GPAT Quiz 2024

  • GPAT multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from GPAT Quiz, GPAT Mock Test Series, GPAT Exam 2024 MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
  • This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam. 
2208
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GPAT Mock Test-2024

1 / 100

Cyclophosphamide as anticancer agent acts as

2 / 100

Tropane alkaloids are not present in

3 / 100

Many xenobiotics are oxidized by cytochrome P450 in order to

4 / 100

The applicability of Noyes-Whitney equation is to describe

5 / 100

A metabolite obtained from Aspergillus terreus that can bind very tightly to HMG CoA reductase enzyme is

6 / 100

In the TCA cycle, at which of the following enzyme-catalysed steps, incorporation of elements of water into an intermediate of the cycle takes place?

7 / 100

How many mL of a 1:500 w/v stock solution should be used to make 5 litres of 1:2000 w/v solution?

8 / 100

Sildenafil is used for treatment of one of the following
disorders:

9 / 100

In the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and Rules, the Schedule relating to GMP is

10 / 100

Class 100 area is referred to

11 / 100

Indicate the HPLC detector that is most sensitive to change in temperature:

12 / 100

Which of the following non-opioid analgesics is a prodrug?

13 / 100

The common structural feature amongst the three
categories of anti-convulsant drugs barbiturates,
succinimides and hydantoins is
(a)  (b)
(c)  (d)

14 / 100

In which of the following techniques, the sample is kept below triple point?

15 / 100

The chemical behaviour of morphine alkaloid is

16 / 100

Which one of the following drugs specifically inhibits calcineurin in the activated T lymphocytes?

17 / 100

Digitalis toxicity is enhanced by co-administration of

18 / 100

Myasthenia gravis is diagnosed with improved neuromuscular function by using

19 / 100

In organic molecules, fluorescence seldom results from absorption of UV radiation of wavelengths lower than

20 / 100

The volume of distribution of a drug administered at a dose of 300 mg and exhibiting 30 microgram/mL instantaneous concentration in plasma shall be

21 / 100

Measurement of inulin renal clearance is a measure for

22 / 100

A compound will be sensitive towards IR radiation only when one of the following properties undergo
transition on

23 / 100

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

24 / 100

In thiazides, following substituent is essential for diuretic activity:

25 / 100

Alkaloids are not precipitated by

26 / 100

Barbiturates with substitution at the following position possess acceptable hypnotic activity:

27 / 100

In Gas-Liquid Chromatography, some of the samples need to be derivatized in order to increase their

28 / 100

Bloom strength is used to check the quality of
(a) (b)
(c)  (d)

29 / 100

Which one of the following is the commonly used bulking agent in the formulation of freeze dried low dose drug products?

30 / 100

Proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole and lansoprazole contain the following ring system:

31 / 100

For glyburide, all of the following metabolic reactions are logical except:

32 / 100

An isosteric replacement for carboxylic acid group is

33 / 100

Bacopa monnieri plant belongs to the family

34 / 100

Aminotransferases usually requires the following for their activity:

35 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is prescribed for the treatment of Philadelphia chromosome positive patients with chronic myeloid Leukemia?

36 / 100

The following protein/polypeptide has a quaternary structure:

37 / 100

Triterpenoids are active constituents of

38 / 100

Cardiac glycosides have the following configuration in the Aglycone part of the steroid nucleus:

39 / 100

An example of N-glycoside is

40 / 100

The effects observed following systemic administration of levodopa in the treatment of Parkinsonism have been
attributed to its catabolism to dopamine. Carbidopa can markedly increase the proportion of levodopa that
crosses the blood-brain barrier by

41 / 100

Select the correct combination of drugs for the treatment of patients suffering from Hepatitis C.

42 / 100

Drugs following one compartment open model pharmacokinetics eliminate

43 / 100

The ability of human eye using illuminated area to detect a particle is limited to

44 / 100

A drug (200 mg dose) administered in tablet form and as intravenous injection (50 mg dose) showed AUG of 100 and 200 microgram h/mL, respectively. The absolute availability of the drug through oral administration is

45 / 100

Streptomycin cannot be given orally for treatment of tuberculosis because

46 / 100

Artemisinin contains the following group in its structure:

47 / 100

At physiological pH, the following compound would be mostly in the

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48 / 100

Improvement of memory in Alzheimer’s disease is brought about by drugs which increase transmission in

49 / 100

Nicotinic action of acetylcholine is blocked by the drug

50 / 100

Amitryptyline is synthesized from the following starting material:

51 / 100

Guggul lipids are obtained from

52 / 100

Choose the right combination:

53 / 100

Anisocytic stomata are present in

54 / 100

The amount of barbaloin present in Aloe vera is

55 / 100

In nail polish, the following polymer is used as a film-former:

56 / 100

Which one of the following is not an ex-officio member of Pharmacy Council of India?

57 / 100

Thioglycolic acid-like compounds have applications in following type of cosmetic formulations:

58 / 100

Which of the following monoclonal antibodies is prescribed for patients with non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

59 / 100

Aliskiren acts by

60 / 100

Quassia wood is adulterated with

61 / 100

One of the following statements is not true:

62 / 100

The rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis is one of the following:

63 / 100

Chemical nomenclature of procaine is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

64 / 100

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

65 / 100

Identify the one rational combination which has clinical benefit:

66 / 100

Stevens Johnson syndrome is the most common adverse effect associated with one of the following category of drugs:

67 / 100

Oxidative phosphorylation involves

68 / 100

The characteristic of non-linear pharmacokinetics includes:

69 / 100

Which one of the following is a flocculating agent for a negatively charged drug?

70 / 100

The healing agent used in hand creams is

71 / 100

Coulter counter is used in determination of

72 / 100

Rabies vaccine (living) is prepared using

73 / 100

Which one of the following is a plasminogen activator?

74 / 100

Humectants added in cosmetic preparations generally act by

75 / 100

Highly branched three dimensional macromolecules with controlled structures with all bonds originating from a central core are known as

76 / 100

One mg of Lycopodium spores used in quantitative microscopy contains an average of

77 / 100

X-ray crystallographic analysis of an optically active compound determines its

78 / 100

Identify the drug which is not used in the treatment of malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum.

79 / 100

In the mixing of thymol and menthol, the following type of incompatibility occurs:

80 / 100

It is required to maintain a therapeutic concentration of 10 microgram/mL for 12 hours of a drug having half life of 1.386 h and Vd of 5 L. The dose required in a sustained release product will be

81 / 100

The given antibiotic is an example of ansamycins:

82 / 100

Geriatric population should be included in the following phase of clinical trials:

83 / 100

Ganciclovir is mainly used for the treatment of infection caused by

84 / 100

Purity of water can be assessed by determining one of its following properties instrumentally:

85 / 100

Eugenol is present in

86 / 100

Glass transition temperature is detected through
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

87 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is withdrawn from the market due to torsade de pointes?

88 / 100

Which filler can not be used for the preparation of tablets for amine containing basic drugs to avoid discolouration of the tablets?

89 / 100

Which one of the following is used as a mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder and also in certain epileptic
convulsions?

90 / 100

Drugs in suspensions and semi-solid formulations always degrade by

91 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is most effective in preventing transmission of HIV virus from the mother to the foetus?

92 / 100

Gingkgo biloba is used for its

93 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is not a typical antipsychotic agent?

94 / 100

Which one of the following drugs does not act through G-Protein coupled receptors?

95 / 100

Ethambutol molecule has

96 / 100

The role of borax in cold creams is

97 / 100

The temperature condition for storage of drug products under cold temperature is given as

98 / 100

In organic molecules, fluorescence seldom results from absorption of UV radiation of wavelengths lower than

99 / 100

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor is

100 / 100

What quantities of 95% v/v and 45% v/v alcohols are to be mixed to make 800 mL of 65% v/v alcohol?

Your score is

The average score is 20%

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Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

2 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

3 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

4 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

5 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

6 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

7 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

8 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

9 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

10 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

11 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C30H62 . 

12 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

13 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

14 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

15 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

16 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

17 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

18 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

19 / 50

Functional group present in INH

20 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

21 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

22 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

23 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

24 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

25 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

26 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

27 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

28 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

29 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

30 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

31 / 50

Excystation is _______

32 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

33 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

34 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

35 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

36 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

37 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

38 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

39 / 50

DDS stands for......

40 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

41 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

42 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

43 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

44 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

45 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

46 / 50

Antiseptic are

47 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

48 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

49 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

50 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

Your score is

The average score is 23%

0%

2697
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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

2 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

3 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

4 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

5 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

6 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

7 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

8 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

9 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

10 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

11 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

12 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

13 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

14 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

15 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

16 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

17 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

18 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

19 / 50

Darifenacin is a

20 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

21 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

22 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

23 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

24 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

25 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

26 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

27 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

28 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

29 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

30 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

31 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

32 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

33 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

34 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

35 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

36 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

37 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

38 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

39 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

40 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

41 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

42 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

43 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

44 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

45 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

46 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

47 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

48 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

49 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

50 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Your score is

The average score is 30%

0%

1757

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. Pharmacy Act is established in

2 / 25

2. Appendix II is about

3 / 25

3. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

4 / 25

4. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

5 / 25

5. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

6 / 25

6. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

7 / 25

7. Insulin comes under

8 / 25

8. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

9 / 25

9. Crocin is sale under

10 / 25

10. Spurious drug comes under

11 / 25

11. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

12 / 25

12. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

13 / 25

13. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

14 / 25

14. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

15 / 25

15. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

16 / 25

16. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

17 / 25

17. Schedule M, states that

18 / 25

18. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

19 / 25

19. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

20 / 25

20. "Schedule F3" is related with

21 / 25

21. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

22 / 25

22. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

23 / 25

23. Form 20 states that

24 / 25

24. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

25 / 25

25. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

Your score is

The average score is 39%

0%

593
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Pharmacology MCQs for DPEE and GPAT

1 / 51

A good local anesthetic agent shouldn’t cause:

2 / 51

The mechanism of atropine action is:

3 / 51

If an agonist can produce maximal effects and has high efficacy it’s called:

4 / 51

Pharmacokinetics is:

 

5 / 51

Pharmacodynamics involves the following?

6 / 51

Which of the following drugs is a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant?

7 / 51

What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

8 / 51

Indicate the skeletal muscle relaxant, which is a depolarizing agent:

9 / 51

What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

10 / 51

Target proteins which a drug molecule binds are:

11 / 51

A hydrophilic medicinal agent has the following property:

12 / 51

Indicate the location of M2 cholinoreceptor type:

13 / 51

Indicate the drug, which is rapidly and fully distributed into CNS and has a greater effect than most other antimuscarinic
agents?

14 / 51

Ionizable group is responsible for:

15 / 51

Characteristics of carbachol include all of the following EXCEPT:

16 / 51

Pick out the answer which is the most appropriate to the term “receptor”

17 / 51

Indicate the local anesthetic agent, which has a shorter duration of action:

18 / 51

Acetylcholine is not a specific neurotransmitter at:

19 / 51

The symptoms of mushroom poisoning include all of the following EXCEPT:

20 / 51

Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following?

21 / 51

Which one of the following local anesthetics is an ester of benzoic acid?

22 / 51

An antagonist is a substance that:

23 / 51

Which of the following agents is a ganglion-blocking drug?

24 / 51

The effect of the drug on parasympathetic function declines rapidly in all organs EXCEPT:

25 / 51

What kind of substances can’t permeate membranes by passive diffusion?

26 / 51

What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

27 / 51

The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:

28 / 51

M3 receptor subtype is located:

29 / 51

The reasons determing bioavailability are:

30 / 51

Indicate the local anesthetic, which is an ester of paraaminobenzoic acid:

31 / 51

Indicate a cholinomimetic agent, which is related to direct-acting drugs:

32 / 51

Most local anesthetic agents consist of:

33 / 51

What does the term “bioavailability” mean?

34 / 51

Which of the following drugs is both a muscarinic and nicotinic blocker?

35 / 51

Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs through liver is minimized:

36 / 51

Local anesthetics produce:

37 / 51

Which one of the following groups is responsible for the duration of the local anesthetic action?

38 / 51

Parasympathomimetic drugs cause:

39 / 51

Indicate the drug, which has greater potency of the local anesthetic action:

40 / 51

What does “affinity” mean?

41 / 51

If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it’s called:

42 / 51

Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following EXCEPT:

43 / 51

Which of the following direct-acting cholinomimetics is mainly muscarinic in action?

44 / 51

What is implied by «active transport»?

45 / 51

An agonist is a substance that:

46 / 51

Acetylcholine is not used in clinical practice because:

47 / 51

Muscarinic receptors are located in:

48 / 51

The group of nicotinic receptor-blocking drugs consists of:

49 / 51

Which one of the following groups is responsible for the potency and the toxicity of local anesthetics?

50 / 51

Which of the following cholinomimetics activates both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors?

51 / 51

Indicate a muscarinic receptor-blocking drug:

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The average score is 23%

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