the significance of non-verbal communication (body language) in patient-pharmacist interactions?

To improve patient satisfaction

All of the above

To convey empathy and understanding

To enhance patient trust and rapport

8 / 25

What is medication adherence?

The willingness of a patient to take medication

The ability of a patient to follow a medication regimen

The act of taking medication as prescribed

All of the above

9 / 25

What is the significance of providing immunization services in a community pharmacy setting?

To increase patient convenience

To increase access to immunization services

All of the above

To improve patient outcomes

10 / 25

What is medication therapy management (MTM)?

A service provided by a specialist to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a nurse to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a physician to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a community pharmacist to optimize patient outcomes

11 / 25

What is the area designed for the preparation of sterile products called?

Out-patient pharmacy

Formulary

Clean room

In-patient pharmacy

12 / 25

What is the primary role of a community pharmacist?

Conducting patient assessments

Dispensing medications

Providing health and wellness advice

All of the above

13 / 25

The process of quickly obtaining an out-of-stock medication in an urgent situation is called _________.

Code cart

Final fllter

Emergency drug procurement

Bulk compounding log

14 / 25

What is the role of technology in community pharmacy management?

Streamlining processes and increasing efficiency

Improving patient safety

All of the above

Enhancing communication with healthcare providers

15 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in the management of chronic conditions?

All of the above

Making medication adjustments

Monitoring patient progress

Providing patient education

16 / 25

What is the purpose of conducting a medication review in a community pharmacy setting?

All of the above

To monitor medication efficacy

To increase medication adherence

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

17 / 25

What is a prescription?

A written order for physical therapy

A written order for a specialist consultation

A written order for medication from a physician or other authorized prescriber

A written order for a diagnostic test or procedure

18 / 25

Good Pharmacy Practice and SOPs.

A set of guidelines for the safe and effective use of medications

All of the above

A set of guidelines for the management and operation of a pharmacy

A set of guidelines for the conduct of pharmacists and pharmacy staff

19 / 25

What are the key responsibilities of a community pharmacist in managing a pharmacy?

Ensuring compliance with regulations and laws

Providing patient counseling and education

All of the above

Maintaining inventory and ordering supplies

20 / 25

What is a dispensing error?

An error in the prescription or order for a medication

An error in the administration of a medication

An error in the storage or handling of a medication

An error in the preparation or labeling of a medication

21 / 25

What is the significance of using appropriate tone and pace when communicating with a patient over the telephone?

To reduce the risk of misinterpretation

To increase patient satisfaction

To improve patient understanding

All of the above

22 / 25

What is the significance of regularly reviewing and updating Patient Information Leaflets (PILs)?

To ensure that the information provided is accurate and up-to-date

To reduce the risk of medication errors

All of the above

To comply with regulatory requirements

23 / 25

What is the significance of regular training and education for staff in minimizing dispensing errors?

All of the above

To comply with regulatory requirements

To reduce the risk of human error

To enhance staff knowledge and skills

24 / 25

What is the significance of regular review and updating of SOPs in a pharmacy setting?

To incorporate new technologies and best practices

To keep up with changes in regulations and laws

To maintain the effectiveness of SOPs

All of the above

25 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in checking for potential drug interactions or allergies?

To improve patient outcomes

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

To monitor medication efficacy

All of the above

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The average score is 39%

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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Heart

Cerebral cortex

Corpus striatum

Exocrine gland

2 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Dry mouth

Tachycardia

Bradycardia

Hypertension

3 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M3 agonist

M2 antagonist

M3 antagonist

M1 antagonist

4 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Inhibiting release from storage sites

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

Competing at receptor sites

All of the above

5 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Stimulation of insulin release

None of above

Suppression of glucagon secretion

Suppression of insulin secretion

6 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

To stimulate would healing

All of the above

To cause haemeostasis

7 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Gallamine

Pancuronium

Tubocurarine

All of the above

8 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Oxytocin

Insulin

Prolactin

Histamine

9 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Barbiturates

Carbamazepine

Rifampicin

Grape juice

10 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Neostigmine

Tubocurarine

Pralidoxime

Physostigmine

11 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Isoprenaline

Acetylcholine

Atropine

Noradrenaline

12 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Isopropanol

Dopamine

Epinephrine

All of the above

13 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

Renal insufficiency

All of the above

Pregnancy

IDDM

14 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

None of the above

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

To check the activity straight muscle

15 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Cyclopentolate

Darifenacin

Hyoscine

Pirenzepine

16 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Amphetamine

Ephedrine

Dopamine

All of the above

17 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Methylation

Sulfate conjunction:

α amino acid conjunction

Glucuronide conjugation

18 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Both a and b

Physostigmine

Ecothiopate

19 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Alopecia

Nephritis

Drug fever

Agranulocytosis

20 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

D-tubocurarine

Succinylcholine

Hexamethonium

Gallamine

21 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Atropine

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

All of the above

22 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Bethanechol

Physostigmine

Atropine

Pilocarpine

23 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Partial agonist

Competitive antagonism

Antagonist

Non-competitive antagonism

24 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Metoclopramide

Carbamazepine

Scopolamine

Atropine

25 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

26 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

Vasopressin

Prolactin

F S H

27 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Increased heart rate

Miosis

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Mental aberration

28 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Inhibits GIT motility

Prevents miosis

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

29 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

Detect the impurity in a given drug

30 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Cerebral heamorrhage

Respiratory difficulty

Tremor

Palpitation

31 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

32 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

Atropine

All of the above

Phenothiazines

Scopolamines

33 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Hypertension

Cerebral thrombosis

Breast Carcinoma

Dysmenorrhoea

34 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Stimulating B2 receptor

Blocking B2 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

35 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

P and S

R and S

Q and R

Q and S

36 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

Physostigmine

Pralidoxime

None of the above

Neostigmine

37 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Physostigmine

Edrophonium

Neostigmine

Pyridostigmine

38 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Active transport

Passive diffusion

Facilitated diffusion

Ion pair transport

39 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Amitriptyline

Alcohol

Warfarin

Digoxin

40 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Phenytoin

Carbamazepine

Paraldehyde

Diazepam

41 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Enzyme linked

Steroid receptor

Ion channel

GPCR

42 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Prednisolone

Clofibrate

Ethanol

Salicylates

43 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

44 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

All of the above

45 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Constipation

Bronchoconstriction

Block accommodation reflex

46 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

None of above

47 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Sympathomimetic

Cholinolytics

Cholinomimetic

Cholinesterase inhibitor

48 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Antagonism

Synergism

Potentiation

Addition

49 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Reduced sweating

Loss of accommodation

Mydriasis

50 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

Canrenone

Desmethyl spironolactone

Acetylspironolactone

None of the above

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule M

b. Schedule C

c. Schedule R

d. Schedule P

2 / 25

2. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. Central Government

b. Election of Registered Pharmacists

c. State Government of Delhi

d. President

3 / 25

3. Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 17B

b. Section 17

c. Section 17A

d. Section 3B

4 / 25

4. Appendix II is about

a. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

b. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

c. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

d. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

5 / 25

5. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 3

b. 5

c. 2

d. 1

6 / 25

6. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule S

c. Schedule E

d. Schedule R

7 / 25

7. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule U

b. Schedule X

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule W

8 / 25

8. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule U1

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule U

d. Schedule V

9 / 25

9. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Adulterated drug

b. Drug

c. Spurious drug

d. Misbranded drug

10 / 25

10. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

b. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

c. To prescribe drug

d. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

11 / 25

11. Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

b. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

c. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

d. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

12 / 25

12. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 3

b. 2

c. 1

d. 4

13 / 25

13. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 25E

b. Form 24D

c. Form 21

d. Form 20

14 / 25

14. Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

15 / 25

15. Insulin comes under

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule J

d. Schedule H

16 / 25

16. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Toxins

b. Capsule

c. Antigen

d. Sera

17 / 25

17. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Four years

b. Three years

c. Six years

d. Five years

18 / 25

18. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule F

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule B

d. Schedule D

19 / 25

19. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form36

b. Form 30

c. Form 31

d. Form 32

20 / 25

20. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

b. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

c. In cold place

d. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

21 / 25

21. Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule W

d. Schedule G

22 / 25

22. "Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for surgical dressing

b. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

c. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

d. Standard for production of sera

23 / 25

23. Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1919

b. 1940

c. 1948

d. 1995

24 / 25

24. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 32

b. Form 36

c. Form 24

d. Form 20

25 / 25

25. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Four

b. Six

c. Five

d. Three

Your score is

The average score is 39%

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1 / 50

1. For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

a. Symbol H displayed on right top corner of the label.

b. Symbol X given in red

c. Symbol N displayed on left top corner of the label.

d. Symbol N is red displayed on left top corner of the label

2 / 50

2. In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

a. 10-12 patients

b. 1-10 patients

c. 100 patients

d. 500 patients

3 / 50

3. Injection syringe and needles are covered under

a. Schedule Q

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule A

d. Schedule B

4 / 50

4. Pack size of drug is covered under

a. Schedule P1

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule O

5 / 50

5. Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

a. Disease or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure

b. List of drug exempted from the provision of import of drugs

c. List of prescription drugs

d. Requirements of factory premises

6 / 50

6. Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

a. B

b. C and C1

c. A

d. X

7 / 50

7. Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

a. Phase I

b. Phase III

c. Phase II

d. Phase V

8 / 50

8. Dettol comes under

a. Schedule Q

b. Schedule N

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule P

9 / 50

9. The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule M

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule F

10 / 50

10. List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

a. Schedule J

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule I

11 / 50

11. List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

a. Schedule Q

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule R

d. Schedule O

12 / 50

12. For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

a. 250 square meters

b. 500 square meters

c. 400 square meters

d. 150 square meters

13 / 50

13. List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

a. K

b. H

c. G

d. X

14 / 50

14. If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

a. Red

b. Yellow

c. White

d. Blue

15 / 50

15. One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

a. Assistant drug controller

b. All

c. Chief administrative medical officer of the state

d. Chief pharmacist of government hospital

16 / 50

16. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

a. Every 2 year

b. Every 6 year

c. Every 3 year

d. Every 5 year

17 / 50

17. MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

a. Denmark

b. Brazil

c. South Africa

d. UK

18 / 50

18. Aspirin sodium comes under

a. Schedule J

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule H

d. Schedule G

19 / 50

19. DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

a. Five

b. Four

c. Eight

d. Six

20 / 50

20. In 1954 one of the following act is passed

a. Poisonous Act.

b. The Medical Termination of pregnancy Act

c. Drug and magic Remedies Act

d. Narcotic and psychotropic substance Act

21 / 50

21. Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

a. Toilet preparations

b. Schedule ‘C’ ‘G’ drugs

c. Ayurvedic drugs

d. Misbranded drugs

22 / 50

22. Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

a. 1919

b. 1985

c. 1954

d. 1948

23 / 50

23. In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

a. Government Analyst

b. Chief Administrator medical officer of state

c. President of India

d. The officer in charge of drugs control organization

24 / 50

24. Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

a. Determine Possible therapeutic uses, Effective doses range

b. To determine maximum tolerated dose in humans, Pharmacodynamics effects, Adverse effect.

c. Efficacy and Safety of drug in longer number of patients (500 patients)

d. Long time adverse effects aster marketing drug

25 / 50

25. Patent Act is established in

a. 1948

b. 1940

c. 1970

d. 1919

26 / 50

26. Schedule J is related to

a. List of disease and ailments which drug cannot claim.

b. Pack sizes of drugs.

c. Curable disease

d. GMP

27 / 50

27. Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

a. Form 24

b. Form 25

c. Form 26

d. Form 27

28 / 50

28. The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

a. Ministry of Education

b. Drug Controller

c. President, Pharmacy Council of India

d. Central Government

29 / 50

29. As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

a. Temperature not exceeding 5°C

b. Well closed container, protect from light, in cool place, protect from light

c. A cool place

d. A Cold place

30 / 50

30. Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

a. Q

b. A

c. D

d. FF

31 / 50

31. For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

a. 20B

b. 20

c. 21

d. 21B

32 / 50

32. Hatch Waxman Act is related to

a. Spurious drugs Act

b. Dangerous drugs Act

c. Over the counter drugs

d. Banned drugs

33 / 50

33. The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

a. 1985

b. 1955

c. 1950

d. 1940

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34. Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

a. None of the above

b. Guidelines for clinical Trials

c. List of incurable diseases

d. List of generic drugs

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35. Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

a. V

b. W

c. Y

d. X

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36. As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

a. Area required to open wholesale drug store

b. Area for opening retail pharmacy

c. List of maximum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

d. List of minimum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

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37. Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

a. R

b. O

c. R1

d. S

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38. Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

a. Schedule J

b. Schedule K

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule L

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39. As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

a. Ointment formulation

b. Skin cosmetic preparation

c. Parenteral preparation

d. Ophthalmic preparation

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40. MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

a. South Africa

b. Brazil

c. UK

d. Denmark

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41. Example of Schedule G drug is

a. Metformin

b. Enalapril

c. Barbital

d. Cefuroxime

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42. Schedule N states

a. Requirement of factory premises and hygienic condition to complied

b. List of minimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy

c. Standard for cosmetics

d. List of minimum equipment required for manufacturing of drug.

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43. Coca, opium and hemp come under:

a. Poisons Act

b. Dangerous Drug Act

c. Spurious Drug Act

d. Insecticide Act

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44. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

a. Nine

b. Seven

c. Five

d. Six

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45. Schedule C is related to

a. List of Biological and Immunological product

b. List of Homeopathy product

c. List of Ayurvedic product

d. List of Allopathic product

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46. TGA is regulatory agency of………….

a. Zimbabwe

b. Australia

c. Denmark

d. India

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47. As per D and C act schedule T stated about

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Allopathy drugs

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Medical device

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Homeopathy drugs

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48. If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

a. Spurious Drug

b. True Drug

c. Misbranded Drug

d. Adulterated Drug

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49. Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

a. 2

b. 4

c. 1

d. 3

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50. Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored