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Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz 2023-24

Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz

Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz, Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Test, Pharmacist Exam MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam.

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Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz

1 / 25

What is the importance of hospital pharmacists in the healthcare system?

They only participate in research studies

They are only responsible for dispensing drugs

They are not important

They play a crucial role in ensuring safe and effective patient care

2 / 25

What is the role of inventory control in supply chain management?

To increase the sale of drugs

To increase the cost of drugs

To reduce the cost of drugs

To maintain an adequate supply of drugs

3 / 25

What is the purpose of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

To ensure safe and effective use of medications

To increase the sale of drugs

To provide information to healthcare professionals

To reduce healthcare costs

4 / 25

What is the role of pharmacists in drug distribution for in-patients?

To provide information about drugs

To ensure that the correct drugs are administered to the correct patients at the correct time

To have no role in the process

To provide information about the hospital formulary

5 / 25

How does the role of hospital pharmacists vary between developed and developing countries?

There is no variation

The role is more significant in developing countries

It depends on the specific country and healthcare system

The role is more significant in developed countries

6 / 25

What is the main role of a hospital pharmacist?

Dispensing medications

Providing pharmaceutical care to patients

Selling over-the-counter drugs

Conducting research

7 / 25

How does Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP) improve the quality of care in hospitals?

By reducing the number of pharmacists in hospitals

By promoting the safe and effective use of medications

By increasing the cost of healthcare

By reducing the number of drugs dispensed

8 / 25

What is one of the key components of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

Drug labeling

Drug advertising

Drug dispensing

Drug manufacturing

9 / 25

How does a hospital pharmacist interact with other healthcare professionals?

Independently

As a competitor

As an adversary

As a team member

10 / 25

What is the main challenge faced by hospital pharmacies in developing countries?

Lack of qualified pharmacists

Limited access to new drugs

Lack of funding for healthcare

All of the above

11 / 25

What is the impact of incorrect drug distribution on patient safety?

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Increases the cost of healthcare

No impact

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

12 / 25

What is one of the key objectives of hospital pharmacy?

To reduce healthcare costs

To provide information to healthcare professionals

To increase the sale of drugs

To ensure safe and effective use of medications

13 / 25

Which country has the highest number of hospital pharmacies?

United States

Germany

China

India

14 / 25

What is the primary difference between drug distribution for in-patients and out-patients?

The location of the patients

The frequency of drug administration

The type of drugs used

The dose of the drugs

15 / 25

What is the impact of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP) on patient safety?

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Increases the risk of medication errors

No impact

16 / 25

What is the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic on hospital pharmacies globally?

Decreased demand for drugs

Increased demand for over-the-counter drugs

No impact

Increased demand for drugs

17 / 25

Who sets the standards for Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

Hospital pharmacies

Retail pharmacies

Regulatory agencies

Drug manufacturers

18 / 25

In what setting does a hospital pharmacist work?

Community pharmacy

Manufacturing facility

Retail pharmacy

Hospital

19 / 25

What is the impact of poor supply chain management on patient care?

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Increases the risk of drug shortages

Increases the cost of healthcare

No impact

20 / 25

What is the primary objective of supply chain management in hospital pharmacy?

To maintain an adequate supply of drugs

To increase the sale of drugs

To increase the cost of drugs

To reduce the cost of drugs

21 / 25

How do international regulatory agencies, such as the World Health Organization (WHO), influence hospital pharmacy practices?

They set global standards for drug use and safety

They have no influence

They only regulate the production of drugs

They only regulate the sale of drugs

22 / 25

What is the impact of effective supply chain management on patient safety?

Increases the cost of healthcare

No impact

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

23 / 25

What is the role of pharmacists in supply chain management?

To monitor drug supplies and ensure an adequate supply

To have no role in the process

To provide information about drugs

To provide information about the hospital formulary

24 / 25

What is the role of pharmacists in drug distribution for out-patients?

To provide information about drugs

To ensure that the correct drugs are dispensed to the correct patients

To have no role in the process

To provide information about the hospital formulary

25 / 25

What is the role of the hospital formulary in drug distribution?

To have no role in the process

To provide information about the hospital's drug policies

To provide information about drugs

To ensure that the correct drugs are used

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The average score is 51%

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Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz

1 / 25

What is the significance of providing immunization services in a community pharmacy setting?

To improve patient outcomes

To increase patient convenience

To increase access to immunization services

All of the above

2 / 25

What is the significance of using appropriate tone and pace when communicating with a patient over the telephone?

To increase patient satisfaction

To improve patient understanding

All of the above

To reduce the risk of misinterpretation

3 / 25

What is the role of technology in community pharmacy management?

Streamlining processes and increasing efficiency

All of the above

Enhancing communication with healthcare providers

Improving patient safety

4 / 25

The process of quickly obtaining an out-of-stock medication in an urgent situation is called _________.

Emergency drug procurement

Code cart

Final fllter

Bulk compounding log

5 / 25

What is the significance of regular training and education for staff in minimizing dispensing errors?

To reduce the risk of human error

All of the above

To enhance staff knowledge and skills

To comply with regulatory requirements

6 / 25

What is the significance of addressing non-adherence to medication regimens?

To improve patient outcomes

All of the above

To reduce the risk of adverse effects

To reduce healthcare costs

7 / 25

What is medication adherence?

The act of taking medication as prescribed

The willingness of a patient to take medication

The ability of a patient to follow a medication regimen

All of the above

8 / 25

What is medication therapy management (MTM)?

A service provided by a physician to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a nurse to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a specialist to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a community pharmacist to optimize patient outcomes

9 / 25

What is the most common type of community pharmacy?

Mail order pharmacy

Compounding pharmacy

Retail pharmacy

Hospital pharmacy

10 / 25

What is the area designed for the preparation of sterile products called?

Out-patient pharmacy

Formulary

Clean room

In-patient pharmacy

11 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in the management of chronic conditions?

Making medication adjustments

Monitoring patient progress

All of the above

Providing patient education

12 / 25

What is the most common type of dispensing error

Medication labeling errors

Medication dosing errors

Medication substitution errors

Medication administration errors

13 / 25

What are the key responsibilities of a community pharmacist in managing a pharmacy?

Ensuring compliance with regulations and laws

Maintaining inventory and ordering supplies

Providing patient counseling and education

All of the above

14 / 25

What is a prescription?

A written order for physical therapy

A written order for a specialist consultation

A written order for a diagnostic test or procedure

A written order for medication from a physician or other authorized prescriber

15 / 25

What is the significance of regular review and updating of SOPs in a pharmacy setting?

To keep up with changes in regulations and laws

All of the above

To incorporate new technologies and best practices

To maintain the effectiveness of SOPs

16 / 25

What is the significance of regularly reviewing and updating Patient Information Leaflets (PILs)?

To reduce the risk of medication errors

To comply with regulatory requirements

All of the above

To ensure that the information provided is accurate and up-to-date

17 / 25

Good Pharmacy Practice and SOPs.

A set of guidelines for the management and operation of a pharmacy

A set of guidelines for the safe and effective use of medications

A set of guidelines for the conduct of pharmacists and pharmacy staff

All of the above

18 / 25

Voluntary or involuntary removal of a drug product by the manufacturer, usually pertaining to a particular shipment or lot number is called _______.

Recall

Code cart

IVPB

19 / 25

What is the purpose of conducting a medication review in a community pharmacy setting?

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

All of the above

To monitor medication efficacy

To increase medication adherence

20 / 25

What is the primary role of a community pharmacist?

Providing health and wellness advice

Dispensing medications

Conducting patient assessments

All of the above

21 / 25

A record of medications compounded in the pharmacy is called _________.

Yule time log

Compounding log

Bulk compounding log

22 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in checking for potential drug interactions or allergies?

To improve patient outcomes

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

To monitor medication efficacy

All of the above

23 / 25

What is a dispensing error?

An error in the preparation or labeling of a medication

An error in the storage or handling of a medication

An error in the prescription or order for a medication

An error in the administration of a medication

24 / 25

What is the main goal of community pharmacy management?

All of the above

To improve patient outcomes

To increase profits

To provide cost-effective care

25 / 25

What is the significance of non-verbal communication (body language) in patient-pharmacist interactions?

To improve patient satisfaction

To enhance patient trust and rapport

To convey empathy and understanding

All of the above

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The average score is 40%

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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Mydriasis

Loss of accommodation

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Reduced sweating

2 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Carbamazepine

Scopolamine

Atropine

Metoclopramide

3 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

Pregnancy

All of the above

IDDM

Renal insufficiency

4 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Dopamine

Isopropanol

All of the above

Epinephrine

5 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Edrophonium

Pyridostigmine

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

6 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Histamine

Prolactin

Oxytocin

Insulin

7 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Competitive antagonism

Non-competitive antagonism

Partial agonist

Antagonist

8 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

9 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Salicylates

Clofibrate

Prednisolone

Ethanol

10 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Methylation

α amino acid conjunction

Glucuronide conjugation

Sulfate conjunction:

11 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Tremor

Palpitation

Cerebral heamorrhage

Respiratory difficulty

12 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

All of the above

Inhibiting release from storage sites

Competing at receptor sites

13 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

All of the above

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

Atropine

14 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

None of above

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

15 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

Desmethyl spironolactone

None of the above

Canrenone

Acetylspironolactone

16 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

17 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

Prevents miosis

Inhibits GIT motility

18 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

To cause haemeostasis

All of the above

To stimulate would healing

19 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Diazepam

Carbamazepine

Phenytoin

Paraldehyde

20 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Pancuronium

Tubocurarine

Gallamine

All of the above

21 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Bradycardia

Hypertension

Dry mouth

Tachycardia

22 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Noradrenaline

Atropine

Isoprenaline

Acetylcholine

23 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Succinylcholine

Gallamine

D-tubocurarine

Hexamethonium

24 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Pilocarpine

Physostigmine

Bethanechol

Atropine

25 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Hypertension

Dysmenorrhoea

Cerebral thrombosis

Breast Carcinoma

26 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

None of the above

To check the activity straight muscle

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

27 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Ion pair transport

Facilitated diffusion

Active transport

Passive diffusion

28 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

Pralidoxime

Tubocurarine

29 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Stimulation of insulin release

None of above

Suppression of glucagon secretion

Suppression of insulin secretion

30 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M2 antagonist

M3 antagonist

M3 agonist

M1 antagonist

31 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

Pralidoxime

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

None of the above

32 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

Detect the impurity in a given drug

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

33 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Amphetamine

Dopamine

Ephedrine

All of the above

34 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinolytics

Cholinomimetic

Sympathomimetic

Cholinesterase inhibitor

35 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Cerebral cortex

Corpus striatum

Heart

Exocrine gland

36 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Stimulating B1 receptor

Blocking B2 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

Stimulating B2 receptor

37 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Alopecia

Agranulocytosis

Drug fever

Nephritis

38 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

F S H

Prolactin

Vasopressin

39 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Addition

Potentiation

Synergism

Antagonism

40 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Cyclopentolate

Hyoscine

Pirenzepine

Darifenacin

41 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Mental aberration

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Miosis

Increased heart rate

42 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

All of the above

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

43 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Amitriptyline

Alcohol

Warfarin

Digoxin

44 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Both a and b

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Ecothiopate

Physostigmine

45 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

46 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Carbamazepine

Rifampicin

Barbiturates

Grape juice

47 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

All of the above

Atropine

Phenothiazines

Scopolamines

48 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

P and S

Q and S

Q and R

R and S

49 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Constipation

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Block accommodation reflex

Bronchoconstriction

50 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

GPCR

Enzyme linked

Ion channel

Steroid receptor

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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1769

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 25E

b. Form 21

c. Form 20

d. Form 24D

2 / 25

One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 32

b. Form 24

c. Form 20

d. Form 36

3 / 25

Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule F

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule B

d. Schedule D

4 / 25

Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 2

b. 4

c. 3

d. 1

5 / 25

How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Five

b. Six

c. Three

d. Four

6 / 25

Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule S

d. Schedule E

7 / 25

Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule V

b. Schedule U

c. Schedule U1

d. Schedule Y

8 / 25

Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 3B

b. Section 17A

c. Section 17B

d. Section 17

9 / 25

Insulin comes under

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule H

d. Schedule O

10 / 25

Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

11 / 25

If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Drug

b. Misbranded drug

c. Adulterated drug

d. Spurious drug

12 / 25

Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1948

b. 1995

c. 1919

d. 1940

13 / 25

"Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for production of sera

b. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

c. Standard for surgical dressing

d. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

14 / 25

Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule W

c. Schedule U

d. Schedule X

15 / 25

Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

b. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

c. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

d. In cold place

16 / 25

Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule W

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule Y

17 / 25

Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Six years

b. Five years

c. Four years

d. Three years

18 / 25

Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form36

b. Form 30

c. Form 32

d. Form 31

19 / 25

Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

b. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

c. To prescribe drug

d. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

20 / 25

Appendix II is about

a. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

b. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

c. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

d. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

21 / 25

In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 5

b. 1

c. 2

d. 3

22 / 25

Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Sera

b. Capsule

c. Antigen

d. Toxins

23 / 25

Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

b. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

c. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

d. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

24 / 25

In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. President

b. State Government of Delhi

c. Election of Registered Pharmacists

d. Central Government

25 / 25

"Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule M

c. Schedule C

d. Schedule R

Your score is

The average score is 40%

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365

1 / 50

The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

a. 1940

b. 1985

c. 1950

d. 1955

2 / 50

MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

a. South Africa

b. Denmark

c. UK

d. Brazil

3 / 50

As per D and C act schedule T stated about

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Allopathy drugs

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Medical device

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Homeopathy drugs

4 / 50

Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

a. A

b. C and C1

c. B

d. X

5 / 50

TGA is regulatory agency of………….

a. Denmark

b. Zimbabwe

c. Australia

d. India

6 / 50

In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

a. Government Analyst

b. Chief Administrator medical officer of state

c. The officer in charge of drugs control organization

d. President of India

7 / 50

Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

a. Every 3 year

b. Every 2 year

c. Every 6 year

d. Every 5 year

8 / 50

Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

a. S

b. R1

c. R

d. O

9 / 50

For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

a. Symbol H displayed on right top corner of the label.

b. Symbol N displayed on left top corner of the label.

c. Symbol X given in red

d. Symbol N is red displayed on left top corner of the label

10 / 50

Dettol comes under

a. Schedule Q

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule N

d. Schedule O

11 / 50

State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

a. Five

b. Nine

c. Seven

d. Six

12 / 50

Patent Act is established in

a. 1940

b. 1919

c. 1970

d. 1948

13 / 50

Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

a. At the Temperature 2°C to 8°C and it must not allow to freeze

b. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

c. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

d. In cold place

14 / 50

Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

a. 2

b. 4

c. 3

d. 1

15 / 50

If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

a. Adulterated Drug

b. Spurious Drug

c. Misbranded Drug

d. True Drug

16 / 50

Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

a. 1954

b. 1985

c. 1948

d. 1919

17 / 50

Aspirin sodium comes under

a. Schedule J

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule H

d. Schedule G

18 / 50

For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

a. 21B

b. 20B

c. 20

d. 21

19 / 50

In 1954 one of the following act is passed

a. Poisonous Act.

b. Drug and magic Remedies Act

c. Narcotic and psychotropic substance Act

d. The Medical Termination of pregnancy Act

20 / 50

If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

a. Yellow

b. Red

c. White

d. Blue

21 / 50

Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

a. Long time adverse effects aster marketing drug

b. To determine maximum tolerated dose in humans, Pharmacodynamics effects, Adverse effect.

c. Determine Possible therapeutic uses, Effective doses range

d. Efficacy and Safety of drug in longer number of patients (500 patients)

22 / 50

DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

a. Four

b. Six

c. Five

d. Eight

23 / 50

Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

a. Form 26

b. Form 24

c. Form 25

d. Form 27

24 / 50

Pack size of drug is covered under

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule P1

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule R

25 / 50

One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

a. Chief administrative medical officer of the state

b. Assistant drug controller

c. All

d. Chief pharmacist of government hospital

26 / 50

In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

a. 500 patients

b. 100 patients

c. 10-12 patients

d. 1-10 patients

27 / 50

As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

a. List of maximum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

b. Area for opening retail pharmacy

c. Area required to open wholesale drug store

d. List of minimum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

28 / 50

MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

a. Brazil

b. Denmark

c. South Africa

d. UK

29 / 50

Coca, opium and hemp come under:

a. Dangerous Drug Act

b. Insecticide Act

c. Poisons Act

d. Spurious Drug Act

30 / 50

Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

a. Phase I

b. Phase V

c. Phase III

d. Phase II

31 / 50

Example of Schedule G drug is

a. Barbital

b. Cefuroxime

c. Metformin

d. Enalapril

32 / 50

Injection syringe and needles are covered under

a. Schedule Q

b. Schedule B

c. Schedule A

d. Schedule P

33 / 50

Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

a. List of generic drugs

b. None of the above

c. List of incurable diseases

d. Guidelines for clinical Trials

34 / 50

Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

a. Q

b. A

c. FF

d. D

35 / 50

The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule M

d. Schedule F

36 / 50

List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule Q

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule R

37 / 50

Schedule J is related to

a. Curable disease

b. Pack sizes of drugs.

c. GMP

d. List of disease and ailments which drug cannot claim.

38 / 50

The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

a. Drug Controller

b. Ministry of Education

c. Central Government

d. President, Pharmacy Council of India

39 / 50

Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

a. X

b. Y

c. W

d. V

40 / 50

Schedule C is related to

a. List of Allopathic product

b. List of Homeopathy product

c. List of Ayurvedic product

d. List of Biological and Immunological product

41 / 50

As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

a. Temperature not exceeding 5°C

b. Well closed container, protect from light, in cool place, protect from light

c. A Cold place

d. A cool place

42 / 50

Hatch Waxman Act is related to

a. Spurious drugs Act

b. Over the counter drugs

c. Dangerous drugs Act

d. Banned drugs

43 / 50

List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule I

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule J

44 / 50

Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

a. Ayurvedic drugs

b. Misbranded drugs

c. Toilet preparations

d. Schedule ‘C’ ‘G’ drugs

45 / 50

For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

a. 400 square meters

b. 250 square meters

c. 150 square meters

d. 500 square meters

46 / 50

Schedule N states

a. List of minimum equipment required for manufacturing of drug.

b. Standard for cosmetics

c. Requirement of factory premises and hygienic condition to complied

d. List of minimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy

47 / 50

Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule L

c. Schedule J

d. Schedule K

48 / 50

List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

a. G

b. X

c. K

d. H

49 / 50

Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

a. Disease or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure

b. List of drug exempted from the provision of import of drugs

c. List of prescription drugs

d. Requirements of factory premises

50 / 50

As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

a. Ointment formulation

b. Parenteral preparation

c. Skin cosmetic preparation

d. Ophthalmic preparation

Your score is

The average score is 38%

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