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Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz

Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz

Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz, Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz, Pharmacist Exam MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam.

1422

Created by

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Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz

1 / 25

What is the significance of regular training and education for staff in minimizing dispensing errors?

All of the above

To reduce the risk of human error

To enhance staff knowledge and skills

To comply with regulatory requirements

2 / 25

What is the area designed for the preparation of sterile products called?

Out-patient pharmacy

Clean room

In-patient pharmacy

Formulary

3 / 25

A record of medications compounded in the pharmacy is called _________.

Compounding log

Yule time log

Bulk compounding log

4 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in checking for potential drug interactions or allergies?

All of the above

To monitor medication efficacy

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

To improve patient outcomes

5 / 25

What is the significance of providing immunization services in a community pharmacy setting?

All of the above

To increase patient convenience

To increase access to immunization services

To improve patient outcomes

6 / 25

What are the key responsibilities of a community pharmacist in managing a pharmacy?

Providing patient counseling and education

All of the above

Maintaining inventory and ordering supplies

Ensuring compliance with regulations and laws

7 / 25

What is a prescription?

A written order for a diagnostic test or procedure

A written order for medication from a physician or other authorized prescriber

A written order for physical therapy

A written order for a specialist consultation

8 / 25

What is the significance of regular review and updating of SOPs in a pharmacy setting?

To maintain the effectiveness of SOPs

To keep up with changes in regulations and laws

All of the above

To incorporate new technologies and best practices

9 / 25

The process of quickly obtaining an out-of-stock medication in an urgent situation is called _________.

Final fllter

Code cart

Emergency drug procurement

Bulk compounding log

10 / 25

What is the significance of addressing non-adherence to medication regimens?

All of the above

To reduce the risk of adverse effects

To reduce healthcare costs

To improve patient outcomes

11 / 25

Voluntary or involuntary removal of a drug product by the manufacturer, usually pertaining to a particular shipment or lot number is called _______.

IVPB

Code cart

Recall

12 / 25

What is medication therapy management (MTM)?

A service provided by a nurse to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a community pharmacist to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a specialist to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a physician to optimize patient outcomes

13 / 25

What is medication adherence?

The ability of a patient to follow a medication regimen

The act of taking medication as prescribed

The willingness of a patient to take medication

All of the above

14 / 25

What is the significance of non-verbal communication (body language) in patient-pharmacist interactions?

To improve patient satisfaction

To convey empathy and understanding

To enhance patient trust and rapport

All of the above

15 / 25

What is the primary role of a community pharmacist?

Dispensing medications

Providing health and wellness advice

Conducting patient assessments

All of the above

16 / 25

What is the main goal of community pharmacy management?

To improve patient outcomes

All of the above

To provide cost-effective care

To increase profits

17 / 25

Good Pharmacy Practice and SOPs.

All of the above

A set of guidelines for the conduct of pharmacists and pharmacy staff

A set of guidelines for the safe and effective use of medications

A set of guidelines for the management and operation of a pharmacy

18 / 25

What is the role of technology in community pharmacy management?

Streamlining processes and increasing efficiency

Improving patient safety

Enhancing communication with healthcare providers

All of the above

19 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in the management of chronic conditions?

Monitoring patient progress

Making medication adjustments

Providing patient education

All of the above

20 / 25

What is the most common type of community pharmacy?

Compounding pharmacy

Retail pharmacy

Hospital pharmacy

Mail order pharmacy

21 / 25

What is the significance of regularly reviewing and updating Patient Information Leaflets (PILs)?

All of the above

To ensure that the information provided is accurate and up-to-date

To comply with regulatory requirements

To reduce the risk of medication errors

22 / 25

What is the most common type of dispensing error

Medication administration errors

Medication substitution errors

Medication dosing errors

Medication labeling errors

23 / 25

What is a dispensing error?

An error in the administration of a medication

An error in the prescription or order for a medication

An error in the preparation or labeling of a medication

An error in the storage or handling of a medication

24 / 25

What is the significance of using appropriate tone and pace when communicating with a patient over the telephone?

To increase patient satisfaction

All of the above

To improve patient understanding

To reduce the risk of misinterpretation

25 / 25

What is the purpose of conducting a medication review in a community pharmacy setting?

All of the above

To increase medication adherence

To monitor medication efficacy

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

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Your score is

The average score is 39%

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1559

Created on June 10, 2022 By

NotesKarts

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

A. Alkanes

B. Alkenes

C. Alkynes

D. Alkaloids

2 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

A. Temperature below 15°c

B. Temperature above 15°c

C. Temperature should be 30°c

D. Temperature between 15-30°c

3 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

A. Ethambutol

B. Diazepam

C. Haldol

D. Isoniazid

4 / 50

Antiseptic are

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

5 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

A. Aniline

B. Sulfone

C. Amine

D. All of them

6 / 50

DDS stands for......

A. Diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. Diamino divinyl sulphone

C. Dimethyl diphenyl sulphone

D. Diphenyl sulphone

7 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphacetamide

B. Sulphasalazine

C. Sulphapyridine

D. Sulphadoxine

8 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

A. Moxifloxacin

B. Dapsone

C. Clofazimine

D. Ethambutol

9 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

A. ene

B. ic

C. one

D. yl

10 / 50

Functional group present in INH

A. Carbohydrazide

B. Carbonyl group

C. Carboxamide

D. Carboxylic group

11 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

A. Sulphadimethoxine

B. Sulphadoxine

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphadimethoxy pyridazine

12 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

A. Vicucidal

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacteriostatic

D. Disinfectant

13 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

A. Benzoyl peroxide

B. Tramadol

C. Zidovudine

D. Fluoxetine

14 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

A. Amoebic dysentery

B. Helminth infection

C. Fungal infection

D. None of them

15 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

A. Pyrazine-4- carbohydrazide

B. Pyridine-4- carbohydrazide

C. pyrimidine-4- carbohydrazide

D. pyridine-4-carboxamide

16 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

A. Bacteria

B. Spores

C. Fungi

D. Viruses

17 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

A. Piperidine

B. Pyridine

C. Oxazole

D. Pyrimidine

18 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Isoniazid

D. Ethambutol

19 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

A. Cotrimoxazole

B. Sulphadiazine

C. Sulphacetamide sodium

D. Sulphamethoxazole

20 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphamethoxazole

B. Sulfafuraole

C. Sulphadimidine

D. Sulphapyridine

21 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

A. Exactly a double bond

B. Exactly a triple bond

C. Exactly two double bond

D. More than two double bond

22 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

A. Clofazimine and Rifampicin

B. Dopamine and Rifampicin

C. Clofazimine and ofloxacin

D. All of them

23 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

A. Specifying the number of carbon atoms associated with the bond

B. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at beginning of the C=C bond

C. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at end of the C=C bond

D. Specifying the number of carbon atoms in the entire chain

24 / 50

Excystation is _______

A. Formation of trophozoites from cyst

B. Formation of cyst from trophozoites

C. Both of them

D. None of them

25 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

A. True

B. False

26 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethionamide

C. Triacetazone

D. None of the above

27 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

A. Crystalluria

B. Hansen's disease

C. Liver cirrhosis

D. Mendel disease

28 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

A. Sulphamethoxine

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphamethoxy pyridazine

29 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

A. Salicylic acid

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Dapsone

D. Methyl salicylic acid

30 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

A. Cyclopropane

B. Cyclobutane

C. Cyclopentane

D. Cyclohexane

31 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

A. Direct contact

B. Formites

C. Contaminated food and drink

D. Rodents

32 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

A. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase

B. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase

C. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase

D. Activation of DNA gyrase

33 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

A. Silver

B. Titanium

C. Lead

D. Tin

34 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

A. Crystalluria

B. Peripheral neuropathy

C. Liver damage

D. Metabolic syndrome

35 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

A. Methyl Group

B. Ethynyl group

C. Propionyl group

D. Propargyl group

36 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

A. Disinfection

B. Antisepsis

C. Sterilization

D. Coronisation

37 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

A. Damage to DNA

B. Enzyme inhibition

C. Cell wall destruction

D. All of them

38 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

A. Hepatic amoebiasis

B. Pulmonary amebiasis

C. Cerebral amobiasis

D. All of the above

39 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

A. Phenyl and benzyl

B. Propyl and phenyl

C. Methyl and benzyl

D. Butyl and phenyl

40 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

A. para amino salicylic acid

B. Clofazimine

C. Dapsone

D. Ethambutol

41 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

A. Chlorhexidine

B. Diazepam

C. Miglitol

D. Lorazepam

42 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Dapsone

D. Di-iodohydroxy quinoline

43 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C₃₀H_{62 .}

A. Propdecane

B. Eicosane

C. Triacontane

D. Dodecane

44 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

A. Pyridine

B. Imidazole

C. Pyrimidine

D. Pyrazine

45 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

A. Alcohol

B. Phenol

C. Iodine

D. All of the above

46 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

A. Compared to antibiotics

B. Compared to statins

C. Compared to sulpha drugs

D. Compared to antitubercular drugs

47 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

A. 4,4'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. 2,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

C. 4,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

D. 4,4'-diamino dimethyl sulphone

48 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Entamoeba subtilis

D. Entamoeba chrysogenum

49 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

A. Jaundice

B. Diarrhea

C. Peripheral neuropathy

D. All of them

50 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

Your score is

The average score is 22%

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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

P and S

Q and R

Q and S

R and S

2 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Phenytoin

Diazepam

Carbamazepine

Paraldehyde

3 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Block accommodation reflex

Constipation

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Bronchoconstriction

4 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Isopropanol

Epinephrine

All of the above

Dopamine

5 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Mental aberration

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Increased heart rate

Miosis

6 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

Renal insufficiency

All of the above

IDDM

Pregnancy

7 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Facilitated diffusion

Active transport

Passive diffusion

Ion pair transport

8 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

None of the above

Desmethyl spironolactone

Acetylspironolactone

Canrenone

9 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Steroid receptor

Ion channel

GPCR

Enzyme linked

10 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

Inhibits GIT motility

Prevents miosis

11 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Antagonism

Addition

Potentiation

Synergism

12 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

Neostigmine

None of the above

Pralidoxime

Physostigmine

13 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

None of above

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

14 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

F S H

Prolactin

Vasopressin

15 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Tachycardia

Bradycardia

Dry mouth

Hypertension

16 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Stimulation of insulin release

Suppression of glucagon secretion

None of above

Suppression of insulin secretion

17 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

18 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Tubocurarine

All of the above

Gallamine

Pancuronium

19 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Pyridostigmine

Edrophonium

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

20 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinomimetic

Cholinolytics

Cholinesterase inhibitor

Sympathomimetic

21 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Alopecia

Drug fever

Agranulocytosis

Nephritis

22 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Cerebral heamorrhage

Palpitation

Respiratory difficulty

Tremor

23 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Cerebral cortex

Heart

Exocrine gland

Corpus striatum

24 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Alcohol

Warfarin

Amitriptyline

Digoxin

25 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Detect the impurity in a given drug

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

26 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Clofibrate

Salicylates

Ethanol

Prednisolone

27 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

All of the above

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

28 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Cyclopentolate

Hyoscine

Darifenacin

Pirenzepine

29 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Atropine

Bethanechol

Physostigmine

Pilocarpine

30 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Loss of accommodation

Reduced sweating

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Mydriasis

31 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M3 antagonist

M1 antagonist

M2 antagonist

M3 agonist

32 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Hexamethonium

D-tubocurarine

Succinylcholine

Gallamine

33 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Dopamine

All of the above

Amphetamine

Ephedrine

34 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Stimulating B2 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

Blocking B2 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

35 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Hypertension

Cerebral thrombosis

Breast Carcinoma

Dysmenorrhoea

36 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

Inhibiting release from storage sites

Competing at receptor sites

All of the above

37 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Atropine

Isoprenaline

Noradrenaline

Acetylcholine

38 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

To check the activity straight muscle

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

None of the above

39 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

α amino acid conjunction

Methylation

Glucuronide conjugation

Sulfate conjunction:

40 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Non-competitive antagonism

Antagonist

Competitive antagonism

Partial agonist

41 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Both a and b

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Physostigmine

Ecothiopate

42 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Prolactin

Histamine

Insulin

Oxytocin

43 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

All of the above

Atropine

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

44 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Rifampicin

Barbiturates

Carbamazepine

Grape juice

45 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

All of the above

Phenothiazines

Atropine

Scopolamines

46 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Pralidoxime

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

Tubocurarine

47 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To stimulate would healing

To cause haemeostasis

All of the above

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

48 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

49 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

50 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Scopolamine

Carbamazepine

Atropine

Metoclopramide

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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1487

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule U

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule V

d. Schedule U1

2 / 25

2. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 20

b. Form 24D

c. Form 25E

d. Form 21

3 / 25

3. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Sera

b. Antigen

c. Toxins

d. Capsule

4 / 25

4. Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule W

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule Y

5 / 25

5. Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

6 / 25

6. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule U

b. Schedule W

c. Schedule X

d. Schedule Y

7 / 25

7. Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1940

b. 1995

c. 1948

d. 1919

8 / 25

8. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Five

b. Four

c. Three

d. Six

9 / 25

9. "Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

b. Standard for surgical dressing

c. Standard for production of sera

d. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

10 / 25

10. Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

b. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

c. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

d. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

11 / 25

11. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

b. To prescribe drug

c. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

d. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

12 / 25

12. Insulin comes under

a. Schedule J

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule H

13 / 25

13. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form 31

b. Form 32

c. Form 30

d. Form36

14 / 25

14. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 20

b. Form 36

c. Form 24

d. Form 32

15 / 25

15. Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 17

b. Section 17A

c. Section 3B

d. Section 17B

16 / 25

16. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. Central Government

b. Election of Registered Pharmacists

c. State Government of Delhi

d. President

17 / 25

17. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule E

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule S

d. Schedule O

18 / 25

18. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 2

b. 4

c. 3

d. 1

19 / 25

19. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 3

b. 5

c. 1

d. 2

20 / 25

20. Appendix II is about

a. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

b. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

c. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

d. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

21 / 25

21. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule C

c. Schedule R

d. Schedule M

22 / 25

22. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Four years

b. Six years

c. Three years

d. Five years

23 / 25

23. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Adulterated drug

b. Spurious drug

c. Misbranded drug

d. Drug

24 / 25

24. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

b. In cold place

c. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

d. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

25 / 25

25. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule F

b. Schedule B

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule D

Your score is

The average score is 39%

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Social Pharmacy Quiz

1 / 25

In what way can pharmacists support the use of family planning methods?

All of the above

By providing access to emergency contraceptive options

By providing counseling on side effects

By providing education on proper use

2 / 25

What are the ill effects of infant milk substitutes and bottle feeding?

All of the above

Reduced bonding between the mother and child

Increased risk of infections

Increased risk of malnutrition

3 / 25

What is the main objective of the Family Planning 2020 (FP2020) initiative?

To increase access to family planning services

To reduce maternal mortality

To improve maternal and child health

All of the above

4 / 25

Which SDG is specifically focused on improving access to healthcare?

SDG 8: Decent Work and Economic Growth

SDG 5: Gender Equality

SDG 3: Good Health and Well-being

SDG 1: No Poverty

5 / 25

What is the difference between active and passive immunity?

Active immunity is acquired through exposure to a disease, passive immunity is acquired through exposure to antibodies

Active immunity is acquired through exposure to a disease, passive immunity is acquired through vaccination.

Active immunity is acquired through vaccination, passive immunity is acquired through exposure to a disease.

Active immunity is acquired through exposure to antibodies, passive immunity is acquired through vaccination

6 / 25

What is the main focus of the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)?

All of the above

Eradicating extreme poverty and hunger

Achieving universal primary education

Improving maternal health

7 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Health Mission (NHM)?

To improve the availability of and access to healthcare for all citizens

To control the spread of infectious diseases

All of the above

To reduce maternal mortality

8 / 25

Which of the following is the primary role of pharmacists in Demography and Family Planning?

Administering vaccinations

Providing counseling on contraceptive options

Prescribing medications

Conducting physical examinations

9 / 25

What is the importance of pharmacists in immunization?

They provide counseling on post-vaccination care

They advise on the appropriate vaccines for different age groups

All of the above

They provide education on the importance of vaccination

10 / 25

What are the types of immunity?

Passive immunity

Both A and B

None of the above

Active immunity

11 / 25

How does the WHO define "Health for All"?

Health promotion and disease prevention for all individuals

The eradication of all diseases

Universal access to healthcare services

All of the above

12 / 25

What is the goal of the WHO in terms of health equity?

Eliminating disparities in health outcomes between different populations

Providing equal access to healthcare for all individuals

Increasing the overall life expectancy of the global population

All of the above

13 / 25

What does the WHO define as "health"?

The absence of pain or discomfort

A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being

The absence of disease or infirmity

The ability to perform daily activities without assistance

14 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP)?

To provide universal access to healthcare

To improve maternal and child health

All of the above

To control the spread of vector-borne diseases

15 / 25

Why is breastfeeding considered to be the best form of nutrition for infants?

It helps to protect the infant from infections

All of the above

It provides all the necessary nutrients

It promotes bonding between the mother and child

16 / 25

Which of the following is not a method of family planning?

Oral contraceptives

Condoms

Sterilization

Fasting

17 / 25

How many Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are there?

18 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM)?

All of the above

To control the spread of infectious diseases

To improve the availability of and access to healthcare for rural populations

To reduce maternal mortality

19 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Mental Health Programme (NMHP)?

To reduce maternal mortality

All of the above

To improve access to mental health services

To control the spread of infectious diseases

20 / 25

What is the primary role of pharmacists in vaccination?

Administering vaccinations

All of the above

Providing education on the importance of vaccination

Advising on post-vaccination care

21 / 25

What is the primary role of pharmacists in mother and child health?

Conducting physical examinations

Administering vaccinations

Prescribing medications

Advising on breastfeeding and nutrition

22 / 25

What is the main objective of the National AYUSH Mission (NAM)?

To control the spread of infectious diseases

To promote the use of traditional and alternative medicine

To improve the availability of and access to healthcare for rural populations

All of the above

23 / 25

According to the WHO, what are the main determinants of health?

Socioeconomic status and environmental factors

Genetics and lifestyle choices

Access to healthcare and education

Medical treatments and technological advancements

24 / 25

What does the WHO consider to be a fundamental right of all individuals?

The right to own property

The right to free speech

The right to access healthcare

The right to vote

25 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Health Policy of India?

To provide universal access to healthcare

All of the above

To improve maternal and child health

To control the spread of infectious diseases

Your score is

The average score is 52%

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