GPAT Quiz 2024

  • GPAT multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from GPAT Quiz, GPAT Mock Test Series, GPAT Exam 2024 MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
  • This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam. 
2276
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GPAT Mock Test-2024

1 / 100

In organic molecules, fluorescence seldom results from absorption of UV radiation of wavelengths lower than

2 / 100

X-ray crystallographic analysis of an optically active compound determines its

3 / 100

Which filler can not be used for the preparation of tablets for amine containing basic drugs to avoid discolouration of the tablets?

4 / 100

For glyburide, all of the following metabolic reactions are logical except:

5 / 100

Ethambutol molecule has

6 / 100

One of the following statements is not true:

7 / 100

Drugs in suspensions and semi-solid formulations always degrade by

8 / 100

Which one of the following is used as a mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder and also in certain epileptic
convulsions?

9 / 100

How many mL of a 1:500 w/v stock solution should be used to make 5 litres of 1:2000 w/v solution?

10 / 100

Which of the following monoclonal antibodies is prescribed for patients with non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

11 / 100

At physiological pH, the following compound would be mostly in the

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12 / 100

Barbiturates with substitution at the following position possess acceptable hypnotic activity:

13 / 100

Drugs following one compartment open model pharmacokinetics eliminate

14 / 100

Myasthenia gravis is diagnosed with improved neuromuscular function by using

15 / 100

In the TCA cycle, at which of the following enzyme-catalysed steps, incorporation of elements of water into an intermediate of the cycle takes place?

16 / 100

Oxidative phosphorylation involves

17 / 100

Purity of water can be assessed by determining one of its following properties instrumentally:

18 / 100

The applicability of Noyes-Whitney equation is to describe

19 / 100

Which one of the following is the commonly used bulking agent in the formulation of freeze dried low dose drug products?

20 / 100

Which one of the following drugs does not act through G-Protein coupled receptors?

21 / 100

The characteristic of non-linear pharmacokinetics includes:

22 / 100

Humectants added in cosmetic preparations generally act by

23 / 100

In nail polish, the following polymer is used as a film-former:

24 / 100

Bacopa monnieri plant belongs to the family

25 / 100

The ability of human eye using illuminated area to detect a particle is limited to

26 / 100

Aliskiren acts by

27 / 100

Artemisinin contains the following group in its structure:

28 / 100

What quantities of 95% v/v and 45% v/v alcohols are to be mixed to make 800 mL of 65% v/v alcohol?

29 / 100

Rabies vaccine (living) is prepared using

30 / 100

Nicotinic action of acetylcholine is blocked by the drug

31 / 100

Quassia wood is adulterated with

32 / 100

Highly branched three dimensional macromolecules with controlled structures with all bonds originating from a central core are known as

33 / 100

In the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and Rules, the Schedule relating to GMP is

34 / 100

The amount of barbaloin present in Aloe vera is

35 / 100

Which one of the following is a flocculating agent for a negatively charged drug?

36 / 100

The healing agent used in hand creams is

37 / 100

Proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole and lansoprazole contain the following ring system:

38 / 100

Chemical nomenclature of procaine is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

39 / 100

The following protein/polypeptide has a quaternary structure:

40 / 100

It is required to maintain a therapeutic concentration of 10 microgram/mL for 12 hours of a drug having half life of 1.386 h and Vd of 5 L. The dose required in a sustained release product will be

41 / 100

Bloom strength is used to check the quality of
(a) (b)
(c)  (d)

42 / 100

Tropane alkaloids are not present in

43 / 100

The chemical behaviour of morphine alkaloid is

44 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is most effective in preventing transmission of HIV virus from the mother to the foetus?

45 / 100

Cyclophosphamide as anticancer agent acts as

46 / 100

Measurement of inulin renal clearance is a measure for

47 / 100

Which of the following non-opioid analgesics is a prodrug?

48 / 100

Geriatric population should be included in the following phase of clinical trials:

49 / 100

The effects observed following systemic administration of levodopa in the treatment of Parkinsonism have been
attributed to its catabolism to dopamine. Carbidopa can markedly increase the proportion of levodopa that
crosses the blood-brain barrier by

50 / 100

Which one of the following drugs specifically inhibits calcineurin in the activated T lymphocytes?

51 / 100

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor is

52 / 100

Ganciclovir is mainly used for the treatment of infection caused by

53 / 100

Digitalis toxicity is enhanced by co-administration of

54 / 100

Anisocytic stomata are present in

55 / 100

Amitryptyline is synthesized from the following starting material:

56 / 100

Eugenol is present in

57 / 100

The volume of distribution of a drug administered at a dose of 300 mg and exhibiting 30 microgram/mL instantaneous concentration in plasma shall be

58 / 100

The temperature condition for storage of drug products under cold temperature is given as

59 / 100

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

60 / 100

Aminotransferases usually requires the following for their activity:

61 / 100

The given antibiotic is an example of ansamycins:

62 / 100

A compound will be sensitive towards IR radiation only when one of the following properties undergo
transition on

63 / 100

Identify the one rational combination which has clinical benefit:

64 / 100

One mg of Lycopodium spores used in quantitative microscopy contains an average of

65 / 100

In the mixing of thymol and menthol, the following type of incompatibility occurs:

66 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is withdrawn from the market due to torsade de pointes?

67 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is prescribed for the treatment of Philadelphia chromosome positive patients with chronic myeloid Leukemia?

68 / 100

In organic molecules, fluorescence seldom results from absorption of UV radiation of wavelengths lower than

69 / 100

The role of borax in cold creams is

70 / 100

Which one of the following is a plasminogen activator?

71 / 100

Streptomycin cannot be given orally for treatment of tuberculosis because

72 / 100

Identify the drug which is not used in the treatment of malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum.

73 / 100

The common structural feature amongst the three
categories of anti-convulsant drugs barbiturates,
succinimides and hydantoins is
(a)  (b)
(c)  (d)

74 / 100

Thioglycolic acid-like compounds have applications in following type of cosmetic formulations:

75 / 100

An example of N-glycoside is

76 / 100

Sildenafil is used for treatment of one of the following
disorders:

77 / 100

Class 100 area is referred to

78 / 100

Alkaloids are not precipitated by

79 / 100

In thiazides, following substituent is essential for diuretic activity:

80 / 100

In Gas-Liquid Chromatography, some of the samples need to be derivatized in order to increase their

81 / 100

A drug (200 mg dose) administered in tablet form and as intravenous injection (50 mg dose) showed AUG of 100 and 200 microgram h/mL, respectively. The absolute availability of the drug through oral administration is

82 / 100

In which of the following techniques, the sample is kept below triple point?

83 / 100

Indicate the HPLC detector that is most sensitive to change in temperature:

84 / 100

An isosteric replacement for carboxylic acid group is

85 / 100

Triterpenoids are active constituents of

86 / 100

The rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis is one of the following:

87 / 100

Which one of the following is not an ex-officio member of Pharmacy Council of India?

88 / 100

Glass transition temperature is detected through
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

89 / 100

Gingkgo biloba is used for its

90 / 100

A metabolite obtained from Aspergillus terreus that can bind very tightly to HMG CoA reductase enzyme is

91 / 100

Many xenobiotics are oxidized by cytochrome P450 in order to

92 / 100

Choose the right combination:

93 / 100

Cardiac glycosides have the following configuration in the Aglycone part of the steroid nucleus:

94 / 100

Stevens Johnson syndrome is the most common adverse effect associated with one of the following category of drugs:

95 / 100

Guggul lipids are obtained from

96 / 100

Improvement of memory in Alzheimer’s disease is brought about by drugs which increase transmission in

97 / 100

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

98 / 100

Select the correct combination of drugs for the treatment of patients suffering from Hepatitis C.

99 / 100

Coulter counter is used in determination of

100 / 100

Which one of the following drugs is not a typical antipsychotic agent?

Your score is

The average score is 20%

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Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

2 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

3 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

4 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

5 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

6 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

7 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

8 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

9 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

10 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

11 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

12 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

13 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

14 / 50

DDS stands for......

15 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

16 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

17 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

18 / 50

Excystation is _______

19 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

20 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

21 / 50

Antiseptic are

22 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

23 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

24 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C30H62 . 

25 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

26 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

27 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

28 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

29 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

30 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

31 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

32 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

33 / 50

Functional group present in INH

34 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

35 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

36 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

37 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

38 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

39 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

40 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

41 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

42 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

43 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

44 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

45 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

46 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

47 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

48 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

49 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

50 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

Your score is

The average score is 23%

0%

2761
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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

2 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

3 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

4 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

5 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

6 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

7 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

8 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

9 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

10 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

11 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

12 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

13 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

14 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

15 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

16 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

17 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

18 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

19 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

20 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

21 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

22 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

23 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

24 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

25 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

26 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

27 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

28 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

29 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

30 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

31 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

32 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

33 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

34 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

35 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

36 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

37 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

38 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

39 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

40 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

41 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

42 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

43 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

44 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

45 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

46 / 50

Darifenacin is a

47 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

48 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

49 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

50 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Your score is

The average score is 30%

0%

1770

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

2 / 25

2. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

3 / 25

3. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

4 / 25

4. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

5 / 25

5. Spurious drug comes under

6 / 25

6. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

7 / 25

7. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

8 / 25

8. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

9 / 25

9. Schedule M, states that

10 / 25

10. Insulin comes under

11 / 25

11. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

12 / 25

12. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

13 / 25

13. Form 20 states that

14 / 25

14. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

15 / 25

15. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

16 / 25

16. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

17 / 25

17. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

18 / 25

18. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

19 / 25

19. Appendix II is about

20 / 25

20. Crocin is sale under

21 / 25

21. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

22 / 25

22. "Schedule F3" is related with

23 / 25

23. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

24 / 25

24. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

25 / 25

25. Pharmacy Act is established in

Your score is

The average score is 40%

0%

606
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Pharmacology MCQs for DPEE and GPAT

1 / 51

What is implied by «active transport»?

2 / 51

Target proteins which a drug molecule binds are:

3 / 51

The symptoms of mushroom poisoning include all of the following EXCEPT:

4 / 51

What does the term “bioavailability” mean?

5 / 51

Pharmacokinetics is:

 

6 / 51

Indicate the location of M2 cholinoreceptor type:

7 / 51

Which one of the following local anesthetics is an ester of benzoic acid?

8 / 51

Which of the following drugs is a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant?

9 / 51

A good local anesthetic agent shouldn’t cause:

10 / 51

M3 receptor subtype is located:

11 / 51

If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it’s called:

12 / 51

Acetylcholine is not used in clinical practice because:

13 / 51

Local anesthetics produce:

14 / 51

Indicate the local anesthetic agent, which has a shorter duration of action:

15 / 51

Indicate the drug, which is rapidly and fully distributed into CNS and has a greater effect than most other antimuscarinic
agents?

16 / 51

What kind of substances can’t permeate membranes by passive diffusion?

17 / 51

What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

18 / 51

Muscarinic receptors are located in:

19 / 51

Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs through liver is minimized:

20 / 51

The group of nicotinic receptor-blocking drugs consists of:

21 / 51

Pharmacodynamics involves the following?

22 / 51

Which of the following agents is a ganglion-blocking drug?

23 / 51

Indicate a muscarinic receptor-blocking drug:

24 / 51

What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

25 / 51

What does “affinity” mean?

26 / 51

An agonist is a substance that:

27 / 51

Which of the following direct-acting cholinomimetics is mainly muscarinic in action?

28 / 51

Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following EXCEPT:

29 / 51

Parasympathomimetic drugs cause:

30 / 51

Which one of the following groups is responsible for the potency and the toxicity of local anesthetics?

31 / 51

Most local anesthetic agents consist of:

32 / 51

Acetylcholine is not a specific neurotransmitter at:

33 / 51

Pick out the answer which is the most appropriate to the term “receptor”

34 / 51

Characteristics of carbachol include all of the following EXCEPT:

35 / 51

What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

36 / 51

Indicate the local anesthetic, which is an ester of paraaminobenzoic acid:

37 / 51

Which of the following drugs is both a muscarinic and nicotinic blocker?

38 / 51

A hydrophilic medicinal agent has the following property:

39 / 51

Indicate the drug, which has greater potency of the local anesthetic action:

40 / 51

Which one of the following groups is responsible for the duration of the local anesthetic action?

41 / 51

Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following?

42 / 51

If an agonist can produce maximal effects and has high efficacy it’s called:

43 / 51

The reasons determing bioavailability are:

44 / 51

An antagonist is a substance that:

45 / 51

The effect of the drug on parasympathetic function declines rapidly in all organs EXCEPT:

46 / 51

Indicate a cholinomimetic agent, which is related to direct-acting drugs:

47 / 51

The mechanism of atropine action is:

48 / 51

Which of the following cholinomimetics activates both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors?

49 / 51

The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:

50 / 51

Ionizable group is responsible for:

51 / 51

Indicate the skeletal muscle relaxant, which is a depolarizing agent:

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The average score is 24%

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