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Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz

Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz

Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz, Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz, Pharmacist Exam MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam.

1539

Created by

Noteskarts

Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz

1 / 25

The process of quickly obtaining an out-of-stock medication in an urgent situation is called _________.

Code cart

Final fllter

Bulk compounding log

Emergency drug procurement

2 / 25

Good Pharmacy Practice and SOPs.

A set of guidelines for the management and operation of a pharmacy

A set of guidelines for the safe and effective use of medications

All of the above

A set of guidelines for the conduct of pharmacists and pharmacy staff

3 / 25

What is the primary role of a community pharmacist?

Providing health and wellness advice

Conducting patient assessments

Dispensing medications

All of the above

4 / 25

What is the significance of regularly reviewing and updating Patient Information Leaflets (PILs)?

To reduce the risk of medication errors

To ensure that the information provided is accurate and up-to-date

All of the above

To comply with regulatory requirements

5 / 25

What is the most common type of community pharmacy?

Hospital pharmacy

Mail order pharmacy

Retail pharmacy

Compounding pharmacy

6 / 25

What is the role of technology in community pharmacy management?

Improving patient safety

Enhancing communication with healthcare providers

All of the above

Streamlining processes and increasing efficiency

7 / 25

What is the significance of addressing non-adherence to medication regimens?

To improve patient outcomes

All of the above

To reduce healthcare costs

To reduce the risk of adverse effects

8 / 25

What is the significance of regular training and education for staff in minimizing dispensing errors?

To reduce the risk of human error

To enhance staff knowledge and skills

All of the above

To comply with regulatory requirements

9 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in the management of chronic conditions?

Monitoring patient progress

Making medication adjustments

All of the above

Providing patient education

10 / 25

What is the significance of using appropriate tone and pace when communicating with a patient over the telephone?

To reduce the risk of misinterpretation

To increase patient satisfaction

To improve patient understanding

All of the above

11 / 25

What is the most common type of dispensing error

Medication substitution errors

Medication labeling errors

Medication administration errors

Medication dosing errors

12 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in checking for potential drug interactions or allergies?

To improve patient outcomes

All of the above

To monitor medication efficacy

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

13 / 25

What is the purpose of conducting a medication review in a community pharmacy setting?

To monitor medication efficacy

All of the above

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

To increase medication adherence

14 / 25

What is medication therapy management (MTM)?

A service provided by a nurse to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a physician to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a specialist to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a community pharmacist to optimize patient outcomes

15 / 25

What is the area designed for the preparation of sterile products called?

Formulary

Clean room

In-patient pharmacy

Out-patient pharmacy

16 / 25

What is medication adherence?

The willingness of a patient to take medication

The act of taking medication as prescribed

All of the above

The ability of a patient to follow a medication regimen

17 / 25

What is the main goal of community pharmacy management?

All of the above

To improve patient outcomes

To provide cost-effective care

To increase profits

18 / 25

What are the key responsibilities of a community pharmacist in managing a pharmacy?

Ensuring compliance with regulations and laws

Maintaining inventory and ordering supplies

Providing patient counseling and education

All of the above

19 / 25

What is a prescription?

A written order for a diagnostic test or procedure

A written order for medication from a physician or other authorized prescriber

A written order for a specialist consultation

A written order for physical therapy

20 / 25

What is the significance of providing immunization services in a community pharmacy setting?

To improve patient outcomes

All of the above

To increase patient convenience

To increase access to immunization services

21 / 25

What is a dispensing error?

An error in the administration of a medication

An error in the preparation or labeling of a medication

An error in the prescription or order for a medication

An error in the storage or handling of a medication

22 / 25

What is the significance of regular review and updating of SOPs in a pharmacy setting?

To maintain the effectiveness of SOPs

To incorporate new technologies and best practices

All of the above

To keep up with changes in regulations and laws

23 / 25

What is the significance of non-verbal communication (body language) in patient-pharmacist interactions?

To convey empathy and understanding

All of the above

To enhance patient trust and rapport

To improve patient satisfaction

24 / 25

A record of medications compounded in the pharmacy is called _________.

Bulk compounding log

Yule time log

Compounding log

25 / 25

Voluntary or involuntary removal of a drug product by the manufacturer, usually pertaining to a particular shipment or lot number is called _______.

Code cart

IVPB

Recall

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Your score is

The average score is 39%

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1759

Created on June 10, 2022 By

Noteskarts

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Isoniazid

D. Ethambutol

2 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

A. ene

B. ic

C. one

D. yl

3 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

A. Pyridine

B. Imidazole

C. Pyrimidine

D. Pyrazine

4 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

A. Sulphamethoxine

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphamethoxy pyridazine

5 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

A. True

B. False

6 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

A. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase

B. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase

C. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase

D. Activation of DNA gyrase

7 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

A. Crystalluria

B. Hansen's disease

C. Liver cirrhosis

D. Mendel disease

8 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

A. Phenyl and benzyl

B. Propyl and phenyl

C. Methyl and benzyl

D. Butyl and phenyl

9 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

A. Methyl Group

B. Ethynyl group

C. Propionyl group

D. Propargyl group

10 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

A. Clofazimine and Rifampicin

B. Dopamine and Rifampicin

C. Clofazimine and ofloxacin

D. All of them

11 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

A. Silver

B. Titanium

C. Lead

D. Tin

12 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

A. Temperature below 15°c

B. Temperature above 15°c

C. Temperature should be 30°c

D. Temperature between 15-30°c

13 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

A. 4,4'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. 2,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

C. 4,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

D. 4,4'-diamino dimethyl sulphone

14 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

A. Chlorhexidine

B. Diazepam

C. Miglitol

D. Lorazepam

15 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

A. Piperidine

B. Pyridine

C. Oxazole

D. Pyrimidine

16 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

A. Exactly a double bond

B. Exactly a triple bond

C. Exactly two double bond

D. More than two double bond

17 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

A. Alcohol

B. Phenol

C. Iodine

D. All of the above

18 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

A. Specifying the number of carbon atoms associated with the bond

B. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at beginning of the C=C bond

C. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at end of the C=C bond

D. Specifying the number of carbon atoms in the entire chain

19 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

A. Aniline

B. Sulfone

C. Amine

D. All of them

20 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

A. Pyrazine-4- carbohydrazide

B. Pyridine-4- carbohydrazide

C. pyrimidine-4- carbohydrazide

D. pyridine-4-carboxamide

21 / 50

Antiseptic are

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

22 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

A. para amino salicylic acid

B. Clofazimine

C. Dapsone

D. Ethambutol

23 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Entamoeba subtilis

D. Entamoeba chrysogenum

24 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

A. Cotrimoxazole

B. Sulphadiazine

C. Sulphacetamide sodium

D. Sulphamethoxazole

25 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethionamide

C. Triacetazone

D. None of the above

26 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

27 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

A. Vicucidal

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacteriostatic

D. Disinfectant

28 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Dapsone

D. Di-iodohydroxy quinoline

29 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

A. Amoebic dysentery

B. Helminth infection

C. Fungal infection

D. None of them

30 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

A. Benzoyl peroxide

B. Tramadol

C. Zidovudine

D. Fluoxetine

31 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

A. Salicylic acid

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Dapsone

D. Methyl salicylic acid

32 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

A. Damage to DNA

B. Enzyme inhibition

C. Cell wall destruction

D. All of them

33 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

A. Ethambutol

B. Diazepam

C. Haldol

D. Isoniazid

34 / 50

Excystation is _______

A. Formation of trophozoites from cyst

B. Formation of cyst from trophozoites

C. Both of them

D. None of them

35 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

A. Sulphadimethoxine

B. Sulphadoxine

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphadimethoxy pyridazine

36 / 50

DDS stands for......

A. Diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. Diamino divinyl sulphone

C. Dimethyl diphenyl sulphone

D. Diphenyl sulphone

37 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

A. Jaundice

B. Diarrhea

C. Peripheral neuropathy

D. All of them

38 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

A. Disinfection

B. Antisepsis

C. Sterilization

D. Coronisation

39 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

A. Compared to antibiotics

B. Compared to statins

C. Compared to sulpha drugs

D. Compared to antitubercular drugs

40 / 50

Functional group present in INH

A. Carbohydrazide

B. Carbonyl group

C. Carboxamide

D. Carboxylic group

41 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

A. Bacteria

B. Spores

C. Fungi

D. Viruses

42 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

A. Direct contact

B. Formites

C. Contaminated food and drink

D. Rodents

43 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

A. Cyclopropane

B. Cyclobutane

C. Cyclopentane

D. Cyclohexane

44 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C₃₀H_{62 .}

A. Propdecane

B. Eicosane

C. Triacontane

D. Dodecane

45 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphacetamide

B. Sulphasalazine

C. Sulphapyridine

D. Sulphadoxine

46 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

A. Crystalluria

B. Peripheral neuropathy

C. Liver damage

D. Metabolic syndrome

47 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphamethoxazole

B. Sulfafuraole

C. Sulphadimidine

D. Sulphapyridine

48 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

A. Hepatic amoebiasis

B. Pulmonary amebiasis

C. Cerebral amobiasis

D. All of the above

49 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

A. Moxifloxacin

B. Dapsone

C. Clofazimine

D. Ethambutol

50 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

A. Alkanes

B. Alkenes

C. Alkynes

D. Alkaloids

Your score is

The average score is 23%

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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Succinylcholine

Gallamine

D-tubocurarine

Hexamethonium

2 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Carbamazepine

Barbiturates

Rifampicin

Grape juice

3 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Facilitated diffusion

Ion pair transport

Passive diffusion

Active transport

4 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

None of above

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

5 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

Inhibiting release from storage sites

Competing at receptor sites

All of the above

6 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Suppression of glucagon secretion

Stimulation of insulin release

None of above

Suppression of insulin secretion

7 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Mydriasis

Reduced sweating

Loss of accommodation

8 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

F S H

Prolactin

Vasopressin

9 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Alcohol

Digoxin

Amitriptyline

Warfarin

10 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Drug fever

Agranulocytosis

Nephritis

Alopecia

11 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Stimulating B1 receptor

Blocking B2 receptor

Stimulating B2 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

12 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Clofibrate

Prednisolone

Ethanol

Salicylates

13 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Both a and b

Physostigmine

Ecothiopate

Dispropyl flurophosphate

14 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Cerebral cortex

Heart

Corpus striatum

Exocrine gland

15 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Ion channel

Steroid receptor

GPCR

Enzyme linked

16 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

Detect the impurity in a given drug

17 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Scopolamine

Metoclopramide

Atropine

Carbamazepine

18 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinesterase inhibitor

Cholinomimetic

Sympathomimetic

Cholinolytics

19 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Gallamine

Pancuronium

All of the above

Tubocurarine

20 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Noradrenaline

Isoprenaline

Acetylcholine

Atropine

21 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

All of the above

Renal insufficiency

IDDM

Pregnancy

22 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Bethanechol

Atropine

Physostigmine

Pilocarpine

23 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Tachycardia

Bradycardia

Dry mouth

Hypertension

24 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Non-competitive antagonism

Competitive antagonism

Antagonist

Partial agonist

25 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Prolactin

Insulin

Histamine

Oxytocin

26 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Breast Carcinoma

Cerebral thrombosis

Dysmenorrhoea

Hypertension

27 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

Q and R

R and S

P and S

Q and S

28 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Sulfate conjunction:

α amino acid conjunction

Glucuronide conjugation

Methylation

29 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Atropine

Neostigmine

All of the above

Physostigmine

30 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To cause haemeostasis

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

To stimulate would healing

All of the above

31 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

32 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

All of the above

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

33 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

34 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M2 antagonist

M3 agonist

M1 antagonist

M3 antagonist

35 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Dopamine

Amphetamine

All of the above

Ephedrine

36 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Neostigmine

Tubocurarine

Physostigmine

Pralidoxime

37 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

Pralidoxime

Physostigmine

None of the above

Neostigmine

38 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Potentiation

Synergism

Antagonism

Addition

39 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

All of the above

Phenothiazines

Atropine

Scopolamines

40 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Paraldehyde

Phenytoin

Diazepam

Carbamazepine

41 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Pirenzepine

Cyclopentolate

Hyoscine

Darifenacin

42 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

To check the activity straight muscle

None of the above

43 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Increased heart rate

Mental aberration

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Miosis

44 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Inhibits GIT motility

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Prevents miosis

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

45 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

46 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Epinephrine

All of the above

Isopropanol

Dopamine

47 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Cerebral heamorrhage

Palpitation

Respiratory difficulty

Tremor

48 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Constipation

Bronchoconstriction

Block accommodation reflex

49 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Pyridostigmine

Physostigmine

Edrophonium

Neostigmine

50 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

None of the above

Desmethyl spironolactone

Canrenone

Acetylspironolactone

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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1745

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule U

b. Schedule V

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule U1

2 / 25

2. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule F

c. Schedule B

d. Schedule D

3 / 25

3. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Capsule

b. Toxins

c. Antigen

d. Sera

4 / 25

4. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 1

b. 3

c. 2

d. 5

5 / 25

5. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Drug

b. Adulterated drug

c. Misbranded drug

d. Spurious drug

6 / 25

6. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. Central Government

b. President

c. Election of Registered Pharmacists

d. State Government of Delhi

7 / 25

7. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 4

b. 1

c. 3

d. 2

8 / 25

8. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To prescribe drug

b. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

c. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

d. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

9 / 25

9. Insulin comes under

a. Schedule J

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule O

10 / 25

10. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule U

c. Schedule W

d. Schedule X

11 / 25

11. Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

b. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

c. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

d. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

12 / 25

12. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

b. In cold place

c. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

d. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

13 / 25

13. Appendix II is about

a. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

b. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

c. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

d. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

14 / 25

14. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Three years

b. Four years

c. Six years

d. Five years

15 / 25

15. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 24D

b. Form 25E

c. Form 21

d. Form 20

16 / 25

16. Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 17B

b. Section 17

c. Section 17A

d. Section 3B

17 / 25

17. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Four

b. Three

c. Five

d. Six

18 / 25

18. "Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for production of sera

b. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

c. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

d. Standard for surgical dressing

19 / 25

19. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule C

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule M

20 / 25

20. Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

21 / 25

21. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form 30

b. Form36

c. Form 32

d. Form 31

22 / 25

22. Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule W

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule Y

23 / 25

23. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 24

b. Form 20

c. Form 36

d. Form 32

24 / 25

24. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule E

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule S

d. Schedule R

25 / 25

25. Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1919

b. 1995

c. 1948

d. 1940

Your score is

The average score is 39%

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Social Pharmacy Quiz

1 / 25

Why is breastfeeding considered to be the best form of nutrition for infants?

All of the above

It provides all the necessary nutrients

It promotes bonding between the mother and child

It helps to protect the infant from infections

2 / 25

What is the main objective of the National AYUSH Mission (NAM)?

All of the above

To control the spread of infectious diseases

To promote the use of traditional and alternative medicine

To improve the availability of and access to healthcare for rural populations

3 / 25

Which of the following is not a method of family planning?

Condoms

Oral contraceptives

Sterilization

Fasting

4 / 25

What is the main objective of the Family Planning 2020 (FP2020) initiative?

To improve maternal and child health

To reduce maternal mortality

To increase access to family planning services

All of the above

5 / 25

What is the difference between active and passive immunity?

Active immunity is acquired through vaccination, passive immunity is acquired through exposure to a disease.

Active immunity is acquired through exposure to a disease, passive immunity is acquired through exposure to antibodies

Active immunity is acquired through exposure to antibodies, passive immunity is acquired through vaccination

Active immunity is acquired through exposure to a disease, passive immunity is acquired through vaccination.

6 / 25

In what way can pharmacists support the use of family planning methods?

By providing counseling on side effects

All of the above

By providing access to emergency contraceptive options

By providing education on proper use

7 / 25

What is the primary role of pharmacists in mother and child health?

Prescribing medications

Advising on breastfeeding and nutrition

Administering vaccinations

Conducting physical examinations

8 / 25

What does the WHO define as "health"?

The absence of disease or infirmity

A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being

The absence of pain or discomfort

The ability to perform daily activities without assistance

9 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Mental Health Programme (NMHP)?

To reduce maternal mortality

All of the above

To control the spread of infectious diseases

To improve access to mental health services

10 / 25

According to the WHO, what are the main determinants of health?

Medical treatments and technological advancements

Genetics and lifestyle choices

Socioeconomic status and environmental factors

Access to healthcare and education

11 / 25

What is the main focus of the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)?

Improving maternal health

All of the above

Achieving universal primary education

Eradicating extreme poverty and hunger

12 / 25

What are the types of immunity?

None of the above

Both A and B

Active immunity

Passive immunity

13 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Health Policy of India?

To control the spread of infectious diseases

All of the above

To provide universal access to healthcare

To improve maternal and child health

14 / 25

Which of the following is the primary role of pharmacists in Demography and Family Planning?

Providing counseling on contraceptive options

Prescribing medications

Conducting physical examinations

Administering vaccinations

15 / 25

What is the importance of pharmacists in immunization?

They provide counseling on post-vaccination care

All of the above

They provide education on the importance of vaccination

They advise on the appropriate vaccines for different age groups

16 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP)?

All of the above

To control the spread of vector-borne diseases

To provide universal access to healthcare

To improve maternal and child health

17 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM)?

All of the above

To reduce maternal mortality

To control the spread of infectious diseases

To improve the availability of and access to healthcare for rural populations

18 / 25

What is the primary role of pharmacists in vaccination?

Providing education on the importance of vaccination

Administering vaccinations

All of the above

Advising on post-vaccination care

19 / 25

What does the WHO consider to be a fundamental right of all individuals?

The right to vote

The right to free speech

The right to access healthcare

The right to own property

20 / 25

How does the WHO define "Health for All"?

Health promotion and disease prevention for all individuals

Universal access to healthcare services

All of the above

The eradication of all diseases

21 / 25

How many Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are there?

22 / 25

What are the ill effects of infant milk substitutes and bottle feeding?

Increased risk of malnutrition

Increased risk of infections

Reduced bonding between the mother and child

All of the above

23 / 25

What is the goal of the WHO in terms of health equity?

Eliminating disparities in health outcomes between different populations

Providing equal access to healthcare for all individuals

All of the above

Increasing the overall life expectancy of the global population

24 / 25

Which SDG is specifically focused on improving access to healthcare?

SDG 1: No Poverty

SDG 8: Decent Work and Economic Growth

SDG 5: Gender Equality

SDG 3: Good Health and Well-being

25 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Health Mission (NHM)?

To control the spread of infectious diseases

To reduce maternal mortality

To improve the availability of and access to healthcare for all citizens

All of the above

Your score is

The average score is 53%

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