GPAT Quiz 2024

  • GPAT multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from GPAT Quiz, GPAT Mock Test Series, GPAT Exam 2024 MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
  • This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam. 
1939
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GPAT Mock Test-2024

1 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is withdrawn from the market due to torsade de pointes?

2 / 100

Thioglycolic acid-like compounds have applications in following type of cosmetic formulations:

3 / 100

Glass transition temperature is detected through
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

4 / 100

In organic molecules, fluorescence seldom results from absorption of UV radiation of wavelengths lower than

5 / 100

Which one of the following is a plasminogen activator?

6 / 100

In the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and Rules, the Schedule relating to GMP is

7 / 100

One of the following statements is not true:

8 / 100

At physiological pH, the following compound would be mostly in the

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9 / 100

Identify the drug which is not used in the treatment of malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum.

10 / 100

Drugs following one compartment open model pharmacokinetics eliminate

11 / 100

Choose the right combination:

12 / 100

Sildenafil is used for treatment of one of the following
disorders:

13 / 100

Tropane alkaloids are not present in

14 / 100

Quassia wood is adulterated with

15 / 100

The healing agent used in hand creams is

16 / 100

Measurement of inulin renal clearance is a measure for

17 / 100

The amount of barbaloin present in Aloe vera is

18 / 100

Which filler can not be used for the preparation of tablets for amine containing basic drugs to avoid discolouration of the tablets?

19 / 100

Streptomycin cannot be given orally for treatment of tuberculosis because

20 / 100

Artemisinin contains the following group in its structure:

21 / 100

Which one of the following is the commonly used bulking agent in the formulation of freeze dried low dose drug products?

22 / 100

X-ray crystallographic analysis of an optically active compound determines its

23 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is not a typical antipsychotic agent?

24 / 100

An isosteric replacement for carboxylic acid group is

25 / 100

In which of the following techniques, the sample is kept below triple point?

26 / 100

Guggul lipids are obtained from

27 / 100

How many mL of a 1:500 w/v stock solution should be used to make 5 litres of 1:2000 w/v solution?

28 / 100

In nail polish, the following polymer is used as a film-former:

29 / 100

Ethambutol molecule has

30 / 100

Identify the one rational combination which has clinical benefit:

31 / 100

Humectants added in cosmetic preparations generally act by

32 / 100

Ganciclovir is mainly used for the treatment of infection caused by

33 / 100

Oxidative phosphorylation involves

34 / 100

Cyclophosphamide as anticancer agent acts as

35 / 100

Select the correct combination of drugs for the treatment of patients suffering from Hepatitis C.

36 / 100

The chemical behaviour of morphine alkaloid is

37 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is most effective in preventing transmission of HIV virus from the mother to the foetus?

38 / 100

Anisocytic stomata are present in

39 / 100

The following protein/polypeptide has a quaternary structure:

40 / 100

In thiazides, following substituent is essential for diuretic activity:

41 / 100

Which one of the following drugs specifically inhibits calcineurin in the activated T lymphocytes?

42 / 100

Improvement of memory in Alzheimer’s disease is brought about by drugs which increase transmission in

43 / 100

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor is

44 / 100

Aminotransferases usually requires the following for their activity:

45 / 100

The effects observed following systemic administration of levodopa in the treatment of Parkinsonism have been
attributed to its catabolism to dopamine. Carbidopa can markedly increase the proportion of levodopa that
crosses the blood-brain barrier by

46 / 100

The ability of human eye using illuminated area to detect a particle is limited to

47 / 100

Chemical nomenclature of procaine is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

48 / 100

Bacopa monnieri plant belongs to the family

49 / 100

Eugenol is present in

50 / 100

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

51 / 100

The common structural feature amongst the three
categories of anti-convulsant drugs barbiturates,
succinimides and hydantoins is
(a)  (b)
(c)  (d)

52 / 100

The role of borax in cold creams is

53 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is prescribed for the treatment of Philadelphia chromosome positive patients with chronic myeloid Leukemia?

54 / 100

The temperature condition for storage of drug products under cold temperature is given as

55 / 100

Gingkgo biloba is used for its

56 / 100

Indicate the HPLC detector that is most sensitive to change in temperature:

57 / 100

Class 100 area is referred to

58 / 100

Which of the following monoclonal antibodies is prescribed for patients with non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

59 / 100

Alkaloids are not precipitated by

60 / 100

Rabies vaccine (living) is prepared using

61 / 100

The rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis is one of the following:

62 / 100

It is required to maintain a therapeutic concentration of 10 microgram/mL for 12 hours of a drug having half life of 1.386 h and Vd of 5 L. The dose required in a sustained release product will be

63 / 100

Drugs in suspensions and semi-solid formulations always degrade by

64 / 100

Myasthenia gravis is diagnosed with improved neuromuscular function by using

65 / 100

Nicotinic action of acetylcholine is blocked by the drug

66 / 100

Purity of water can be assessed by determining one of its following properties instrumentally:

67 / 100

An example of N-glycoside is

68 / 100

In organic molecules, fluorescence seldom results from absorption of UV radiation of wavelengths lower than

69 / 100

Which one of the following is a flocculating agent for a negatively charged drug?

70 / 100

Highly branched three dimensional macromolecules with controlled structures with all bonds originating from a central core are known as

71 / 100

In Gas-Liquid Chromatography, some of the samples need to be derivatized in order to increase their

72 / 100

One mg of Lycopodium spores used in quantitative microscopy contains an average of

73 / 100

Which of the following non-opioid analgesics is a prodrug?

74 / 100

Digitalis toxicity is enhanced by co-administration of

75 / 100

Cardiac glycosides have the following configuration in the Aglycone part of the steroid nucleus:

76 / 100

Amitryptyline is synthesized from the following starting material:

77 / 100

Proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole and lansoprazole contain the following ring system:

78 / 100

The volume of distribution of a drug administered at a dose of 300 mg and exhibiting 30 microgram/mL instantaneous concentration in plasma shall be

79 / 100

Triterpenoids are active constituents of

80 / 100

A metabolite obtained from Aspergillus terreus that can bind very tightly to HMG CoA reductase enzyme is

81 / 100

The characteristic of non-linear pharmacokinetics includes:

82 / 100

A drug (200 mg dose) administered in tablet form and as intravenous injection (50 mg dose) showed AUG of 100 and 200 microgram h/mL, respectively. The absolute availability of the drug through oral administration is

83 / 100

Geriatric population should be included in the following phase of clinical trials:

84 / 100

The applicability of Noyes-Whitney equation is to describe

85 / 100

A compound will be sensitive towards IR radiation only when one of the following properties undergo
transition on

86 / 100

Stevens Johnson syndrome is the most common adverse effect associated with one of the following category of drugs:

87 / 100

Which one of the following is used as a mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder and also in certain epileptic
convulsions?

88 / 100

Bloom strength is used to check the quality of
(a) (b)
(c)  (d)

89 / 100

Which one of the following drugs does not act through G-Protein coupled receptors?

90 / 100

Barbiturates with substitution at the following position possess acceptable hypnotic activity:

91 / 100

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

92 / 100

Which one of the following is not an ex-officio member of Pharmacy Council of India?

93 / 100

Coulter counter is used in determination of

94 / 100

What quantities of 95% v/v and 45% v/v alcohols are to be mixed to make 800 mL of 65% v/v alcohol?

95 / 100

In the mixing of thymol and menthol, the following type of incompatibility occurs:

96 / 100

Aliskiren acts by

97 / 100

The given antibiotic is an example of ansamycins:

98 / 100

In the TCA cycle, at which of the following enzyme-catalysed steps, incorporation of elements of water into an intermediate of the cycle takes place?

99 / 100

Many xenobiotics are oxidized by cytochrome P450 in order to

100 / 100

For glyburide, all of the following metabolic reactions are logical except:

Your score is

The average score is 20%

0%

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Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

2 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

3 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

4 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

5 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

6 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

7 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

8 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

9 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

10 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

11 / 50

DDS stands for......

12 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

13 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

14 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

15 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

16 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

17 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

18 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

19 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C30H62 . 

20 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

21 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

22 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

23 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

24 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

25 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

26 / 50

Functional group present in INH

27 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

28 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

29 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

30 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

31 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

32 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

33 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

34 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

35 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

36 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

37 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

38 / 50

Excystation is _______

39 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

40 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

41 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

42 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

43 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

44 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

45 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

46 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

47 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

48 / 50

Antiseptic are

49 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

50 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

Your score is

The average score is 22%

0%

2507
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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

2 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

3 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

4 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

5 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

6 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

7 / 50

Darifenacin is a

8 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

9 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

10 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

11 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

12 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

13 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

14 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

15 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

16 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

17 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

18 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

19 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

20 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

21 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

22 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

23 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

24 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

25 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

26 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

27 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

28 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

29 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

30 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

31 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

32 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

33 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

34 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

35 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

36 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

37 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

38 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

39 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

40 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

41 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

42 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

43 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

44 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

45 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

46 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

47 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

48 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

49 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

50 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Your score is

The average score is 30%

0%

1671

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

2 / 25

2. "Schedule F3" is related with

3 / 25

3. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

4 / 25

4. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

5 / 25

5. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

6 / 25

6. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

7 / 25

7. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

8 / 25

8. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

9 / 25

9. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

10 / 25

10. Appendix II is about

11 / 25

11. Form 20 states that

12 / 25

12. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

13 / 25

13. Crocin is sale under

14 / 25

14. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

15 / 25

15. Pharmacy Act is established in

16 / 25

16. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

17 / 25

17. Spurious drug comes under

18 / 25

18. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

19 / 25

19. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

20 / 25

20. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

21 / 25

21. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

22 / 25

22. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

23 / 25

23. Insulin comes under

24 / 25

24. Schedule M, states that

25 / 25

25. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

Your score is

The average score is 39%

0%

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Pharmacology MCQs for DPEE and GPAT

1 / 51

Acetylcholine is not used in clinical practice because:

2 / 51

Which of the following drugs is both a muscarinic and nicotinic blocker?

3 / 51

Most local anesthetic agents consist of:

4 / 51

An agonist is a substance that:

5 / 51

Characteristics of carbachol include all of the following EXCEPT:

6 / 51

The effect of the drug on parasympathetic function declines rapidly in all organs EXCEPT:

7 / 51

A hydrophilic medicinal agent has the following property:

8 / 51

Indicate the skeletal muscle relaxant, which is a depolarizing agent:

9 / 51

Indicate the location of M2 cholinoreceptor type:

10 / 51

Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following?

11 / 51

Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs through liver is minimized:

12 / 51

If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it’s called:

13 / 51

Which of the following agents is a ganglion-blocking drug?

14 / 51

Indicate the drug, which is rapidly and fully distributed into CNS and has a greater effect than most other antimuscarinic
agents?

15 / 51

What kind of substances can’t permeate membranes by passive diffusion?

16 / 51

Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following EXCEPT:

17 / 51

What does “affinity” mean?

18 / 51

Indicate the drug, which has greater potency of the local anesthetic action:

19 / 51

Indicate the local anesthetic agent, which has a shorter duration of action:

20 / 51

Target proteins which a drug molecule binds are:

21 / 51

Which one of the following groups is responsible for the duration of the local anesthetic action?

22 / 51

Pick out the answer which is the most appropriate to the term “receptor”

23 / 51

Which of the following drugs is a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant?

24 / 51

What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

25 / 51

Which one of the following local anesthetics is an ester of benzoic acid?

26 / 51

What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

27 / 51

Indicate the local anesthetic, which is an ester of paraaminobenzoic acid:

28 / 51

The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:

29 / 51

Local anesthetics produce:

30 / 51

Which of the following direct-acting cholinomimetics is mainly muscarinic in action?

31 / 51

Ionizable group is responsible for:

32 / 51

Muscarinic receptors are located in:

33 / 51

Indicate a muscarinic receptor-blocking drug:

34 / 51

Pharmacodynamics involves the following?

35 / 51

What is implied by «active transport»?

36 / 51

Parasympathomimetic drugs cause:

37 / 51

What does the term “bioavailability” mean?

38 / 51

Which of the following cholinomimetics activates both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors?

39 / 51

The symptoms of mushroom poisoning include all of the following EXCEPT:

40 / 51

Acetylcholine is not a specific neurotransmitter at:

41 / 51

M3 receptor subtype is located:

42 / 51

A good local anesthetic agent shouldn’t cause:

43 / 51

Which one of the following groups is responsible for the potency and the toxicity of local anesthetics?

44 / 51

The reasons determing bioavailability are:

45 / 51

An antagonist is a substance that:

46 / 51

Pharmacokinetics is:

 

47 / 51

Indicate a cholinomimetic agent, which is related to direct-acting drugs:

48 / 51

The mechanism of atropine action is:

49 / 51

The group of nicotinic receptor-blocking drugs consists of:

50 / 51

What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

51 / 51

If an agonist can produce maximal effects and has high efficacy it’s called:

Your score is

The average score is 23%

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