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Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz

Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz

Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz, Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz, Pharmacist Exam MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam.

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Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz

1 / 25

What is the significance of regular training and education for staff in minimizing dispensing errors?

To enhance staff knowledge and skills

To reduce the risk of human error

To comply with regulatory requirements

All of the above

2 / 25

What is the significance of non-verbal communication (body language) in patient-pharmacist interactions?

To improve patient satisfaction

To enhance patient trust and rapport

To convey empathy and understanding

All of the above

3 / 25

What is the significance of addressing non-adherence to medication regimens?

To reduce the risk of adverse effects

All of the above

To improve patient outcomes

To reduce healthcare costs

4 / 25

What is the significance of providing immunization services in a community pharmacy setting?

To increase patient convenience

All of the above

To increase access to immunization services

To improve patient outcomes

5 / 25

What is the significance of regular review and updating of SOPs in a pharmacy setting?

To incorporate new technologies and best practices

All of the above

To maintain the effectiveness of SOPs

To keep up with changes in regulations and laws

6 / 25

What is the area designed for the preparation of sterile products called?

Formulary

Clean room

Out-patient pharmacy

In-patient pharmacy

7 / 25

What is medication therapy management (MTM)?

A service provided by a community pharmacist to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a specialist to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a physician to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a nurse to optimize patient outcomes

8 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in checking for potential drug interactions or allergies?

To monitor medication efficacy

To improve patient outcomes

All of the above

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

9 / 25

What is the significance of using appropriate tone and pace when communicating with a patient over the telephone?

To improve patient understanding

To reduce the risk of misinterpretation

All of the above

To increase patient satisfaction

10 / 25

What is medication adherence?

The ability of a patient to follow a medication regimen

All of the above

The act of taking medication as prescribed

The willingness of a patient to take medication

11 / 25

What is the most common type of dispensing error

Medication dosing errors

Medication administration errors

Medication substitution errors

Medication labeling errors

12 / 25

What is the purpose of conducting a medication review in a community pharmacy setting?

All of the above

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

To increase medication adherence

To monitor medication efficacy

13 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in the management of chronic conditions?

Monitoring patient progress

Providing patient education

Making medication adjustments

All of the above

14 / 25

What is a dispensing error?

An error in the administration of a medication

An error in the storage or handling of a medication

An error in the prescription or order for a medication

An error in the preparation or labeling of a medication

15 / 25

What are the key responsibilities of a community pharmacist in managing a pharmacy?

All of the above

Providing patient counseling and education

Ensuring compliance with regulations and laws

Maintaining inventory and ordering supplies

16 / 25

What is the primary role of a community pharmacist?

Providing health and wellness advice

Dispensing medications

All of the above

Conducting patient assessments

17 / 25

A record of medications compounded in the pharmacy is called _________.

Bulk compounding log

Yule time log

Compounding log

18 / 25

The process of quickly obtaining an out-of-stock medication in an urgent situation is called _________.

Code cart

Final fllter

Emergency drug procurement

Bulk compounding log

19 / 25

What is a prescription?

A written order for physical therapy

A written order for a diagnostic test or procedure

A written order for medication from a physician or other authorized prescriber

A written order for a specialist consultation

20 / 25

Good Pharmacy Practice and SOPs.

A set of guidelines for the safe and effective use of medications

A set of guidelines for the conduct of pharmacists and pharmacy staff

A set of guidelines for the management and operation of a pharmacy

All of the above

21 / 25

Voluntary or involuntary removal of a drug product by the manufacturer, usually pertaining to a particular shipment or lot number is called _______.

Code cart

Recall

IVPB

22 / 25

What is the main goal of community pharmacy management?

To increase profits

To provide cost-effective care

All of the above

To improve patient outcomes

23 / 25

What is the most common type of community pharmacy?

Mail order pharmacy

Hospital pharmacy

Compounding pharmacy

Retail pharmacy

24 / 25

What is the significance of regularly reviewing and updating Patient Information Leaflets (PILs)?

To comply with regulatory requirements

All of the above

To ensure that the information provided is accurate and up-to-date

To reduce the risk of medication errors

25 / 25

What is the role of technology in community pharmacy management?

Improving patient safety

Streamlining processes and increasing efficiency

Enhancing communication with healthcare providers

All of the above

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Your score is

The average score is 39%

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1802

Created on June 10, 2022 By

NotesKarts

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

A. Pyrazine-4- carbohydrazide

B. Pyridine-4- carbohydrazide

C. pyrimidine-4- carbohydrazide

D. pyridine-4-carboxamide

2 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

A. Specifying the number of carbon atoms associated with the bond

B. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at beginning of the C=C bond

C. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at end of the C=C bond

D. Specifying the number of carbon atoms in the entire chain

3 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

A. Compared to antibiotics

B. Compared to statins

C. Compared to sulpha drugs

D. Compared to antitubercular drugs

4 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Entamoeba subtilis

D. Entamoeba chrysogenum

5 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

A. Clofazimine and Rifampicin

B. Dopamine and Rifampicin

C. Clofazimine and ofloxacin

D. All of them

6 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

A. Damage to DNA

B. Enzyme inhibition

C. Cell wall destruction

D. All of them

7 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

A. Pyridine

B. Imidazole

C. Pyrimidine

D. Pyrazine

8 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

A. 4,4'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. 2,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

C. 4,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

D. 4,4'-diamino dimethyl sulphone

9 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

A. Chlorhexidine

B. Diazepam

C. Miglitol

D. Lorazepam

10 / 50

DDS stands for......

A. Diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. Diamino divinyl sulphone

C. Dimethyl diphenyl sulphone

D. Diphenyl sulphone

11 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

A. Salicylic acid

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Dapsone

D. Methyl salicylic acid

12 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

A. Jaundice

B. Diarrhea

C. Peripheral neuropathy

D. All of them

13 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

A. Vicucidal

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacteriostatic

D. Disinfectant

14 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

A. Disinfection

B. Antisepsis

C. Sterilization

D. Coronisation

15 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Isoniazid

D. Ethambutol

16 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

A. Amoebic dysentery

B. Helminth infection

C. Fungal infection

D. None of them

17 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

A. Temperature below 15°c

B. Temperature above 15°c

C. Temperature should be 30°c

D. Temperature between 15-30°c

18 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

A. Exactly a double bond

B. Exactly a triple bond

C. Exactly two double bond

D. More than two double bond

19 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

A. Bacteria

B. Spores

C. Fungi

D. Viruses

20 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

A. Piperidine

B. Pyridine

C. Oxazole

D. Pyrimidine

21 / 50

Excystation is _______

A. Formation of trophozoites from cyst

B. Formation of cyst from trophozoites

C. Both of them

D. None of them

22 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

A. Alcohol

B. Phenol

C. Iodine

D. All of the above

23 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

A. Crystalluria

B. Hansen's disease

C. Liver cirrhosis

D. Mendel disease

24 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

25 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

A. Ethambutol

B. Diazepam

C. Haldol

D. Isoniazid

26 / 50

Functional group present in INH

A. Carbohydrazide

B. Carbonyl group

C. Carboxamide

D. Carboxylic group

27 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphamethoxazole

B. Sulfafuraole

C. Sulphadimidine

D. Sulphapyridine

28 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

A. Direct contact

B. Formites

C. Contaminated food and drink

D. Rodents

29 / 50

Antiseptic are

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

30 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

A. Sulphamethoxine

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphamethoxy pyridazine

31 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

A. Alkanes

B. Alkenes

C. Alkynes

D. Alkaloids

32 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

A. Crystalluria

B. Peripheral neuropathy

C. Liver damage

D. Metabolic syndrome

33 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

A. Benzoyl peroxide

B. Tramadol

C. Zidovudine

D. Fluoxetine

34 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

A. Cyclopropane

B. Cyclobutane

C. Cyclopentane

D. Cyclohexane

35 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

A. Sulphadimethoxine

B. Sulphadoxine

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphadimethoxy pyridazine

36 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

A. para amino salicylic acid

B. Clofazimine

C. Dapsone

D. Ethambutol

37 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

A. ene

B. ic

C. one

D. yl

38 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

A. Phenyl and benzyl

B. Propyl and phenyl

C. Methyl and benzyl

D. Butyl and phenyl

39 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C₃₀H_{62 .}

A. Propdecane

B. Eicosane

C. Triacontane

D. Dodecane

40 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphacetamide

B. Sulphasalazine

C. Sulphapyridine

D. Sulphadoxine

41 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

A. Aniline

B. Sulfone

C. Amine

D. All of them

42 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Dapsone

D. Di-iodohydroxy quinoline

43 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

A. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase

B. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase

C. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase

D. Activation of DNA gyrase

44 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

A. Moxifloxacin

B. Dapsone

C. Clofazimine

D. Ethambutol

45 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

A. Methyl Group

B. Ethynyl group

C. Propionyl group

D. Propargyl group

46 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

A. True

B. False

47 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

A. Silver

B. Titanium

C. Lead

D. Tin

48 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

A. Hepatic amoebiasis

B. Pulmonary amebiasis

C. Cerebral amobiasis

D. All of the above

49 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

A. Cotrimoxazole

B. Sulphadiazine

C. Sulphacetamide sodium

D. Sulphamethoxazole

50 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethionamide

C. Triacetazone

D. None of the above

Your score is

The average score is 23%

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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Metoclopramide

Atropine

Scopolamine

Carbamazepine

2 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Clofibrate

Salicylates

Prednisolone

Ethanol

3 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

4 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Alcohol

Warfarin

Amitriptyline

Digoxin

5 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

P and S

R and S

Q and S

Q and R

6 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Corpus striatum

Heart

Cerebral cortex

Exocrine gland

7 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M3 agonist

M3 antagonist

M2 antagonist

M1 antagonist

8 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

A stupor or somnolent state

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

9 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Suppression of insulin secretion

Suppression of glucagon secretion

Stimulation of insulin release

None of above

10 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Acetylcholine

Atropine

Noradrenaline

Isoprenaline

11 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Tubocurarine

Gallamine

All of the above

Pancuronium

12 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Drug fever

Alopecia

Agranulocytosis

Nephritis

13 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Stimulating B2 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

Blocking B2 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

14 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Mydriasis

Loss of accommodation

Reduced sweating

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

15 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

16 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

Atropine

Phenothiazines

All of the above

Scopolamines

17 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

Miosis

Mental aberration

Increased heart rate

18 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Inhibits GIT motility

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Prevents miosis

19 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

F S H

Prolactin

Vasopressin

20 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

Desmethyl spironolactone

None of the above

Acetylspironolactone

Canrenone

21 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Dopamine

Ephedrine

All of the above

Amphetamine

22 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Bethanechol

Atropine

Pilocarpine

Physostigmine

23 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Block accommodation reflex

Constipation

Bronchoconstriction

24 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Pyridostigmine

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

Edrophonium

25 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Dry mouth

Tachycardia

Hypertension

Bradycardia

26 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Physostigmine

Ecothiopate

Both a and b

27 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Diazepam

Paraldehyde

Carbamazepine

Phenytoin

28 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Cyclopentolate

Hyoscine

Darifenacin

Pirenzepine

29 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Steroid receptor

Ion channel

Enzyme linked

GPCR

30 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

Atropine

All of the above

31 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

Competing at receptor sites

Inhibiting release from storage sites

All of the above

32 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Respiratory difficulty

Palpitation

Tremor

Cerebral heamorrhage

33 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Succinylcholine

Hexamethonium

Gallamine

D-tubocurarine

34 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

Pralidoxime

Physostigmine

Neostigmine

None of the above

35 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Detect the impurity in a given drug

36 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To cause haemeostasis

To stimulate would healing

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

All of the above

37 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Epinephrine

Dopamine

All of the above

Isopropanol

38 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinomimetic

Cholinolytics

Sympathomimetic

Cholinesterase inhibitor

39 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

Tubocurarine

Pralidoxime

40 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

All of the above

Renal insufficiency

IDDM

Pregnancy

41 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

None of above

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

42 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Competitive antagonism

Non-competitive antagonism

Antagonist

Partial agonist

43 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Facilitated diffusion

Ion pair transport

Passive diffusion

Active transport

44 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Glucuronide conjugation

Sulfate conjunction:

α amino acid conjunction

Methylation

45 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

To check the activity straight muscle

None of the above

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

46 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Histamine

Insulin

Prolactin

Oxytocin

47 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Breast Carcinoma

Dysmenorrhoea

Hypertension

Cerebral thrombosis

48 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Barbiturates

Carbamazepine

Rifampicin

Grape juice

49 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

All of the above

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

50 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Potentiation

Synergism

Addition

Antagonism

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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1760

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Sera

b. Toxins

c. Antigen

d. Capsule

2 / 25

2. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule P

b. Schedule C

c. Schedule M

d. Schedule R

3 / 25

3. Insulin comes under

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule J

d. Schedule O

4 / 25

4. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 2

b. 3

c. 5

d. 1

5 / 25

5. Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

b. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

c. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

d. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

6 / 25

6. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Adulterated drug

b. Spurious drug

c. Drug

d. Misbranded drug

7 / 25

7. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. President

b. Central Government

c. Election of Registered Pharmacists

d. State Government of Delhi

8 / 25

8. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 20

b. Form 36

c. Form 24

d. Form 32

9 / 25

9. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 4

b. 2

c. 1

d. 3

10 / 25

10. "Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for surgical dressing

b. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

c. Standard for production of sera

d. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

11 / 25

11. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule D

c. Schedule F

d. Schedule B

12 / 25

12. Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule G

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule W

13 / 25

13. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 20

b. Form 21

c. Form 24D

d. Form 25E

14 / 25

14. Appendix II is about

a. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

b. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

c. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

d. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

15 / 25

15. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form 30

b. Form 31

c. Form 32

d. Form36

16 / 25

16. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Four

b. Three

c. Five

d. Six

17 / 25

17. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule X

b. Schedule W

c. Schedule U

d. Schedule Y

18 / 25

18. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule E

c. Schedule R

d. Schedule S

19 / 25

19. Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1948

b. 1919

c. 1940

d. 1995

20 / 25

20. Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 3B

b. Section 17A

c. Section 17B

d. Section 17

21 / 25

21. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

b. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

c. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

d. To prescribe drug

22 / 25

22. Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

23 / 25

23. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule Y

b. Schedule V

c. Schedule U

d. Schedule U1

24 / 25

24. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

b. In cold place

c. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

d. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

25 / 25

25. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Three years

b. Four years

c. Six years

d. Five years

Your score is

The average score is 39%

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Social Pharmacy Quiz

1 / 25

Which SDG is specifically focused on improving access to healthcare?

SDG 8: Decent Work and Economic Growth

SDG 1: No Poverty

SDG 3: Good Health and Well-being

SDG 5: Gender Equality

2 / 25

What is the goal of the WHO in terms of health equity?

Increasing the overall life expectancy of the global population

Providing equal access to healthcare for all individuals

All of the above

Eliminating disparities in health outcomes between different populations

3 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Mental Health Programme (NMHP)?

To reduce maternal mortality

To control the spread of infectious diseases

To improve access to mental health services

All of the above

4 / 25

What are the types of immunity?

None of the above

Passive immunity

Both A and B

Active immunity

5 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Health Mission (NHM)?

All of the above

To reduce maternal mortality

To improve the availability of and access to healthcare for all citizens

To control the spread of infectious diseases

6 / 25

What are the ill effects of infant milk substitutes and bottle feeding?

Increased risk of malnutrition

Increased risk of infections

Reduced bonding between the mother and child

All of the above

7 / 25

In what way can pharmacists support the use of family planning methods?

All of the above

By providing access to emergency contraceptive options

By providing counseling on side effects

By providing education on proper use

8 / 25

What is the primary role of pharmacists in vaccination?

Providing education on the importance of vaccination

Administering vaccinations

All of the above

Advising on post-vaccination care

9 / 25

What is the importance of pharmacists in immunization?

They provide education on the importance of vaccination

All of the above

They advise on the appropriate vaccines for different age groups

They provide counseling on post-vaccination care

10 / 25

Which of the following is not a method of family planning?

Condoms

Fasting

Sterilization

Oral contraceptives

11 / 25

What does the WHO define as "health"?

The absence of disease or infirmity

The ability to perform daily activities without assistance

The absence of pain or discomfort

A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being

12 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM)?

To control the spread of infectious diseases

To reduce maternal mortality

All of the above

To improve the availability of and access to healthcare for rural populations

13 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Health Policy of India?

To improve maternal and child health

All of the above

To provide universal access to healthcare

To control the spread of infectious diseases

14 / 25

Why is breastfeeding considered to be the best form of nutrition for infants?

It promotes bonding between the mother and child

It helps to protect the infant from infections

It provides all the necessary nutrients

All of the above

15 / 25

Which of the following is the primary role of pharmacists in Demography and Family Planning?

Providing counseling on contraceptive options

Prescribing medications

Administering vaccinations

Conducting physical examinations

16 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP)?

To improve maternal and child health

To provide universal access to healthcare

To control the spread of vector-borne diseases

All of the above

17 / 25

How many Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are there?

18 / 25

What is the main focus of the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)?

Achieving universal primary education

All of the above

Eradicating extreme poverty and hunger

Improving maternal health

19 / 25

What does the WHO consider to be a fundamental right of all individuals?

The right to own property

The right to free speech

The right to access healthcare

The right to vote

20 / 25

What is the main objective of the Family Planning 2020 (FP2020) initiative?

To improve maternal and child health

All of the above

To increase access to family planning services

To reduce maternal mortality

21 / 25

What is the difference between active and passive immunity?

Active immunity is acquired through vaccination, passive immunity is acquired through exposure to a disease.

Active immunity is acquired through exposure to a disease, passive immunity is acquired through vaccination.

Active immunity is acquired through exposure to a disease, passive immunity is acquired through exposure to antibodies

Active immunity is acquired through exposure to antibodies, passive immunity is acquired through vaccination

22 / 25

According to the WHO, what are the main determinants of health?

Genetics and lifestyle choices

Socioeconomic status and environmental factors

Access to healthcare and education

Medical treatments and technological advancements

23 / 25

What is the main objective of the National AYUSH Mission (NAM)?

To promote the use of traditional and alternative medicine

To control the spread of infectious diseases

To improve the availability of and access to healthcare for rural populations

All of the above

24 / 25

What is the primary role of pharmacists in mother and child health?

Administering vaccinations

Conducting physical examinations

Prescribing medications

Advising on breastfeeding and nutrition

25 / 25

How does the WHO define "Health for All"?

The eradication of all diseases

Universal access to healthcare services

All of the above

Health promotion and disease prevention for all individuals

Your score is

The average score is 53%

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