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Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz 2023-24

Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz

Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz, Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Test, Pharmacist Exam MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam.

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Hospital & Clinical Pharmacy Quiz

1 / 25

What is the main role of a hospital pharmacist?

Dispensing medications

Conducting research

Selling over-the-counter drugs

Providing pharmaceutical care to patients

2 / 25

How does a hospital pharmacist interact with other healthcare professionals?

As a team member

Independently

As an adversary

As a competitor

3 / 25

In what setting does a hospital pharmacist work?

Hospital

Retail pharmacy

Community pharmacy

Manufacturing facility

4 / 25

Which country has the highest number of hospital pharmacies?

United States

Germany

India

China

5 / 25

How do international regulatory agencies, such as the World Health Organization (WHO), influence hospital pharmacy practices?

They set global standards for drug use and safety

They only regulate the sale of drugs

They have no influence

They only regulate the production of drugs

6 / 25

What is the role of pharmacists in drug distribution for out-patients?

To ensure that the correct drugs are dispensed to the correct patients

To have no role in the process

To provide information about drugs

To provide information about the hospital formulary

7 / 25

What is the role of pharmacists in drug distribution for in-patients?

To provide information about the hospital formulary

To ensure that the correct drugs are administered to the correct patients at the correct time

To provide information about drugs

To have no role in the process

8 / 25

What is the impact of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP) on patient safety?

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Increases the risk of medication errors

No impact

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

9 / 25

What is the main challenge faced by hospital pharmacies in developing countries?

Lack of funding for healthcare

Limited access to new drugs

All of the above

Lack of qualified pharmacists

10 / 25

What is the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic on hospital pharmacies globally?

Decreased demand for drugs

Increased demand for drugs

Increased demand for over-the-counter drugs

No impact

11 / 25

What is the role of pharmacists in supply chain management?

To monitor drug supplies and ensure an adequate supply

To have no role in the process

To provide information about drugs

To provide information about the hospital formulary

12 / 25

What is the importance of hospital pharmacists in the healthcare system?

They are only responsible for dispensing drugs

They only participate in research studies

They play a crucial role in ensuring safe and effective patient care

They are not important

13 / 25

What is one of the key objectives of hospital pharmacy?

To ensure safe and effective use of medications

To provide information to healthcare professionals

To increase the sale of drugs

To reduce healthcare costs

14 / 25

What is one of the key components of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

Drug manufacturing

Drug labeling

Drug advertising

Drug dispensing

15 / 25

How does Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP) improve the quality of care in hospitals?

By reducing the number of drugs dispensed

By reducing the number of pharmacists in hospitals

By increasing the cost of healthcare

By promoting the safe and effective use of medications

16 / 25

How does the role of hospital pharmacists vary between developed and developing countries?

The role is more significant in developing countries

It depends on the specific country and healthcare system

The role is more significant in developed countries

There is no variation

17 / 25

What is the impact of effective supply chain management on patient safety?

Increases the cost of healthcare

No impact

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

18 / 25

What is the purpose of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

To reduce healthcare costs

To ensure safe and effective use of medications

To provide information to healthcare professionals

To increase the sale of drugs

19 / 25

What is the role of the hospital formulary in drug distribution?

To ensure that the correct drugs are used

To have no role in the process

To provide information about drugs

To provide information about the hospital's drug policies

20 / 25

What is the impact of poor supply chain management on patient care?

Increases the cost of healthcare

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

No impact

Increases the risk of drug shortages

21 / 25

What is the impact of incorrect drug distribution on patient safety?

No impact

Increases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Decreases the risk of adverse drug reactions

Increases the cost of healthcare

22 / 25

What is the role of inventory control in supply chain management?

To increase the cost of drugs

To maintain an adequate supply of drugs

To increase the sale of drugs

To reduce the cost of drugs

23 / 25

What is the primary objective of supply chain management in hospital pharmacy?

To increase the sale of drugs

To maintain an adequate supply of drugs

To reduce the cost of drugs

To increase the cost of drugs

24 / 25

Who sets the standards for Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

Hospital pharmacies

Drug manufacturers

Regulatory agencies

Retail pharmacies

25 / 25

What is the primary difference between drug distribution for in-patients and out-patients?

The location of the patients

The frequency of drug administration

The type of drugs used

The dose of the drugs

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The average score is 51%

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Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz

1 / 25

Good Pharmacy Practice and SOPs.

All of the above

A set of guidelines for the safe and effective use of medications

A set of guidelines for the conduct of pharmacists and pharmacy staff

A set of guidelines for the management and operation of a pharmacy

2 / 25

What is a prescription?

A written order for medication from a physician or other authorized prescriber

A written order for a diagnostic test or procedure

A written order for a specialist consultation

A written order for physical therapy

3 / 25

What is the significance of regular review and updating of SOPs in a pharmacy setting?

To maintain the effectiveness of SOPs

To incorporate new technologies and best practices

All of the above

To keep up with changes in regulations and laws

4 / 25

What is medication therapy management (MTM)?

A service provided by a community pharmacist to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a nurse to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a specialist to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a physician to optimize patient outcomes

5 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in the management of chronic conditions?

All of the above

Monitoring patient progress

Providing patient education

Making medication adjustments

6 / 25

What is the significance of regular training and education for staff in minimizing dispensing errors?

To enhance staff knowledge and skills

To reduce the risk of human error

To comply with regulatory requirements

All of the above

7 / 25

The process of quickly obtaining an out-of-stock medication in an urgent situation is called _________.

Bulk compounding log

Final fllter

Emergency drug procurement

Code cart

8 / 25

A record of medications compounded in the pharmacy is called _________.

Yule time log

Compounding log

Bulk compounding log

9 / 25

What is the area designed for the preparation of sterile products called?

Out-patient pharmacy

Clean room

Formulary

In-patient pharmacy

10 / 25

What is the significance of addressing non-adherence to medication regimens?

To reduce healthcare costs

To improve patient outcomes

To reduce the risk of adverse effects

All of the above

11 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in checking for potential drug interactions or allergies?

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

To monitor medication efficacy

All of the above

To improve patient outcomes

12 / 25

What is the most common type of dispensing error

Medication dosing errors

Medication administration errors

Medication labeling errors

Medication substitution errors

13 / 25

What is a dispensing error?

An error in the preparation or labeling of a medication

An error in the administration of a medication

An error in the storage or handling of a medication

An error in the prescription or order for a medication

14 / 25

What is the role of technology in community pharmacy management?

Improving patient safety

All of the above

Enhancing communication with healthcare providers

Streamlining processes and increasing efficiency

15 / 25

What is the main goal of community pharmacy management?

To improve patient outcomes

All of the above

To increase profits

To provide cost-effective care

16 / 25

What is the purpose of conducting a medication review in a community pharmacy setting?

To monitor medication efficacy

All of the above

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

To increase medication adherence

17 / 25

What is the significance of non-verbal communication (body language) in patient-pharmacist interactions?

All of the above

To improve patient satisfaction

To convey empathy and understanding

To enhance patient trust and rapport

18 / 25

What are the key responsibilities of a community pharmacist in managing a pharmacy?

All of the above

Providing patient counseling and education

Ensuring compliance with regulations and laws

Maintaining inventory and ordering supplies

19 / 25

What is medication adherence?

The act of taking medication as prescribed

The ability of a patient to follow a medication regimen

All of the above

The willingness of a patient to take medication

20 / 25

What is the primary role of a community pharmacist?

Conducting patient assessments

All of the above

Dispensing medications

Providing health and wellness advice

21 / 25

What is the significance of providing immunization services in a community pharmacy setting?

To increase patient convenience

All of the above

To improve patient outcomes

To increase access to immunization services

22 / 25

What is the most common type of community pharmacy?

Compounding pharmacy

Retail pharmacy

Mail order pharmacy

Hospital pharmacy

23 / 25

Voluntary or involuntary removal of a drug product by the manufacturer, usually pertaining to a particular shipment or lot number is called _______.

IVPB

Recall

Code cart

24 / 25

What is the significance of regularly reviewing and updating Patient Information Leaflets (PILs)?

To comply with regulatory requirements

To ensure that the information provided is accurate and up-to-date

To reduce the risk of medication errors

All of the above

25 / 25

What is the significance of using appropriate tone and pace when communicating with a patient over the telephone?

To increase patient satisfaction

All of the above

To improve patient understanding

To reduce the risk of misinterpretation

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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

Q and R

P and S

Q and S

R and S

2 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

None of above

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

3 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Suppression of insulin secretion

Suppression of glucagon secretion

Stimulation of insulin release

None of above

4 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Sympathomimetic

Cholinomimetic

Cholinesterase inhibitor

Cholinolytics

5 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

None of the above

To check the activity straight muscle

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

6 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

Desmethyl spironolactone

Canrenone

None of the above

Acetylspironolactone

7 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Reduced sweating

Loss of accommodation

Mydriasis

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

8 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Dopamine

Amphetamine

Ephedrine

All of the above

9 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To cause haemeostasis

All of the above

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

To stimulate would healing

10 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Physostigmine

Tubocurarine

Neostigmine

Pralidoxime

11 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Rifampicin

Grape juice

Barbiturates

Carbamazepine

12 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Gallamine

Tubocurarine

Pancuronium

All of the above

13 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

14 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Metoclopramide

Carbamazepine

Atropine

Scopolamine

15 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Atropine

Physostigmine

Bethanechol

Pilocarpine

16 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Alcohol

Digoxin

Amitriptyline

Warfarin

17 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Prevents miosis

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Inhibits GIT motility

18 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Blocking B2 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

Stimulating B2 receptor

19 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Isopropanol

Epinephrine

All of the above

Dopamine

20 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

21 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M2 antagonist

M3 agonist

M3 antagonist

M1 antagonist

22 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Phenytoin

Diazepam

Paraldehyde

Carbamazepine

23 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Cerebral heamorrhage

Respiratory difficulty

Tremor

Palpitation

24 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Methylation

α amino acid conjunction

Glucuronide conjugation

Sulfate conjunction:

25 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Addition

Potentiation

Synergism

Antagonism

26 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Cyclopentolate

Pirenzepine

Hyoscine

Darifenacin

27 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Mental aberration

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Miosis

Increased heart rate

28 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

GPCR

Ion channel

Steroid receptor

Enzyme linked

29 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Detect the impurity in a given drug

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

30 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Constipation

Bronchoconstriction

Block accommodation reflex

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

31 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Atropine

Acetylcholine

Noradrenaline

Isoprenaline

32 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Hexamethonium

D-tubocurarine

Gallamine

Succinylcholine

33 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Dry mouth

Hypertension

Tachycardia

Bradycardia

34 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

None of the above

Physostigmine

Pralidoxime

Neostigmine

35 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

All of the above

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

36 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Inhibiting release from storage sites

All of the above

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

Competing at receptor sites

37 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Competitive antagonism

Non-competitive antagonism

Antagonist

Partial agonist

38 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Ethanol

Prednisolone

Salicylates

Clofibrate

39 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

40 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Corpus striatum

Exocrine gland

Heart

Cerebral cortex

41 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Ecothiopate

Both a and b

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Physostigmine

42 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

All of the above

Pregnancy

Renal insufficiency

IDDM

43 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Drug fever

Alopecia

Agranulocytosis

Nephritis

44 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Dysmenorrhoea

Breast Carcinoma

Hypertension

Cerebral thrombosis

45 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

Phenothiazines

All of the above

Atropine

Scopolamines

46 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Atropine

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

All of the above

47 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Oxytocin

Insulin

Histamine

Prolactin

48 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

F S H

Vasopressin

Prolactin

49 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Facilitated diffusion

Active transport

Ion pair transport

Passive diffusion

50 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Pyridostigmine

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

Edrophonium

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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1769

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1995

b. 1940

c. 1919

d. 1948

2 / 25

Insulin comes under

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule G

3 / 25

Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Capsule

b. Toxins

c. Antigen

d. Sera

4 / 25

Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule U

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule U1

d. Schedule V

5 / 25

Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form 30

b. Form36

c. Form 31

d. Form 32

6 / 25

Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 24D

b. Form 25E

c. Form 21

d. Form 20

7 / 25

Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule S

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule E

d. Schedule O

8 / 25

In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. Election of Registered Pharmacists

b. President

c. Central Government

d. State Government of Delhi

9 / 25

If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Spurious drug

b. Misbranded drug

c. Adulterated drug

d. Drug

10 / 25

Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Five years

b. Four years

c. Six years

d. Three years

11 / 25

Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

b. To prescribe drug

c. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

d. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

12 / 25

Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

13 / 25

Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

b. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

c. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

d. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

14 / 25

"Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for production of sera

b. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

c. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

d. Standard for surgical dressing

15 / 25

In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 5

b. 3

c. 1

d. 2

16 / 25

One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 32

b. Form 24

c. Form 36

d. Form 20

17 / 25

Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 3

b. 1

c. 4

d. 2

18 / 25

"Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule M

d. Schedule C

19 / 25

Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule W

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule Y

20 / 25

How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Six

b. Five

c. Four

d. Three

21 / 25

Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 17

b. Section 17B

c. Section 3B

d. Section 17A

22 / 25

Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule B

b. Schedule D

c. Schedule F

d. Schedule G

23 / 25

Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule U

b. Schedule X

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule W

24 / 25

Appendix II is about

a. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

b. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

c. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

d. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

25 / 25

Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. In cold place

b. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

c. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

d. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

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The average score is 40%

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365

1 / 50

Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

a. Phase III

b. Phase V

c. Phase II

d. Phase I

2 / 50

MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

a. Brazil

b. South Africa

c. Denmark

d. UK

3 / 50

As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

a. Parenteral preparation

b. Ophthalmic preparation

c. Skin cosmetic preparation

d. Ointment formulation

4 / 50

Injection syringe and needles are covered under

a. Schedule A

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule Q

d. Schedule B

5 / 50

Hatch Waxman Act is related to

a. Over the counter drugs

b. Banned drugs

c. Dangerous drugs Act

d. Spurious drugs Act

6 / 50

State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

a. Five

b. Nine

c. Six

d. Seven

7 / 50

Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

a. Requirements of factory premises

b. List of drug exempted from the provision of import of drugs

c. Disease or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure

d. List of prescription drugs

8 / 50

One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

a. Assistant drug controller

b. Chief pharmacist of government hospital

c. All

d. Chief administrative medical officer of the state

9 / 50

Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

a. 1954

b. 1948

c. 1985

d. 1919

10 / 50

TGA is regulatory agency of………….

a. Denmark

b. Australia

c. India

d. Zimbabwe

11 / 50

For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

a. 21B

b. 20

c. 21

d. 20B

12 / 50

Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

a. Schedule K

b. Schedule L

c. Schedule J

d. Schedule P

13 / 50

Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

a. Q

b. FF

c. D

d. A

14 / 50

If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

a. Misbranded Drug

b. Spurious Drug

c. True Drug

d. Adulterated Drug

15 / 50

Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

a. List of generic drugs

b. None of the above

c. Guidelines for clinical Trials

d. List of incurable diseases

16 / 50

If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

a. Yellow

b. Blue

c. White

d. Red

17 / 50

As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

a. Well closed container, protect from light, in cool place, protect from light

b. Temperature not exceeding 5°C

c. A Cold place

d. A cool place

18 / 50

DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

a. Five

b. Eight

c. Four

d. Six

19 / 50

Schedule C is related to

a. List of Ayurvedic product

b. List of Biological and Immunological product

c. List of Homeopathy product

d. List of Allopathic product

20 / 50

Schedule J is related to

a. List of disease and ailments which drug cannot claim.

b. Pack sizes of drugs.

c. GMP

d. Curable disease

21 / 50

Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

a. Every 3 year

b. Every 6 year

c. Every 2 year

d. Every 5 year

22 / 50

As per D and C act schedule T stated about

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Allopathy drugs

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacturer of Homeopathy drugs

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Medical device

23 / 50

Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

a. 2

b. 3

c. 1

d. 4

24 / 50

Coca, opium and hemp come under:

a. Dangerous Drug Act

b. Insecticide Act

c. Spurious Drug Act

d. Poisons Act

25 / 50

For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

a. Symbol N displayed on left top corner of the label.

b. Symbol X given in red

c. Symbol H displayed on right top corner of the label.

d. Symbol N is red displayed on left top corner of the label

26 / 50

Schedule N states

a. Standard for cosmetics

b. List of minimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy

c. Requirement of factory premises and hygienic condition to complied

d. List of minimum equipment required for manufacturing of drug.

27 / 50

Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

a. W

b. X

c. Y

d. V

28 / 50

Example of Schedule G drug is

a. Metformin

b. Enalapril

c. Cefuroxime

d. Barbital

29 / 50

In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

a. Government Analyst

b. The officer in charge of drugs control organization

c. Chief Administrator medical officer of state

d. President of India

30 / 50

Pack size of drug is covered under

a. Schedule P1

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule O

d. Schedule R

31 / 50

As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

a. Area required to open wholesale drug store

b. Area for opening retail pharmacy

c. List of minimum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

d. List of maximum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy

32 / 50

Patent Act is established in

a. 1919

b. 1948

c. 1940

d. 1970

33 / 50

Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

b. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

c. In cold place

d. At the Temperature 2°C to 8°C and it must not allow to freeze

34 / 50

In 1954 one of the following act is passed

a. Poisonous Act.

b. Drug and magic Remedies Act

c. The Medical Termination of pregnancy Act

d. Narcotic and psychotropic substance Act

35 / 50

Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

a. R1

b. O

c. R

d. S

36 / 50

Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

a. Toilet preparations

b. Misbranded drugs

c. Ayurvedic drugs

d. Schedule ‘C’ ‘G’ drugs

37 / 50

MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

a. South Africa

b. Denmark

c. UK

d. Brazil

38 / 50

For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

a. 500 square meters

b. 150 square meters

c. 250 square meters

d. 400 square meters

39 / 50

List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

a. Schedule J

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule I

d. Schedule H

40 / 50

Aspirin sodium comes under

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule G

41 / 50

List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

a. X

b. G

c. K

d. H

42 / 50

Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

a. Efficacy and Safety of drug in longer number of patients (500 patients)

b. Determine Possible therapeutic uses, Effective doses range

c. Long time adverse effects aster marketing drug

d. To determine maximum tolerated dose in humans, Pharmacodynamics effects, Adverse effect.

43 / 50

The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

a. 1940

b. 1985

c. 1950

d. 1955

44 / 50

List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

a. Schedule R

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule Q

d. Schedule P

45 / 50

The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

a. President, Pharmacy Council of India

b. Drug Controller

c. Central Government

d. Ministry of Education

46 / 50

Dettol comes under

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule Q

c. Schedule N

d. Schedule P

47 / 50

Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

a. Form 25

b. Form 26

c. Form 27

d. Form 24

48 / 50

The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule M

c. Schedule F

d. Schedule O

49 / 50

Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

a. B

b. X

c. A

d. C and C1

50 / 50

In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

a. 1-10 patients

b. 100 patients

c. 500 patients

d. 10-12 patients

Your score is

The average score is 38%

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