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Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz

  • Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz, Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Test, Pharmacist Exam MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
  • This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam. 
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Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz

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What is the role of the hospital formulary in drug distribution?

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What is the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic on hospital pharmacies globally?

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What is the role of inventory control in supply chain management?

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How does Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP) improve the quality of care in hospitals?

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Who sets the standards for Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

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What is the main role of a hospital pharmacist?

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What is one of the key objectives of hospital pharmacy?

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What is the role of pharmacists in drug distribution for out-patients?

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What is the primary difference between drug distribution for in-patients and out-patients?

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What is the main challenge faced by hospital pharmacies in developing countries?

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Which country has the highest number of hospital pharmacies?

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How does a hospital pharmacist interact with other healthcare professionals?

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How do international regulatory agencies, such as the World Health Organization (WHO), influence hospital pharmacy practices?

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What is the importance of hospital pharmacists in the healthcare system?

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What is the impact of incorrect drug distribution on patient safety?

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What is the role of pharmacists in drug distribution for in-patients?

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How does the role of hospital pharmacists vary between developed and developing countries?

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What is the purpose of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

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What is the primary objective of supply chain management in hospital pharmacy?

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What is one of the key components of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

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What is the impact of poor supply chain management on patient care?

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In what setting does a hospital pharmacist work?

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What is the impact of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP) on patient safety?

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What is the impact of effective supply chain management on patient safety?

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What is the role of pharmacists in supply chain management?

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The average score is 51%

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Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz

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What is the significance of using appropriate tone and pace when communicating with a patient over the telephone?

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The process of quickly obtaining an out-of-stock medication in an urgent situation is called _________.

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What is a prescription?

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A record of medications compounded in the pharmacy is called _________.

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What is the main goal of community pharmacy management?

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What is the role of a community pharmacist in checking for potential drug interactions or allergies?

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Voluntary or involuntary removal of a drug product by the manufacturer, usually pertaining to a particular shipment or lot number is called _______.

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What is medication adherence?

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What is the primary role of a community pharmacist?

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What is the significance of regularly reviewing and updating Patient Information Leaflets (PILs)?

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What is the significance of regular training and education for staff in minimizing dispensing errors?

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What is the significance of regular review and updating of SOPs in a pharmacy setting?

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What is medication therapy management (MTM)?

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What is the significance of addressing non-adherence to medication regimens?

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What is the significance of non-verbal communication (body language) in patient-pharmacist interactions?

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What is the area designed for the preparation of sterile products called?

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What is the significance of providing immunization services in a community pharmacy setting?

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What is the most common type of dispensing error

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What is the most common type of community pharmacy?

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Good Pharmacy Practice and SOPs.

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What is a dispensing error?

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What is the role of technology in community pharmacy management?

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What is the purpose of conducting a medication review in a community pharmacy setting?

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What is the role of a community pharmacist in the management of chronic conditions?

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What are the key responsibilities of a community pharmacist in managing a pharmacy?

Your score is

The average score is 39%

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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

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Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

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Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

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Major adverse effect of clonidine is

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Bioassays are carried out to:

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All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

6 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

7 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

8 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

9 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

10 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

11 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

12 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

13 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

14 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

15 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

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All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

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Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

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Action of D-tubocurarine is

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Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

20 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

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In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

22 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

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………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

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Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

25 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

26 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

27 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

28 / 50

Darifenacin is a

29 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

30 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

31 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

32 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

33 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

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Drug of choice in motion sickness is

35 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

36 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

37 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

38 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

39 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

40 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

41 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

42 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

43 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

44 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

45 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

46 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

47 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

48 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

49 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

50 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

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The average score is 30%

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Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

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1. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

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2. Schedule M, states that

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3. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

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4. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

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5. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

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6. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

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7. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

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8. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

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9. "Schedule F3" is related with

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10. Form 20 states that

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11. Crocin is sale under

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12. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

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13. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

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14. Spurious drug comes under

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15. Pharmacy Act is established in

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16. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

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17. Appendix II is about

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18. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

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19. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

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20. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

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21. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

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22. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

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23. Insulin comes under

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24. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

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25. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

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The average score is 39%

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356

1 / 50

1. Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

2 / 50

2. In 1954 one of the following act is passed

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3. Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

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4. In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

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5. If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

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6. Schedule C is related to

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7. As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

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8. The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

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9. MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

10 / 50

10. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

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11. Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

12 / 50

12. For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

13 / 50

13. List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

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14. Schedule N states

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15. Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

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16. DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

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17. Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

18 / 50

18. Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

19 / 50

19. Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

20 / 50

20. Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

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21. For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

22 / 50

22. As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

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23. Example of Schedule G drug is

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24. One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

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25. Hatch Waxman Act is related to

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26. Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

27 / 50

27. Injection syringe and needles are covered under

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28. Dettol comes under

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29. Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

30 / 50

30. If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

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31. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

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32. The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

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33. Schedule J is related to

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34. List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

35 / 50

35. As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

36 / 50

36. MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

37 / 50

37. Patent Act is established in

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38. TGA is regulatory agency of………….

39 / 50

39. In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

40 / 50

40. Pack size of drug is covered under

41 / 50

41. Aspirin sodium comes under

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42. Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

43 / 50

43. The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

44 / 50

44. Coca, opium and hemp come under:

45 / 50

45. List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

46 / 50

46. As per D and C act schedule T stated about

47 / 50

47. For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

48 / 50

48. Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

49 / 50

49. Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

50 / 50

50. Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

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The average score is 38%

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