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Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz 2023-24

Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz

Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz, Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Test, Pharmacist Exam MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam.

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Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz

1 / 25

What is the impact of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP) on patient safety?

No impact

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Increases the risk of medication errors

2 / 25

How does a hospital pharmacist interact with other healthcare professionals?

As a team member

Independently

As an adversary

As a competitor

3 / 25

What is the purpose of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

To ensure safe and effective use of medications

To provide information to healthcare professionals

To reduce healthcare costs

To increase the sale of drugs

4 / 25

What is the main role of a hospital pharmacist?

Conducting research

Providing pharmaceutical care to patients

Dispensing medications

Selling over-the-counter drugs

5 / 25

What is the primary difference between drug distribution for in-patients and out-patients?

The dose of the drugs

The location of the patients

The type of drugs used

The frequency of drug administration

6 / 25

What is the primary objective of supply chain management in hospital pharmacy?

To maintain an adequate supply of drugs

To increase the sale of drugs

To increase the cost of drugs

To reduce the cost of drugs

7 / 25

Who sets the standards for Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

Retail pharmacies

Regulatory agencies

Hospital pharmacies

Drug manufacturers

8 / 25

What is the role of the hospital formulary in drug distribution?

To provide information about drugs

To have no role in the process

To ensure that the correct drugs are used

To provide information about the hospital's drug policies

9 / 25

What is the impact of poor supply chain management on patient care?

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

No impact

Increases the risk of drug shortages

Increases the cost of healthcare

10 / 25

What is the role of pharmacists in drug distribution for in-patients?

To ensure that the correct drugs are administered to the correct patients at the correct time

To have no role in the process

To provide information about the hospital formulary

To provide information about drugs

11 / 25

What is the role of pharmacists in supply chain management?

To provide information about the hospital formulary

To monitor drug supplies and ensure an adequate supply

To have no role in the process

To provide information about drugs

12 / 25

What is one of the key objectives of hospital pharmacy?

To increase the sale of drugs

To provide information to healthcare professionals

To reduce healthcare costs

To ensure safe and effective use of medications

13 / 25

What is the main challenge faced by hospital pharmacies in developing countries?

All of the above

Lack of qualified pharmacists

Lack of funding for healthcare

Limited access to new drugs

14 / 25

What is the role of inventory control in supply chain management?

To maintain an adequate supply of drugs

To increase the sale of drugs

To increase the cost of drugs

To reduce the cost of drugs

15 / 25

What is the role of pharmacists in drug distribution for out-patients?

To provide information about drugs

To provide information about the hospital formulary

To ensure that the correct drugs are dispensed to the correct patients

To have no role in the process

16 / 25

What is the impact of effective supply chain management on patient safety?

No impact

Increases the cost of healthcare

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

17 / 25

How does the role of hospital pharmacists vary between developed and developing countries?

The role is more significant in developed countries

The role is more significant in developing countries

There is no variation

It depends on the specific country and healthcare system

18 / 25

What is one of the key components of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

Drug manufacturing

Drug dispensing

Drug labeling

Drug advertising

19 / 25

How do international regulatory agencies, such as the World Health Organization (WHO), influence hospital pharmacy practices?

They only regulate the sale of drugs

They set global standards for drug use and safety

They only regulate the production of drugs

They have no influence

20 / 25

Which country has the highest number of hospital pharmacies?

China

Germany

India

United States

21 / 25

How does Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP) improve the quality of care in hospitals?

By promoting the safe and effective use of medications

By increasing the cost of healthcare

By reducing the number of drugs dispensed

By reducing the number of pharmacists in hospitals

22 / 25

What is the importance of hospital pharmacists in the healthcare system?

They are only responsible for dispensing drugs

They play a crucial role in ensuring safe and effective patient care

They only participate in research studies

They are not important

23 / 25

What is the impact of incorrect drug distribution on patient safety?

No impact

Increases the cost of healthcare

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

24 / 25

What is the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic on hospital pharmacies globally?

No impact

Decreased demand for drugs

Increased demand for drugs

Increased demand for over-the-counter drugs

25 / 25

In what setting does a hospital pharmacist work?

Manufacturing facility

Community pharmacy

Retail pharmacy

Hospital

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Your score is

The average score is 51%

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Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz

1 / 25

What is medication therapy management (MTM)?

A service provided by a specialist to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a physician to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a nurse to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a community pharmacist to optimize patient outcomes

2 / 25

What is the significance of using appropriate tone and pace when communicating with a patient over the telephone?

To reduce the risk of misinterpretation

To increase patient satisfaction

All of the above

To improve patient understanding

3 / 25

What is the primary role of a community pharmacist?

Conducting patient assessments

Dispensing medications

Providing health and wellness advice

All of the above

4 / 25

What is the area designed for the preparation of sterile products called?

Formulary

In-patient pharmacy

Clean room

Out-patient pharmacy

5 / 25

What is the significance of non-verbal communication (body language) in patient-pharmacist interactions?

To convey empathy and understanding

All of the above

To improve patient satisfaction

To enhance patient trust and rapport

6 / 25

What is the significance of regular review and updating of SOPs in a pharmacy setting?

To incorporate new technologies and best practices

To maintain the effectiveness of SOPs

All of the above

To keep up with changes in regulations and laws

7 / 25

What is medication adherence?

The ability of a patient to follow a medication regimen

All of the above

The act of taking medication as prescribed

The willingness of a patient to take medication

8 / 25

A record of medications compounded in the pharmacy is called _________.

Compounding log

Bulk compounding log

Yule time log

9 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in the management of chronic conditions?

Monitoring patient progress

All of the above

Providing patient education

Making medication adjustments

10 / 25

What is the most common type of community pharmacy?

Compounding pharmacy

Retail pharmacy

Hospital pharmacy

Mail order pharmacy

11 / 25

What is the significance of providing immunization services in a community pharmacy setting?

To improve patient outcomes

To increase access to immunization services

To increase patient convenience

All of the above

12 / 25

Voluntary or involuntary removal of a drug product by the manufacturer, usually pertaining to a particular shipment or lot number is called _______.

Recall

Code cart

IVPB

13 / 25

What is the significance of regularly reviewing and updating Patient Information Leaflets (PILs)?

To reduce the risk of medication errors

To ensure that the information provided is accurate and up-to-date

To comply with regulatory requirements

All of the above

14 / 25

What is the significance of regular training and education for staff in minimizing dispensing errors?

To enhance staff knowledge and skills

To reduce the risk of human error

All of the above

To comply with regulatory requirements

15 / 25

The process of quickly obtaining an out-of-stock medication in an urgent situation is called _________.

Final fllter

Code cart

Emergency drug procurement

Bulk compounding log

16 / 25

Good Pharmacy Practice and SOPs.

A set of guidelines for the conduct of pharmacists and pharmacy staff

All of the above

A set of guidelines for the safe and effective use of medications

A set of guidelines for the management and operation of a pharmacy

17 / 25

What is a prescription?

A written order for a diagnostic test or procedure

A written order for medication from a physician or other authorized prescriber

A written order for physical therapy

A written order for a specialist consultation

18 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in checking for potential drug interactions or allergies?

All of the above

To monitor medication efficacy

To improve patient outcomes

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

19 / 25

What is the significance of addressing non-adherence to medication regimens?

All of the above

To reduce the risk of adverse effects

To improve patient outcomes

To reduce healthcare costs

20 / 25

What is the most common type of dispensing error

Medication dosing errors

Medication administration errors

Medication labeling errors

Medication substitution errors

21 / 25

What is the purpose of conducting a medication review in a community pharmacy setting?

All of the above

To increase medication adherence

To monitor medication efficacy

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

22 / 25

What is a dispensing error?

An error in the prescription or order for a medication

An error in the preparation or labeling of a medication

An error in the administration of a medication

An error in the storage or handling of a medication

23 / 25

What is the main goal of community pharmacy management?

All of the above

To provide cost-effective care

To increase profits

To improve patient outcomes

24 / 25

What is the role of technology in community pharmacy management?

Enhancing communication with healthcare providers

Improving patient safety

Streamlining processes and increasing efficiency

All of the above

25 / 25

What are the key responsibilities of a community pharmacist in managing a pharmacy?

Ensuring compliance with regulations and laws

Providing patient counseling and education

Maintaining inventory and ordering supplies

All of the above

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The average score is 40%

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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

None of above

Suppression of insulin secretion

Stimulation of insulin release

Suppression of glucagon secretion

2 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Cyclopentolate

Pirenzepine

Hyoscine

Darifenacin

3 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Passive diffusion

Facilitated diffusion

Ion pair transport

Active transport

4 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Both a and b

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Ecothiopate

Physostigmine

5 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Reduced sweating

Mydriasis

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Loss of accommodation

6 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M3 agonist

M2 antagonist

M1 antagonist

M3 antagonist

7 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

8 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Sulfate conjunction:

Methylation

Glucuronide conjugation

α amino acid conjunction

9 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Antagonism

Potentiation

Addition

Synergism

10 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

None of the above

Canrenone

Acetylspironolactone

Desmethyl spironolactone

11 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

Q and S

Q and R

R and S

P and S

12 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Bethanechol

Atropine

Pilocarpine

Physostigmine

13 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Salicylates

Ethanol

Prednisolone

Clofibrate

14 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

Pregnancy

IDDM

All of the above

Renal insufficiency

15 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

F S H

Prolactin

Vasopressin

16 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

None of the above

To check the activity straight muscle

17 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Blocking B1 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

Blocking B2 receptor

Stimulating B2 receptor

18 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Pyridostigmine

Neostigmine

Edrophonium

Physostigmine

19 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Cerebral thrombosis

Breast Carcinoma

Hypertension

Dysmenorrhoea

20 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Phenytoin

Diazepam

Paraldehyde

Carbamazepine

21 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Cerebral cortex

Corpus striatum

Exocrine gland

Heart

22 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Miosis

Mental aberration

Increased heart rate

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

23 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Isopropanol

Dopamine

Epinephrine

All of the above

24 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

All of the above

Tubocurarine

Gallamine

Pancuronium

25 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Physostigmine

All of the above

Atropine

Neostigmine

26 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Oxytocin

Histamine

Prolactin

Insulin

27 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

Inhibits GIT motility

Prevents miosis

28 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Rifampicin

Grape juice

Carbamazepine

Barbiturates

29 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Atropine

Carbamazepine

Scopolamine

Metoclopramide

30 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Respiratory difficulty

Palpitation

Tremor

Cerebral heamorrhage

31 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Amphetamine

Ephedrine

All of the above

Dopamine

32 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

33 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Agranulocytosis

Drug fever

Nephritis

Alopecia

34 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Isoprenaline

Atropine

Acetylcholine

Noradrenaline

35 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

36 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Bronchoconstriction

Block accommodation reflex

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Constipation

37 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

All of the above

Atropine

Scopolamines

Phenothiazines

38 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

Detect the impurity in a given drug

39 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

All of the above

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

40 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

Neostigmine

Pralidoxime

None of the above

Physostigmine

41 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Steroid receptor

Ion channel

GPCR

Enzyme linked

42 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Competing at receptor sites

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

All of the above

Inhibiting release from storage sites

43 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Warfarin

Amitriptyline

Digoxin

Alcohol

44 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Tubocurarine

Pralidoxime

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

45 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To cause haemeostasis

All of the above

To stimulate would healing

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

46 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Partial agonist

Non-competitive antagonism

Competitive antagonism

Antagonist

47 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinomimetic

Cholinolytics

Sympathomimetic

Cholinesterase inhibitor

48 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Hypertension

Tachycardia

Bradycardia

Dry mouth

49 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

D-tubocurarine

Succinylcholine

Gallamine

Hexamethonium

50 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

None of above

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule W

c. Schedule U

d. Schedule X

2 / 25

"Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

b. Standard for surgical dressing

c. Standard for production of sera

d. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

3 / 25

Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Three years

b. Four years

c. Five years

d. Six years

4 / 25

In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. President

b. Election of Registered Pharmacists

c. Central Government

d. State Government of Delhi

5 / 25

Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

6 / 25

One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 20

b. Form 24

c. Form 36

d. Form 32

7 / 25

In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 5

8 / 25

Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule U

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule U1

d. Schedule V

9 / 25

Appendix II is about

a. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

b. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

c. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

d. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

10 / 25

"Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule C

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule M

d. Schedule R

11 / 25

Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form 30

b. Form 31

c. Form 32

d. Form36

12 / 25

Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 24D

b. Form 20

c. Form 25E

d. Form 21

13 / 25

Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

b. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

c. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

d. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

14 / 25

Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 4

b. 3

c. 1

d. 2

15 / 25

Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule F

b. Schedule D

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule B

16 / 25

Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1919

b. 1995

c. 1948

d. 1940

17 / 25

Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To prescribe drug

b. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

c. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

d. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

18 / 25

How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Three

b. Six

c. Five

d. Four

19 / 25

Insulin comes under

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule H

d. Schedule J

20 / 25

Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

b. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

c. In cold place

d. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

21 / 25

Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule S

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule E

d. Schedule R

22 / 25

Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 17A

b. Section 17B

c. Section 17

d. Section 3B

23 / 25

Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Antigen

b. Sera

c. Toxins

d. Capsule

24 / 25

Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule W

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule H

d. Schedule G

25 / 25

If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Misbranded drug

b. Drug

c. Spurious drug

d. Adulterated drug

Your score is

The average score is 40%

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365

1 / 50

List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

a. K

b. G

c. H

d. X

2 / 50

Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

a. Form 27

b. Form 24

c. Form 25

d. Form 26

3 / 50

Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

a. None of the above

b. List of generic drugs

c. List of incurable diseases

d. Guidelines for clinical Trials

4 / 50

Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

a. Ayurvedic drugs

b. Misbranded drugs

c. Schedule ‘C’ ‘G’ drugs

d. Toilet preparations

5 / 50

MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

a. Brazil

b. South Africa

c. Denmark

d. UK

6 / 50

For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

a. 21

b. 20B

c. 21B

d. 20

7 / 50

The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

a. 1940

b. 1985

c. 1950

d. 1955

8 / 50

If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

a. Spurious Drug

b. True Drug

c. Adulterated Drug

d. Misbranded Drug

9 / 50

Pack size of drug is covered under

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule P1

d. Schedule P

10 / 50

In 1954 one of the following act is passed

a. Poisonous Act.

b. Narcotic and psychotropic substance Act

c. Drug and magic Remedies Act

d. The Medical Termination of pregnancy Act

11 / 50

Injection syringe and needles are covered under

a. Schedule B

b. Schedule Q

c. Schedule A

d. Schedule P

12 / 50

Schedule J is related to

a. List of disease and ailments which drug cannot claim.

b. Curable disease

c. GMP

d. Pack sizes of drugs.

13 / 50

As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

a. Well closed container, protect from light, in cool place, protect from light

b. A Cold place

c. A cool place

d. Temperature not exceeding 5°C

14 / 50

Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

a. List of drug exempted from the provision of import of drugs

b. Disease or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure

c. Requirements of factory premises

d. List of prescription drugs

15 / 50

MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

a. South Africa

b. UK

c. Denmark

d. Brazil

16 / 50

Coca, opium and hemp come under:

a. Spurious Drug Act

b. Dangerous Drug Act

c. Insecticide Act

d. Poisons Act

17 / 50

Dettol comes under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule N

c. Schedule Q

d. Schedule O

18 / 50

One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

a. Chief pharmacist of government hospital

b. Chief administrative medical officer of the state

c. Assistant drug controller

d. All

19 / 50

Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

a. 4

b. 3

c. 1

d. 2

20 / 50

If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

a. Red

b. White

c. Yellow

d. Blue

21 / 50

In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

a. President of India

b. Government Analyst

c. Chief Administrator medical officer of state

d. The officer in charge of drugs control organization

22 / 50

The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

a. Schedule F

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule M

d. Schedule Y

23 / 50

State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

a. Six

b. Nine

c. Five

d. Seven

24 / 50

List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule Q

d. Schedule P

25 / 50

Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

a. X

b. Y

c. W

d. V

26 / 50

List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

a. Schedule I

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule H

d. Schedule G

27 / 50

Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

a. A

b. C and C1

c. X

d. B

28 / 50

Patent Act is established in

a. 1970

b. 1940

c. 1919

d. 1948

29 / 50

Aspirin sodium comes under

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule H

d. Schedule J

30 / 50

For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

a. Symbol H displayed on right top corner of the label.

b. Symbol N is red displayed on left top corner of the label

c. Symbol N displayed on left top corner of the label.

d. Symbol X given in red

31 / 50

TGA is regulatory agency of………….

a. Denmark

b. Zimbabwe

c. Australia

d. India

32 / 50

Hatch Waxman Act is related to

a. Banned drugs

b. Over the counter drugs

c. Dangerous drugs Act

d. Spurious drugs Act

33 / 50

As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

a. Parenteral preparation

b. Ophthalmic preparation

c. Ointment formulation

d. Skin cosmetic preparation

34 / 50

Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

a. To determine maximum tolerated dose in humans, Pharmacodynamics effects, Adverse effect.

b. Determine Possible therapeutic uses, Effective doses range

c. Efficacy and Safety of drug in longer number of patients (500 patients)

d. Long time adverse effects aster marketing drug

35 / 50

Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

a. FF

b. D

c. Q

d. A

36 / 50

In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

a. 10-12 patients

b. 500 patients

c. 1-10 patients

d. 100 patients

37 / 50

As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

a. List of maximum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

b. Area required to open wholesale drug store

c. Area for opening retail pharmacy

d. List of minimum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

38 / 50

Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

a. 1919

b. 1948

c. 1985

d. 1954

39 / 50

Example of Schedule G drug is

a. Cefuroxime

b. Metformin

c. Enalapril

d. Barbital

40 / 50

Schedule C is related to

a. List of Allopathic product

b. List of Homeopathy product

c. List of Biological and Immunological product

d. List of Ayurvedic product

41 / 50

DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

a. Four

b. Eight

c. Five

d. Six

42 / 50

Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

a. Phase V

b. Phase III

c. Phase I

d. Phase II

43 / 50

Schedule N states

a. List of minimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy

b. List of minimum equipment required for manufacturing of drug.

c. Requirement of factory premises and hygienic condition to complied

d. Standard for cosmetics

44 / 50

Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

a. At the Temperature 2°C to 8°C and it must not allow to freeze

b. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

c. In cold place

d. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

45 / 50

Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

a. Every 3 year

b. Every 6 year

c. Every 2 year

d. Every 5 year

46 / 50

Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

a. Schedule L

b. Schedule K

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule J

47 / 50

The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

a. President, Pharmacy Council of India

b. Drug Controller

c. Ministry of Education

d. Central Government

48 / 50

For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

a. 400 square meters

b. 500 square meters

c. 250 square meters

d. 150 square meters

49 / 50

As per D and C act schedule T stated about

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Medical device

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Allopathy drugs

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Homeopathy drugs

50 / 50

Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

a. R

b. S

c. R1

d. O

Your score is

The average score is 38%

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