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Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz 2023-24

Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz

Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz, Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Test, Pharmacist Exam MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam.

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Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz

1 / 25

What is one of the key objectives of hospital pharmacy?

To reduce healthcare costs

To ensure safe and effective use of medications

To increase the sale of drugs

To provide information to healthcare professionals

2 / 25

In what setting does a hospital pharmacist work?

Manufacturing facility

Retail pharmacy

Community pharmacy

Hospital

3 / 25

Which country has the highest number of hospital pharmacies?

Germany

United States

China

India

4 / 25

What is the main role of a hospital pharmacist?

Selling over-the-counter drugs

Conducting research

Dispensing medications

Providing pharmaceutical care to patients

5 / 25

What is the role of pharmacists in drug distribution for out-patients?

To have no role in the process

To provide information about the hospital formulary

To provide information about drugs

To ensure that the correct drugs are dispensed to the correct patients

6 / 25

What is the impact of effective supply chain management on patient safety?

Increases the cost of healthcare

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

No impact

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

7 / 25

How does the role of hospital pharmacists vary between developed and developing countries?

There is no variation

The role is more significant in developing countries

The role is more significant in developed countries

It depends on the specific country and healthcare system

8 / 25

What is the role of pharmacists in supply chain management?

To provide information about the hospital formulary

To monitor drug supplies and ensure an adequate supply

To provide information about drugs

To have no role in the process

9 / 25

What is the impact of poor supply chain management on patient care?

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

No impact

Increases the cost of healthcare

Increases the risk of drug shortages

10 / 25

How does a hospital pharmacist interact with other healthcare professionals?

Independently

As a competitor

As an adversary

As a team member

11 / 25

What is one of the key components of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

Drug manufacturing

Drug dispensing

Drug labeling

Drug advertising

12 / 25

What is the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic on hospital pharmacies globally?

Decreased demand for drugs

Increased demand for over-the-counter drugs

Increased demand for drugs

No impact

13 / 25

What is the main challenge faced by hospital pharmacies in developing countries?

All of the above

Lack of qualified pharmacists

Lack of funding for healthcare

Limited access to new drugs

14 / 25

What is the impact of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP) on patient safety?

Increases the risk of medication errors

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

No impact

15 / 25

What is the role of pharmacists in drug distribution for in-patients?

To ensure that the correct drugs are administered to the correct patients at the correct time

To have no role in the process

To provide information about the hospital formulary

To provide information about drugs

16 / 25

Who sets the standards for Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

Drug manufacturers

Hospital pharmacies

Retail pharmacies

Regulatory agencies

17 / 25

What is the impact of incorrect drug distribution on patient safety?

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

No impact

Increases the cost of healthcare

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

18 / 25

What is the purpose of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

To ensure safe and effective use of medications

To provide information to healthcare professionals

To reduce healthcare costs

To increase the sale of drugs

19 / 25

What is the role of the hospital formulary in drug distribution?

To have no role in the process

To ensure that the correct drugs are used

To provide information about the hospital's drug policies

To provide information about drugs

20 / 25

What is the primary difference between drug distribution for in-patients and out-patients?

The dose of the drugs

The type of drugs used

The frequency of drug administration

The location of the patients

21 / 25

What is the primary objective of supply chain management in hospital pharmacy?

To reduce the cost of drugs

To increase the cost of drugs

To increase the sale of drugs

To maintain an adequate supply of drugs

22 / 25

How does Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP) improve the quality of care in hospitals?

By reducing the number of pharmacists in hospitals

By increasing the cost of healthcare

By reducing the number of drugs dispensed

By promoting the safe and effective use of medications

23 / 25

How do international regulatory agencies, such as the World Health Organization (WHO), influence hospital pharmacy practices?

They have no influence

They only regulate the sale of drugs

They set global standards for drug use and safety

They only regulate the production of drugs

24 / 25

What is the role of inventory control in supply chain management?

To maintain an adequate supply of drugs

To reduce the cost of drugs

To increase the sale of drugs

To increase the cost of drugs

25 / 25

What is the importance of hospital pharmacists in the healthcare system?

They only participate in research studies

They are not important

They play a crucial role in ensuring safe and effective patient care

They are only responsible for dispensing drugs

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The average score is 51%

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Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz

1 / 25

What is the significance of regular training and education for staff in minimizing dispensing errors?

To comply with regulatory requirements

All of the above

To enhance staff knowledge and skills

To reduce the risk of human error

2 / 25

What is the most common type of dispensing error

Medication substitution errors

Medication labeling errors

Medication administration errors

Medication dosing errors

3 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in the management of chronic conditions?

Monitoring patient progress

Providing patient education

Making medication adjustments

All of the above

4 / 25

What is the significance of regularly reviewing and updating Patient Information Leaflets (PILs)?

To comply with regulatory requirements

All of the above

To reduce the risk of medication errors

To ensure that the information provided is accurate and up-to-date

5 / 25

What is a dispensing error?

An error in the administration of a medication

An error in the prescription or order for a medication

An error in the preparation or labeling of a medication

An error in the storage or handling of a medication

6 / 25

What is medication adherence?

The act of taking medication as prescribed

The ability of a patient to follow a medication regimen

The willingness of a patient to take medication

All of the above

7 / 25

What is the significance of regular review and updating of SOPs in a pharmacy setting?

To maintain the effectiveness of SOPs

To keep up with changes in regulations and laws

All of the above

To incorporate new technologies and best practices

8 / 25

Good Pharmacy Practice and SOPs.

A set of guidelines for the safe and effective use of medications

All of the above

A set of guidelines for the conduct of pharmacists and pharmacy staff

A set of guidelines for the management and operation of a pharmacy

9 / 25

A record of medications compounded in the pharmacy is called _________.

Bulk compounding log

Compounding log

Yule time log

10 / 25

What is the main goal of community pharmacy management?

To provide cost-effective care

To improve patient outcomes

To increase profits

All of the above

11 / 25

What are the key responsibilities of a community pharmacist in managing a pharmacy?

Providing patient counseling and education

Ensuring compliance with regulations and laws

Maintaining inventory and ordering supplies

All of the above

12 / 25

What is the significance of providing immunization services in a community pharmacy setting?

To increase access to immunization services

To increase patient convenience

To improve patient outcomes

All of the above

13 / 25

What is the primary role of a community pharmacist?

Dispensing medications

Providing health and wellness advice

All of the above

Conducting patient assessments

14 / 25

What is the role of technology in community pharmacy management?

Streamlining processes and increasing efficiency

All of the above

Improving patient safety

Enhancing communication with healthcare providers

15 / 25

What is the significance of non-verbal communication (body language) in patient-pharmacist interactions?

All of the above

To enhance patient trust and rapport

To convey empathy and understanding

To improve patient satisfaction

16 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in checking for potential drug interactions or allergies?

To improve patient outcomes

All of the above

To monitor medication efficacy

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

17 / 25

What is the significance of addressing non-adherence to medication regimens?

All of the above

To improve patient outcomes

To reduce healthcare costs

To reduce the risk of adverse effects

18 / 25

What is a prescription?

A written order for medication from a physician or other authorized prescriber

A written order for a diagnostic test or procedure

A written order for a specialist consultation

A written order for physical therapy

19 / 25

What is the most common type of community pharmacy?

Retail pharmacy

Compounding pharmacy

Hospital pharmacy

Mail order pharmacy

20 / 25

What is the significance of using appropriate tone and pace when communicating with a patient over the telephone?

To improve patient understanding

To increase patient satisfaction

To reduce the risk of misinterpretation

All of the above

21 / 25

What is the area designed for the preparation of sterile products called?

In-patient pharmacy

Out-patient pharmacy

Formulary

Clean room

22 / 25

What is medication therapy management (MTM)?

A service provided by a specialist to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a community pharmacist to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a physician to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a nurse to optimize patient outcomes

23 / 25

The process of quickly obtaining an out-of-stock medication in an urgent situation is called _________.

Code cart

Emergency drug procurement

Final fllter

Bulk compounding log

24 / 25

Voluntary or involuntary removal of a drug product by the manufacturer, usually pertaining to a particular shipment or lot number is called _______.

Code cart

Recall

IVPB

25 / 25

What is the purpose of conducting a medication review in a community pharmacy setting?

All of the above

To increase medication adherence

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

To monitor medication efficacy

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The average score is 40%

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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Suppression of glucagon secretion

None of above

Suppression of insulin secretion

Stimulation of insulin release

2 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

None of above

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

3 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Synergism

Potentiation

Antagonism

Addition

4 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Cerebral thrombosis

Breast Carcinoma

Hypertension

Dysmenorrhoea

5 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

Competing at receptor sites

Inhibiting release from storage sites

All of the above

6 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Hexamethonium

Gallamine

Succinylcholine

D-tubocurarine

7 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

8 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Rifampicin

Grape juice

Barbiturates

Carbamazepine

9 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Corpus striatum

Cerebral cortex

Exocrine gland

Heart

10 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Facilitated diffusion

Passive diffusion

Ion pair transport

Active transport

11 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Tubocurarine

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

Pralidoxime

12 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Mental aberration

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Increased heart rate

Miosis

13 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

None of the above

Desmethyl spironolactone

Canrenone

Acetylspironolactone

14 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinomimetic

Sympathomimetic

Cholinesterase inhibitor

Cholinolytics

15 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Drug fever

Alopecia

Nephritis

Agranulocytosis

16 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Tachycardia

Hypertension

Dry mouth

Bradycardia

17 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Pyridostigmine

Neostigmine

Edrophonium

Physostigmine

18 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

None of the above

Pralidoxime

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

19 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Phenytoin

Paraldehyde

Diazepam

Carbamazepine

20 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Cyclopentolate

Pirenzepine

Darifenacin

Hyoscine

21 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

None of the above

To check the activity straight muscle

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

22 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Acetylcholine

Noradrenaline

Isoprenaline

Atropine

23 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Enzyme linked

GPCR

Steroid receptor

Ion channel

24 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Respiratory difficulty

Tremor

Palpitation

Cerebral heamorrhage

25 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Non-competitive antagonism

Competitive antagonism

Antagonist

Partial agonist

26 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Stimulating B2 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

Blocking B2 receptor

27 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Scopolamine

Carbamazepine

Metoclopramide

Atropine

28 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

All of the above

Atropine

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

29 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Gallamine

All of the above

Pancuronium

Tubocurarine

30 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Inhibits GIT motility

Prevents miosis

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

31 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Epinephrine

Isopropanol

All of the above

Dopamine

32 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Loss of accommodation

Reduced sweating

Mydriasis

33 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Histamine

Prolactin

Oxytocin

Insulin

34 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Amitriptyline

Warfarin

Digoxin

Alcohol

35 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Detect the impurity in a given drug

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

36 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Constipation

Block accommodation reflex

Bronchoconstriction

37 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

All of the above

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

38 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Sulfate conjunction:

Glucuronide conjugation

α amino acid conjunction

Methylation

39 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Physostigmine

Pilocarpine

Atropine

Bethanechol

40 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

All of the above

Ephedrine

Amphetamine

Dopamine

41 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

42 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Both a and b

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Physostigmine

Ecothiopate

43 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M3 agonist

M2 antagonist

M3 antagonist

M1 antagonist

44 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

45 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To cause haemeostasis

All of the above

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

To stimulate would healing

46 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Ethanol

Prednisolone

Salicylates

Clofibrate

47 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

Q and R

R and S

Q and S

P and S

48 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

Prolactin

F S H

Vasopressin

49 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

All of the above

IDDM

Renal insufficiency

Pregnancy

50 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

Scopolamines

Atropine

All of the above

Phenothiazines

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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1770

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

Appendix II is about

a. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

b. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

c. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

d. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

2 / 25

Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 4

b. 2

c. 1

d. 3

3 / 25

How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Six

b. Three

c. Five

d. Four

4 / 25

Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form 31

b. Form 32

c. Form 30

d. Form36

5 / 25

"Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule M

c. Schedule C

d. Schedule P

6 / 25

Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 20

b. Form 25E

c. Form 24D

d. Form 21

7 / 25

Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

b. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

c. To prescribe drug

d. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

8 / 25

Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule U

b. Schedule U1

c. Schedule V

d. Schedule Y

9 / 25

Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1940

b. 1995

c. 1948

d. 1919

10 / 25

Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule S

d. Schedule E

11 / 25

Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

b. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

c. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

d. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

12 / 25

One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 36

b. Form 24

c. Form 32

d. Form 20

13 / 25

Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. In cold place

b. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

c. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

d. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

14 / 25

Insulin comes under

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule J

15 / 25

Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Antigen

b. Capsule

c. Toxins

d. Sera

16 / 25

Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule W

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule Y

17 / 25

Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 17A

b. Section 17

c. Section 17B

d. Section 3B

18 / 25

Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Four years

b. Three years

c. Five years

d. Six years

19 / 25

In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. Election of Registered Pharmacists

b. State Government of Delhi

c. President

d. Central Government

20 / 25

Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule D

c. Schedule F

d. Schedule B

21 / 25

Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule U

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule X

d. Schedule W

22 / 25

"Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

b. Standard for surgical dressing

c. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

d. Standard for production of sera

23 / 25

Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

24 / 25

In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 5

b. 3

c. 2

d. 1

25 / 25

If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Adulterated drug

b. Drug

c. Misbranded drug

d. Spurious drug

Your score is

The average score is 40%

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365

1 / 50

Patent Act is established in

a. 1919

b. 1940

c. 1970

d. 1948

2 / 50

In 1954 one of the following act is passed

a. Poisonous Act.

b. Drug and magic Remedies Act

c. Narcotic and psychotropic substance Act

d. The Medical Termination of pregnancy Act

3 / 50

Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

a. 4

b. 1

c. 3

d. 2

4 / 50

One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

a. Assistant drug controller

b. Chief administrative medical officer of the state

c. All

d. Chief pharmacist of government hospital

5 / 50

List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule I

d. Schedule J

6 / 50

Aspirin sodium comes under

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule H

7 / 50

List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

a. K

b. X

c. H

d. G

8 / 50

Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

a. A

b. X

c. B

d. C and C1

9 / 50

Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

a. R1

b. R

c. O

d. S

10 / 50

Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

a. Form 27

b. Form 26

c. Form 24

d. Form 25

11 / 50

Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

a. Misbranded drugs

b. Toilet preparations

c. Schedule ‘C’ ‘G’ drugs

d. Ayurvedic drugs

12 / 50

Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

a. Y

b. W

c. V

d. X

13 / 50

The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule M

c. Schedule F

d. Schedule O

14 / 50

Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

a. Phase II

b. Phase I

c. Phase V

d. Phase III

15 / 50

Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

a. Disease or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure

b. List of drug exempted from the provision of import of drugs

c. Requirements of factory premises

d. List of prescription drugs

16 / 50

Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

a. Schedule J

b. Schedule K

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule L

17 / 50

DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

a. Four

b. Six

c. Eight

d. Five

18 / 50

Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

a. FF

b. D

c. Q

d. A

19 / 50

Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

a. Every 5 year

b. Every 3 year

c. Every 2 year

d. Every 6 year

20 / 50

State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

a. Five

b. Nine

c. Six

d. Seven

21 / 50

TGA is regulatory agency of………….

a. Australia

b. Denmark

c. Zimbabwe

d. India

22 / 50

For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

a. 20

b. 20B

c. 21

d. 21B

23 / 50

If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

a. Red

b. Blue

c. White

d. Yellow

24 / 50

As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

a. Area for opening retail pharmacy

b. List of maximum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

c. List of minimum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

d. Area required to open wholesale drug store

25 / 50

Example of Schedule G drug is

a. Enalapril

b. Barbital

c. Cefuroxime

d. Metformin

26 / 50

Schedule J is related to

a. Pack sizes of drugs.

b. GMP

c. Curable disease

d. List of disease and ailments which drug cannot claim.

27 / 50

Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

a. List of incurable diseases

b. None of the above

c. List of generic drugs

d. Guidelines for clinical Trials

28 / 50

List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule Q

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule O

29 / 50

Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

a. 1919

b. 1985

c. 1948

d. 1954

30 / 50

Hatch Waxman Act is related to

a. Spurious drugs Act

b. Over the counter drugs

c. Banned drugs

d. Dangerous drugs Act

31 / 50

Schedule C is related to

a. List of Biological and Immunological product

b. List of Homeopathy product

c. List of Allopathic product

d. List of Ayurvedic product

32 / 50

Coca, opium and hemp come under:

a. Spurious Drug Act

b. Insecticide Act

c. Dangerous Drug Act

d. Poisons Act

33 / 50

In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

a. Government Analyst

b. Chief Administrator medical officer of state

c. The officer in charge of drugs control organization

d. President of India

34 / 50

Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

b. In cold place

c. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

d. At the Temperature 2°C to 8°C and it must not allow to freeze

35 / 50

The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

a. 1985

b. 1940

c. 1955

d. 1950

36 / 50

Dettol comes under

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule N

d. Schedule Q

37 / 50

Schedule N states

a. Standard for cosmetics

b. List of minimum equipment required for manufacturing of drug.

c. List of minimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy

d. Requirement of factory premises and hygienic condition to complied

38 / 50

As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

a. Temperature not exceeding 5°C

b. Well closed container, protect from light, in cool place, protect from light

c. A cool place

d. A Cold place

39 / 50

As per D and C act schedule T stated about

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Allopathy drugs

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Homeopathy drugs

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Medical device

40 / 50

For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

a. 250 square meters

b. 400 square meters

c. 500 square meters

d. 150 square meters

41 / 50

Injection syringe and needles are covered under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule B

c. Schedule Q

d. Schedule A

42 / 50

MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

a. South Africa

b. Brazil

c. UK

d. Denmark

43 / 50

For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

a. Symbol H displayed on right top corner of the label.

b. Symbol N displayed on left top corner of the label.

c. Symbol X given in red

d. Symbol N is red displayed on left top corner of the label

44 / 50

If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

a. Adulterated Drug

b. True Drug

c. Misbranded Drug

d. Spurious Drug

45 / 50

The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

a. Ministry of Education

b. President, Pharmacy Council of India

c. Central Government

d. Drug Controller

46 / 50

Pack size of drug is covered under

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule P1

47 / 50

Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

a. Determine Possible therapeutic uses, Effective doses range

b. Efficacy and Safety of drug in longer number of patients (500 patients)

c. To determine maximum tolerated dose in humans, Pharmacodynamics effects, Adverse effect.

d. Long time adverse effects aster marketing drug

48 / 50

MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

a. Brazil

b. UK

c. South Africa

d. Denmark

49 / 50

In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

a. 1-10 patients

b. 500 patients

c. 10-12 patients

d. 100 patients

50 / 50

As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

a. Parenteral preparation

b. Skin cosmetic preparation

c. Ointment formulation

d. Ophthalmic preparation

Your score is

The average score is 38%

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