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Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz

Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz

Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz, Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz, Pharmacist Exam MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam.

1540

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Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz

1 / 25

The process of quickly obtaining an out-of-stock medication in an urgent situation is called _________.

Code cart

Bulk compounding log

Emergency drug procurement

Final fllter

2 / 25

What is the primary role of a community pharmacist?

Conducting patient assessments

All of the above

Providing health and wellness advice

Dispensing medications

3 / 25

What is the significance of non-verbal communication (body language) in patient-pharmacist interactions?

To enhance patient trust and rapport

To improve patient satisfaction

To convey empathy and understanding

All of the above

4 / 25

What is medication adherence?

The ability of a patient to follow a medication regimen

The willingness of a patient to take medication

The act of taking medication as prescribed

All of the above

5 / 25

What is the most common type of community pharmacy?

Retail pharmacy

Mail order pharmacy

Compounding pharmacy

Hospital pharmacy

6 / 25

What is the significance of regularly reviewing and updating Patient Information Leaflets (PILs)?

To comply with regulatory requirements

All of the above

To reduce the risk of medication errors

To ensure that the information provided is accurate and up-to-date

7 / 25

What is the purpose of conducting a medication review in a community pharmacy setting?

All of the above

To increase medication adherence

To monitor medication efficacy

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

8 / 25

What is the significance of addressing non-adherence to medication regimens?

To improve patient outcomes

To reduce the risk of adverse effects

All of the above

To reduce healthcare costs

9 / 25

What is the significance of regular review and updating of SOPs in a pharmacy setting?

To keep up with changes in regulations and laws

To incorporate new technologies and best practices

To maintain the effectiveness of SOPs

All of the above

10 / 25

What is the role of technology in community pharmacy management?

Enhancing communication with healthcare providers

Streamlining processes and increasing efficiency

All of the above

Improving patient safety

11 / 25

What is a dispensing error?

An error in the storage or handling of a medication

An error in the administration of a medication

An error in the preparation or labeling of a medication

An error in the prescription or order for a medication

12 / 25

What is medication therapy management (MTM)?

A service provided by a nurse to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a specialist to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a community pharmacist to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a physician to optimize patient outcomes

13 / 25

What is a prescription?

A written order for physical therapy

A written order for a specialist consultation

A written order for medication from a physician or other authorized prescriber

A written order for a diagnostic test or procedure

14 / 25

What are the key responsibilities of a community pharmacist in managing a pharmacy?

All of the above

Ensuring compliance with regulations and laws

Providing patient counseling and education

Maintaining inventory and ordering supplies

15 / 25

What is the significance of using appropriate tone and pace when communicating with a patient over the telephone?

To reduce the risk of misinterpretation

To increase patient satisfaction

All of the above

To improve patient understanding

16 / 25

What is the most common type of dispensing error

Medication labeling errors

Medication dosing errors

Medication administration errors

Medication substitution errors

17 / 25

What is the significance of providing immunization services in a community pharmacy setting?

To improve patient outcomes

To increase access to immunization services

All of the above

To increase patient convenience

18 / 25

A record of medications compounded in the pharmacy is called _________.

Yule time log

Compounding log

Bulk compounding log

19 / 25

Good Pharmacy Practice and SOPs.

A set of guidelines for the conduct of pharmacists and pharmacy staff

A set of guidelines for the safe and effective use of medications

A set of guidelines for the management and operation of a pharmacy

All of the above

20 / 25

Voluntary or involuntary removal of a drug product by the manufacturer, usually pertaining to a particular shipment or lot number is called _______.

Code cart

Recall

IVPB

21 / 25

What is the significance of regular training and education for staff in minimizing dispensing errors?

To reduce the risk of human error

To enhance staff knowledge and skills

All of the above

To comply with regulatory requirements

22 / 25

What is the area designed for the preparation of sterile products called?

Out-patient pharmacy

In-patient pharmacy

Formulary

Clean room

23 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in the management of chronic conditions?

Providing patient education

All of the above

Monitoring patient progress

Making medication adjustments

24 / 25

What is the main goal of community pharmacy management?

To increase profits

All of the above

To provide cost-effective care

To improve patient outcomes

25 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in checking for potential drug interactions or allergies?

To monitor medication efficacy

To improve patient outcomes

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

All of the above

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Your score is

The average score is 39%

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1759

Created on June 10, 2022 By

Noteskarts

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

A. Ethambutol

B. Diazepam

C. Haldol

D. Isoniazid

2 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

A. Alkanes

B. Alkenes

C. Alkynes

D. Alkaloids

3 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

A. Crystalluria

B. Peripheral neuropathy

C. Liver damage

D. Metabolic syndrome

4 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

A. Crystalluria

B. Hansen's disease

C. Liver cirrhosis

D. Mendel disease

5 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

A. Bacteria

B. Spores

C. Fungi

D. Viruses

6 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

A. Cotrimoxazole

B. Sulphadiazine

C. Sulphacetamide sodium

D. Sulphamethoxazole

7 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

A. Alcohol

B. Phenol

C. Iodine

D. All of the above

8 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

A. Salicylic acid

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Dapsone

D. Methyl salicylic acid

9 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

A. Phenyl and benzyl

B. Propyl and phenyl

C. Methyl and benzyl

D. Butyl and phenyl

10 / 50

Excystation is _______

A. Formation of trophozoites from cyst

B. Formation of cyst from trophozoites

C. Both of them

D. None of them

11 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

A. Disinfection

B. Antisepsis

C. Sterilization

D. Coronisation

12 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

A. Hepatic amoebiasis

B. Pulmonary amebiasis

C. Cerebral amobiasis

D. All of the above

13 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

A. True

B. False

14 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

A. Clofazimine and Rifampicin

B. Dopamine and Rifampicin

C. Clofazimine and ofloxacin

D. All of them

15 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

A. Specifying the number of carbon atoms associated with the bond

B. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at beginning of the C=C bond

C. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at end of the C=C bond

D. Specifying the number of carbon atoms in the entire chain

16 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

A. ene

B. ic

C. one

D. yl

17 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

A. Amoebic dysentery

B. Helminth infection

C. Fungal infection

D. None of them

18 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

19 / 50

Functional group present in INH

A. Carbohydrazide

B. Carbonyl group

C. Carboxamide

D. Carboxylic group

20 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethionamide

C. Triacetazone

D. None of the above

21 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Dapsone

D. Di-iodohydroxy quinoline

22 / 50

DDS stands for......

A. Diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. Diamino divinyl sulphone

C. Dimethyl diphenyl sulphone

D. Diphenyl sulphone

23 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Isoniazid

D. Ethambutol

24 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

A. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase

B. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase

C. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase

D. Activation of DNA gyrase

25 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Entamoeba subtilis

D. Entamoeba chrysogenum

26 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphacetamide

B. Sulphasalazine

C. Sulphapyridine

D. Sulphadoxine

27 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

A. Direct contact

B. Formites

C. Contaminated food and drink

D. Rodents

28 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

A. Exactly a double bond

B. Exactly a triple bond

C. Exactly two double bond

D. More than two double bond

29 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

A. Pyridine

B. Imidazole

C. Pyrimidine

D. Pyrazine

30 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

A. Methyl Group

B. Ethynyl group

C. Propionyl group

D. Propargyl group

31 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

A. Silver

B. Titanium

C. Lead

D. Tin

32 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

A. Chlorhexidine

B. Diazepam

C. Miglitol

D. Lorazepam

33 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C₃₀H_{62 .}

A. Propdecane

B. Eicosane

C. Triacontane

D. Dodecane

34 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

A. Pyrazine-4- carbohydrazide

B. Pyridine-4- carbohydrazide

C. pyrimidine-4- carbohydrazide

D. pyridine-4-carboxamide

35 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

A. Moxifloxacin

B. Dapsone

C. Clofazimine

D. Ethambutol

36 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

A. Sulphamethoxine

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphamethoxy pyridazine

37 / 50

Antiseptic are

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

38 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

A. Compared to antibiotics

B. Compared to statins

C. Compared to sulpha drugs

D. Compared to antitubercular drugs

39 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

A. Damage to DNA

B. Enzyme inhibition

C. Cell wall destruction

D. All of them

40 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

A. Vicucidal

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacteriostatic

D. Disinfectant

41 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

A. para amino salicylic acid

B. Clofazimine

C. Dapsone

D. Ethambutol

42 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

A. Jaundice

B. Diarrhea

C. Peripheral neuropathy

D. All of them

43 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

A. Sulphadimethoxine

B. Sulphadoxine

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphadimethoxy pyridazine

44 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

A. Aniline

B. Sulfone

C. Amine

D. All of them

45 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphamethoxazole

B. Sulfafuraole

C. Sulphadimidine

D. Sulphapyridine

46 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

A. Piperidine

B. Pyridine

C. Oxazole

D. Pyrimidine

47 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

A. 4,4'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. 2,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

C. 4,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

D. 4,4'-diamino dimethyl sulphone

48 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

A. Benzoyl peroxide

B. Tramadol

C. Zidovudine

D. Fluoxetine

49 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

A. Cyclopropane

B. Cyclobutane

C. Cyclopentane

D. Cyclohexane

50 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

A. Temperature below 15°c

B. Temperature above 15°c

C. Temperature should be 30°c

D. Temperature between 15-30°c

Your score is

The average score is 23%

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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

R and S

Q and R

Q and S

P and S

2 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

3 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Ecothiopate

Both a and b

Physostigmine

4 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Isopropanol

Dopamine

All of the above

Epinephrine

5 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinesterase inhibitor

Cholinomimetic

Sympathomimetic

Cholinolytics

6 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Tremor

Palpitation

Respiratory difficulty

Cerebral heamorrhage

7 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Steroid receptor

Ion channel

Enzyme linked

GPCR

8 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

9 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Succinylcholine

Gallamine

D-tubocurarine

Hexamethonium

10 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Scopolamine

Carbamazepine

Atropine

Metoclopramide

11 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Corpus striatum

Heart

Exocrine gland

Cerebral cortex

12 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Bradycardia

Hypertension

Dry mouth

Tachycardia

13 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Neostigmine

Atropine

Physostigmine

All of the above

14 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Alopecia

Nephritis

Agranulocytosis

Drug fever

15 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Ion pair transport

Facilitated diffusion

Passive diffusion

Active transport

16 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

Phenothiazines

All of the above

Scopolamines

Atropine

17 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Paraldehyde

Carbamazepine

Phenytoin

Diazepam

18 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Pirenzepine

Cyclopentolate

Hyoscine

Darifenacin

19 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

None of above

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

20 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Sulfate conjunction:

Glucuronide conjugation

α amino acid conjunction

Methylation

21 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Barbiturates

Grape juice

Rifampicin

Carbamazepine

22 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Mental aberration

Miosis

Increased heart rate

23 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Dopamine

All of the above

Amphetamine

Ephedrine

24 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Pilocarpine

Bethanechol

Physostigmine

Atropine

25 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Edrophonium

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

Pyridostigmine

26 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

Competing at receptor sites

Inhibiting release from storage sites

All of the above

27 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

All of the above

Tubocurarine

Gallamine

Pancuronium

28 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Acetylcholine

Atropine

Isoprenaline

Noradrenaline

29 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

Acetylspironolactone

None of the above

Desmethyl spironolactone

Canrenone

30 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

None of the above

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

To check the activity straight muscle

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

31 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Suppression of insulin secretion

Stimulation of insulin release

None of above

Suppression of glucagon secretion

32 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Inhibits GIT motility

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

Prevents miosis

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

33 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

Vasopressin

Prolactin

F S H

34 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Digoxin

Alcohol

Amitriptyline

Warfarin

35 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Neostigmine

Pralidoxime

Tubocurarine

Physostigmine

36 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Ethanol

Prednisolone

Salicylates

Clofibrate

37 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Histamine

Oxytocin

Insulin

Prolactin

38 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

39 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Mydriasis

Loss of accommodation

Reduced sweating

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

40 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Antagonism

Potentiation

Addition

Synergism

41 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

Renal insufficiency

IDDM

Pregnancy

All of the above

42 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Detect the impurity in a given drug

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

43 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M2 antagonist

M3 agonist

M3 antagonist

M1 antagonist

44 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Constipation

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Block accommodation reflex

Bronchoconstriction

45 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

None of the above

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

Pralidoxime

46 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Antagonist

Competitive antagonism

Partial agonist

Non-competitive antagonism

47 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

All of the above

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

48 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Cerebral thrombosis

Hypertension

Dysmenorrhoea

Breast Carcinoma

49 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Blocking B2 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

Stimulating B2 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

50 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To stimulate would healing

All of the above

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

To cause haemeostasis

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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1746

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1995

b. 1919

c. 1948

d. 1940

2 / 25

2. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Drug

b. Adulterated drug

c. Misbranded drug

d. Spurious drug

3 / 25

3. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule W

c. Schedule X

d. Schedule U

4 / 25

4. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Five years

b. Four years

c. Six years

d. Three years

5 / 25

5. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule U

b. Schedule V

c. Schedule U1

d. Schedule Y

6 / 25

6. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. President

b. Election of Registered Pharmacists

c. Central Government

d. State Government of Delhi

7 / 25

7. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule B

b. Schedule F

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule D

8 / 25

8. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

b. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

c. To prescribe drug

d. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

9 / 25

9. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 24D

b. Form 25E

c. Form 21

d. Form 20

10 / 25

10. Appendix II is about

a. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

b. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

c. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

d. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

11 / 25

11. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Five

b. Three

c. Four

d. Six

12 / 25

12. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. In cold place

b. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

c. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

d. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

13 / 25

13. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form 32

b. Form36

c. Form 31

d. Form 30

14 / 25

14. Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

15 / 25

15. Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

b. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

c. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

d. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

16 / 25

16. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Capsule

b. Sera

c. Antigen

d. Toxins

17 / 25

17. Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule W

18 / 25

18. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 32

b. Form 24

c. Form 36

d. Form 20

19 / 25

19. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 4

b. 1

c. 3

d. 2

20 / 25

20. "Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for surgical dressing

b. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

c. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

d. Standard for production of sera

21 / 25

21. Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 17

b. Section 3B

c. Section 17B

d. Section 17A

22 / 25

22. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule S

b. Schedule E

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule R

23 / 25

23. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 2

b. 3

c. 5

d. 1

24 / 25

24. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule C

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule P

d. Schedule M

25 / 25

25. Insulin comes under

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule J

d. Schedule O

Your score is

The average score is 39%

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Social Pharmacy Quiz

1 / 25

How does the WHO define "Health for All"?

The eradication of all diseases

Health promotion and disease prevention for all individuals

All of the above

Universal access to healthcare services

2 / 25

According to the WHO, what are the main determinants of health?

Socioeconomic status and environmental factors

Genetics and lifestyle choices

Access to healthcare and education

Medical treatments and technological advancements

3 / 25

What does the WHO define as "health"?

The ability to perform daily activities without assistance

The absence of disease or infirmity

The absence of pain or discomfort

A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being

4 / 25

What is the main objective of the Family Planning 2020 (FP2020) initiative?

All of the above

To improve maternal and child health

To reduce maternal mortality

To increase access to family planning services

5 / 25

What is the main objective of the National AYUSH Mission (NAM)?

To improve the availability of and access to healthcare for rural populations

All of the above

To promote the use of traditional and alternative medicine

To control the spread of infectious diseases

6 / 25

Which of the following is not a method of family planning?

Condoms

Oral contraceptives

Sterilization

Fasting

7 / 25

What are the ill effects of infant milk substitutes and bottle feeding?

Increased risk of infections

Reduced bonding between the mother and child

All of the above

Increased risk of malnutrition

8 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Mental Health Programme (NMHP)?

To control the spread of infectious diseases

All of the above

To improve access to mental health services

To reduce maternal mortality

9 / 25

Which SDG is specifically focused on improving access to healthcare?

SDG 8: Decent Work and Economic Growth

SDG 5: Gender Equality

SDG 1: No Poverty

SDG 3: Good Health and Well-being

10 / 25

Why is breastfeeding considered to be the best form of nutrition for infants?

All of the above

It promotes bonding between the mother and child

It helps to protect the infant from infections

It provides all the necessary nutrients

11 / 25

In what way can pharmacists support the use of family planning methods?

By providing access to emergency contraceptive options

All of the above

By providing counseling on side effects

By providing education on proper use

12 / 25

What is the primary role of pharmacists in mother and child health?

Advising on breastfeeding and nutrition

Conducting physical examinations

Administering vaccinations

Prescribing medications

13 / 25

How many Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are there?

14 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Health Policy of India?

All of the above

To control the spread of infectious diseases

To improve maternal and child health

To provide universal access to healthcare

15 / 25

What is the difference between active and passive immunity?

Active immunity is acquired through vaccination, passive immunity is acquired through exposure to a disease.

Active immunity is acquired through exposure to a disease, passive immunity is acquired through vaccination.

Active immunity is acquired through exposure to antibodies, passive immunity is acquired through vaccination

Active immunity is acquired through exposure to a disease, passive immunity is acquired through exposure to antibodies

16 / 25

What are the types of immunity?

Passive immunity

None of the above

Both A and B

Active immunity

17 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM)?

To improve the availability of and access to healthcare for rural populations

To reduce maternal mortality

To control the spread of infectious diseases

All of the above

18 / 25

What is the main focus of the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)?

All of the above

Eradicating extreme poverty and hunger

Achieving universal primary education

Improving maternal health

19 / 25

What is the goal of the WHO in terms of health equity?

All of the above

Eliminating disparities in health outcomes between different populations

Increasing the overall life expectancy of the global population

Providing equal access to healthcare for all individuals

20 / 25

What does the WHO consider to be a fundamental right of all individuals?

The right to free speech

The right to access healthcare

The right to own property

The right to vote

21 / 25

What is the primary role of pharmacists in vaccination?

Advising on post-vaccination care

Providing education on the importance of vaccination

Administering vaccinations

All of the above

22 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP)?

To improve maternal and child health

All of the above

To control the spread of vector-borne diseases

To provide universal access to healthcare

23 / 25

What is the importance of pharmacists in immunization?

They advise on the appropriate vaccines for different age groups

They provide counseling on post-vaccination care

They provide education on the importance of vaccination

All of the above

24 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Health Mission (NHM)?

To control the spread of infectious diseases

All of the above

To improve the availability of and access to healthcare for all citizens

To reduce maternal mortality

25 / 25

Which of the following is the primary role of pharmacists in Demography and Family Planning?

Administering vaccinations

Providing counseling on contraceptive options

Conducting physical examinations

Prescribing medications

Your score is

The average score is 53%

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