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Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz

Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz

Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz, Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz, Pharmacist Exam MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam.

1423

Created by

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Community Pharmacy & Management Quiz

1 / 25

What is a prescription?

A written order for physical therapy

A written order for medication from a physician or other authorized prescriber

A written order for a diagnostic test or procedure

A written order for a specialist consultation

2 / 25

What is the significance of regularly reviewing and updating Patient Information Leaflets (PILs)?

To reduce the risk of medication errors

All of the above

To comply with regulatory requirements

To ensure that the information provided is accurate and up-to-date

3 / 25

What is the purpose of conducting a medication review in a community pharmacy setting?

To increase medication adherence

To monitor medication efficacy

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

All of the above

4 / 25

What is the main goal of community pharmacy management?

To improve patient outcomes

To increase profits

All of the above

To provide cost-effective care

5 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in the management of chronic conditions?

All of the above

Providing patient education

Making medication adjustments

Monitoring patient progress

6 / 25

What is the significance of regular training and education for staff in minimizing dispensing errors?

To comply with regulatory requirements

To enhance staff knowledge and skills

All of the above

To reduce the risk of human error

7 / 25

What is medication therapy management (MTM)?

A service provided by a community pharmacist to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a physician to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a nurse to optimize patient outcomes

A service provided by a specialist to optimize patient outcomes

8 / 25

The process of quickly obtaining an out-of-stock medication in an urgent situation is called _________.

Bulk compounding log

Code cart

Final fllter

Emergency drug procurement

9 / 25

Voluntary or involuntary removal of a drug product by the manufacturer, usually pertaining to a particular shipment or lot number is called _______.

Recall

Code cart

IVPB

10 / 25

What is the significance of addressing non-adherence to medication regimens?

To improve patient outcomes

To reduce the risk of adverse effects

To reduce healthcare costs

All of the above

11 / 25

What is the most common type of dispensing error

Medication substitution errors

Medication labeling errors

Medication administration errors

Medication dosing errors

12 / 25

What is the significance of non-verbal communication (body language) in patient-pharmacist interactions?

To convey empathy and understanding

To improve patient satisfaction

All of the above

To enhance patient trust and rapport

13 / 25

What is the significance of providing immunization services in a community pharmacy setting?

To increase patient convenience

All of the above

To increase access to immunization services

To improve patient outcomes

14 / 25

What is the role of a community pharmacist in checking for potential drug interactions or allergies?

To improve patient outcomes

To identify and resolve any medication-related problems

All of the above

To monitor medication efficacy

15 / 25

What is the area designed for the preparation of sterile products called?

Formulary

Out-patient pharmacy

Clean room

In-patient pharmacy

16 / 25

Good Pharmacy Practice and SOPs.

A set of guidelines for the conduct of pharmacists and pharmacy staff

All of the above

A set of guidelines for the safe and effective use of medications

A set of guidelines for the management and operation of a pharmacy

17 / 25

What is a dispensing error?

An error in the storage or handling of a medication

An error in the prescription or order for a medication

An error in the preparation or labeling of a medication

An error in the administration of a medication

18 / 25

What is the primary role of a community pharmacist?

Conducting patient assessments

Dispensing medications

All of the above

Providing health and wellness advice

19 / 25

What is the role of technology in community pharmacy management?

Improving patient safety

Enhancing communication with healthcare providers

Streamlining processes and increasing efficiency

All of the above

20 / 25

What is medication adherence?

The ability of a patient to follow a medication regimen

All of the above

The willingness of a patient to take medication

The act of taking medication as prescribed

21 / 25

A record of medications compounded in the pharmacy is called _________.

Compounding log

Bulk compounding log

Yule time log

22 / 25

What is the significance of regular review and updating of SOPs in a pharmacy setting?

To incorporate new technologies and best practices

To keep up with changes in regulations and laws

All of the above

To maintain the effectiveness of SOPs

23 / 25

What is the significance of using appropriate tone and pace when communicating with a patient over the telephone?

To reduce the risk of misinterpretation

To improve patient understanding

To increase patient satisfaction

All of the above

24 / 25

What is the most common type of community pharmacy?

Mail order pharmacy

Hospital pharmacy

Retail pharmacy

Compounding pharmacy

25 / 25

What are the key responsibilities of a community pharmacist in managing a pharmacy?

Ensuring compliance with regulations and laws

Maintaining inventory and ordering supplies

All of the above

Providing patient counseling and education

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The average score is 39%

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1562

Created on June 10, 2022 By

NotesKarts

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

A. Methyl Group

B. Ethynyl group

C. Propionyl group

D. Propargyl group

2 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

A. Sulphadimethoxine

B. Sulphadoxine

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphadimethoxy pyridazine

3 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

A. Compared to antibiotics

B. Compared to statins

C. Compared to sulpha drugs

D. Compared to antitubercular drugs

4 / 50

Antiseptic are

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

5 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

A. Benzoyl peroxide

B. Tramadol

C. Zidovudine

D. Fluoxetine

6 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

A. Disinfection

B. Antisepsis

C. Sterilization

D. Coronisation

7 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C₃₀H_{62 .}

A. Propdecane

B. Eicosane

C. Triacontane

D. Dodecane

8 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

A. Phenyl and benzyl

B. Propyl and phenyl

C. Methyl and benzyl

D. Butyl and phenyl

9 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

A. Damage to DNA

B. Enzyme inhibition

C. Cell wall destruction

D. All of them

10 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Entamoeba subtilis

D. Entamoeba chrysogenum

11 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphacetamide

B. Sulphasalazine

C. Sulphapyridine

D. Sulphadoxine

12 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

A. Jaundice

B. Diarrhea

C. Peripheral neuropathy

D. All of them

13 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

A. Pyridine

B. Imidazole

C. Pyrimidine

D. Pyrazine

14 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

A. Cyclopropane

B. Cyclobutane

C. Cyclopentane

D. Cyclohexane

15 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

A. Crystalluria

B. Hansen's disease

C. Liver cirrhosis

D. Mendel disease

16 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

A. Silver

B. Titanium

C. Lead

D. Tin

17 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

A. Chlorhexidine

B. Diazepam

C. Miglitol

D. Lorazepam

18 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

A. Moxifloxacin

B. Dapsone

C. Clofazimine

D. Ethambutol

19 / 50

DDS stands for......

A. Diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. Diamino divinyl sulphone

C. Dimethyl diphenyl sulphone

D. Diphenyl sulphone

20 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Dapsone

D. Di-iodohydroxy quinoline

21 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

A. Cotrimoxazole

B. Sulphadiazine

C. Sulphacetamide sodium

D. Sulphamethoxazole

22 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

A. Temperature below 15°c

B. Temperature above 15°c

C. Temperature should be 30°c

D. Temperature between 15-30°c

23 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

A. Bacteria

B. Spores

C. Fungi

D. Viruses

24 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

A. Piperidine

B. Pyridine

C. Oxazole

D. Pyrimidine

25 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

A. Pyrazine-4- carbohydrazide

B. Pyridine-4- carbohydrazide

C. pyrimidine-4- carbohydrazide

D. pyridine-4-carboxamide

26 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

A. 4,4'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. 2,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

C. 4,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

D. 4,4'-diamino dimethyl sulphone

27 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphamethoxazole

B. Sulfafuraole

C. Sulphadimidine

D. Sulphapyridine

28 / 50

Functional group present in INH

A. Carbohydrazide

B. Carbonyl group

C. Carboxamide

D. Carboxylic group

29 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

A. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase

B. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase

C. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase

D. Activation of DNA gyrase

30 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

A. Sulphamethoxine

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphamethoxy pyridazine

31 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

A. Direct contact

B. Formites

C. Contaminated food and drink

D. Rodents

32 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

A. Specifying the number of carbon atoms associated with the bond

B. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at beginning of the C=C bond

C. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at end of the C=C bond

D. Specifying the number of carbon atoms in the entire chain

33 / 50

Excystation is _______

A. Formation of trophozoites from cyst

B. Formation of cyst from trophozoites

C. Both of them

D. None of them

34 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

A. Exactly a double bond

B. Exactly a triple bond

C. Exactly two double bond

D. More than two double bond

35 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

A. Hepatic amoebiasis

B. Pulmonary amebiasis

C. Cerebral amobiasis

D. All of the above

36 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Isoniazid

D. Ethambutol

37 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

A. Aniline

B. Sulfone

C. Amine

D. All of them

38 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

A. Amoebic dysentery

B. Helminth infection

C. Fungal infection

D. None of them

39 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

A. True

B. False

40 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

A. Alkanes

B. Alkenes

C. Alkynes

D. Alkaloids

41 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

A. Clofazimine and Rifampicin

B. Dopamine and Rifampicin

C. Clofazimine and ofloxacin

D. All of them

42 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

A. para amino salicylic acid

B. Clofazimine

C. Dapsone

D. Ethambutol

43 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

44 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethionamide

C. Triacetazone

D. None of the above

45 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

A. ene

B. ic

C. one

D. yl

46 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

A. Crystalluria

B. Peripheral neuropathy

C. Liver damage

D. Metabolic syndrome

47 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

A. Alcohol

B. Phenol

C. Iodine

D. All of the above

48 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

A. Salicylic acid

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Dapsone

D. Methyl salicylic acid

49 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

A. Vicucidal

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacteriostatic

D. Disinfectant

50 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

A. Ethambutol

B. Diazepam

C. Haldol

D. Isoniazid

Your score is

The average score is 22%

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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Tubocurarine

Physostigmine

Pralidoxime

Neostigmine

2 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Steroid receptor

Enzyme linked

GPCR

Ion channel

3 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

To check the activity straight muscle

None of the above

4 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Competing at receptor sites

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

All of the above

Inhibiting release from storage sites

5 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Ethanol

Prednisolone

Salicylates

Clofibrate

6 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

All of the above

Pancuronium

Tubocurarine

Gallamine

7 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

None of above

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

8 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

Atropine

Phenothiazines

Scopolamines

All of the above

9 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Carbamazepine

Diazepam

Phenytoin

Paraldehyde

10 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

All of the above

Renal insufficiency

IDDM

Pregnancy

11 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Dry mouth

Bradycardia

Hypertension

Tachycardia

12 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Reduced sweating

Loss of accommodation

Mydriasis

13 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Passive diffusion

Facilitated diffusion

Ion pair transport

Active transport

14 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Block accommodation reflex

Bronchoconstriction

Constipation

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

15 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Dispropyl flurophosphate

Ecothiopate

Physostigmine

Both a and b

16 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Dopamine

Isopropanol

Epinephrine

All of the above

17 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

Physostigmine

None of the above

Neostigmine

Pralidoxime

18 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

19 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

20 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Corpus striatum

Heart

Exocrine gland

Cerebral cortex

21 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Potentiation

Synergism

Antagonism

Addition

22 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

All of the above

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

23 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

Detect the impurity in a given drug

24 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M3 antagonist

M3 agonist

M1 antagonist

M2 antagonist

25 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Prolactin

Histamine

Insulin

Oxytocin

26 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Antagonist

Partial agonist

Competitive antagonism

Non-competitive antagonism

27 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Palpitation

Cerebral heamorrhage

Tremor

Respiratory difficulty

28 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

Desmethyl spironolactone

None of the above

Acetylspironolactone

Canrenone

29 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Scopolamine

Carbamazepine

Metoclopramide

Atropine

30 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Cholinomimetic

Cholinesterase inhibitor

Sympathomimetic

Cholinolytics

31 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Darifenacin

Pirenzepine

Cyclopentolate

Hyoscine

32 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Breast Carcinoma

Hypertension

Cerebral thrombosis

Dysmenorrhoea

33 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Alcohol

Warfarin

Digoxin

Amitriptyline

34 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

R and S

P and S

Q and S

Q and R

35 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

Amphetamine

Dopamine

Ephedrine

All of the above

36 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

All of the above

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

To cause haemeostasis

To stimulate would healing

37 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

None of above

Stimulation of insulin release

Suppression of glucagon secretion

Suppression of insulin secretion

38 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Noradrenaline

Atropine

Isoprenaline

Acetylcholine

39 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Alopecia

Nephritis

Agranulocytosis

Drug fever

40 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Methylation

Sulfate conjunction:

Glucuronide conjugation

α amino acid conjunction

41 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Mental aberration

Increased heart rate

Miosis

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

42 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Inhibits GIT motility

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

Prevents miosis

43 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Neostigmine

Atropine

All of the above

Physostigmine

44 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Succinylcholine

Hexamethonium

Gallamine

D-tubocurarine

45 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Neostigmine

Edrophonium

Pyridostigmine

Physostigmine

46 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

Vasopressin

F S H

Prolactin

47 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Blocking B2 receptor

Stimulating B2 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

48 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Pilocarpine

Atropine

Bethanechol

Physostigmine

49 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

50 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Rifampicin

Grape juice

Carbamazepine

Barbiturates

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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1492

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 2

b. 1

c. 3

d. 5

2 / 25

2. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 3

b. 4

c. 1

d. 2

3 / 25

3. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Six

b. Four

c. Three

d. Five

4 / 25

4. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Sera

b. Capsule

c. Antigen

d. Toxins

5 / 25

5. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. Central Government

b. State Government of Delhi

c. President

d. Election of Registered Pharmacists

6 / 25

6. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

b. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

c. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

d. In cold place

7 / 25

7. Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule W

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule G

8 / 25

8. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule B

b. Schedule F

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule D

9 / 25

9. Insulin comes under

a. Schedule H

b. Schedule O

c. Schedule J

d. Schedule G

10 / 25

10. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule W

b. Schedule Y

c. Schedule X

d. Schedule U

11 / 25

11. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Drug

b. Spurious drug

c. Misbranded drug

d. Adulterated drug

12 / 25

12. Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

13 / 25

13. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule S

b. Schedule E

c. Schedule R

d. Schedule O

14 / 25

14. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 32

b. Form 36

c. Form 24

d. Form 20

15 / 25

15. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form36

b. Form 32

c. Form 31

d. Form 30

16 / 25

16. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 24D

b. Form 21

c. Form 20

d. Form 25E

17 / 25

17. "Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

b. Standard for production of sera

c. Standard for surgical dressing

d. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

18 / 25

18. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule U1

b. Schedule U

c. Schedule V

d. Schedule Y

19 / 25

19. Appendix II is about

a. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

b. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

c. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

d. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

20 / 25

20. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Six years

b. Five years

c. Three years

d. Four years

21 / 25

21. Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1995

b. 1940

c. 1948

d. 1919

22 / 25

22. Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 17B

b. Section 17

c. Section 17A

d. Section 3B

23 / 25

23. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule C

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule M

d. Schedule R

24 / 25

24. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

b. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

c. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

d. To prescribe drug

25 / 25

25. Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

b. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

c. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

d. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

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Social Pharmacy Quiz

1 / 25

What are the ill effects of infant milk substitutes and bottle feeding?

Increased risk of infections

Increased risk of malnutrition

All of the above

Reduced bonding between the mother and child

2 / 25

What is the importance of pharmacists in immunization?

They advise on the appropriate vaccines for different age groups

All of the above

They provide education on the importance of vaccination

They provide counseling on post-vaccination care

3 / 25

According to the WHO, what are the main determinants of health?

Socioeconomic status and environmental factors

Genetics and lifestyle choices

Access to healthcare and education

Medical treatments and technological advancements

4 / 25

How many Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are there?

5 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Health Mission (NHM)?

To improve the availability of and access to healthcare for all citizens

To control the spread of infectious diseases

All of the above

To reduce maternal mortality

6 / 25

Why is breastfeeding considered to be the best form of nutrition for infants?

It provides all the necessary nutrients

All of the above

It helps to protect the infant from infections

It promotes bonding between the mother and child

7 / 25

What is the primary role of pharmacists in mother and child health?

Prescribing medications

Advising on breastfeeding and nutrition

Administering vaccinations

Conducting physical examinations

8 / 25

What does the WHO consider to be a fundamental right of all individuals?

The right to free speech

The right to vote

The right to access healthcare

The right to own property

9 / 25

What is the primary role of pharmacists in vaccination?

Advising on post-vaccination care

All of the above

Administering vaccinations

Providing education on the importance of vaccination

10 / 25

What is the main objective of the National AYUSH Mission (NAM)?

To improve the availability of and access to healthcare for rural populations

To control the spread of infectious diseases

To promote the use of traditional and alternative medicine

All of the above

11 / 25

Which SDG is specifically focused on improving access to healthcare?

SDG 5: Gender Equality

SDG 3: Good Health and Well-being

SDG 8: Decent Work and Economic Growth

SDG 1: No Poverty

12 / 25

Which of the following is not a method of family planning?

Oral contraceptives

Condoms

Fasting

Sterilization

13 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP)?

To improve maternal and child health

To control the spread of vector-borne diseases

All of the above

To provide universal access to healthcare

14 / 25

What is the main objective of the Family Planning 2020 (FP2020) initiative?

To reduce maternal mortality

To improve maternal and child health

To increase access to family planning services

All of the above

15 / 25

How does the WHO define "Health for All"?

Health promotion and disease prevention for all individuals

Universal access to healthcare services

All of the above

The eradication of all diseases

16 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM)?

To improve the availability of and access to healthcare for rural populations

All of the above

To reduce maternal mortality

To control the spread of infectious diseases

17 / 25

What is the main focus of the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)?

Achieving universal primary education

All of the above

Improving maternal health

Eradicating extreme poverty and hunger

18 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Health Policy of India?

To control the spread of infectious diseases

To improve maternal and child health

All of the above

To provide universal access to healthcare

19 / 25

What are the types of immunity?

Both A and B

None of the above

Active immunity

Passive immunity

20 / 25

What does the WHO define as "health"?

The absence of pain or discomfort

The absence of disease or infirmity

The ability to perform daily activities without assistance

A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being

21 / 25

In what way can pharmacists support the use of family planning methods?

By providing education on proper use

By providing counseling on side effects

By providing access to emergency contraceptive options

All of the above

22 / 25

Which of the following is the primary role of pharmacists in Demography and Family Planning?

Prescribing medications

Conducting physical examinations

Providing counseling on contraceptive options

Administering vaccinations

23 / 25

What is the difference between active and passive immunity?

Active immunity is acquired through exposure to antibodies, passive immunity is acquired through vaccination

Active immunity is acquired through exposure to a disease, passive immunity is acquired through exposure to antibodies

Active immunity is acquired through exposure to a disease, passive immunity is acquired through vaccination.

Active immunity is acquired through vaccination, passive immunity is acquired through exposure to a disease.

24 / 25

What is the main objective of the National Mental Health Programme (NMHP)?

To reduce maternal mortality

All of the above

To improve access to mental health services

To control the spread of infectious diseases

25 / 25

What is the goal of the WHO in terms of health equity?

Eliminating disparities in health outcomes between different populations

All of the above

Increasing the overall life expectancy of the global population

Providing equal access to healthcare for all individuals

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The average score is 52%

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