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Pharmacotherapeutics Quiz

  • Pharmacotherapeutics MCQs, multiple choice question bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from Pharmacotherapeutics MCQs Quiz, Pharmacist Exam MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
  • This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam. 
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Pharmacotherapeutics MCQs

1 / 25

A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a medication to increase insulin production. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

2 / 25

A patient with angina is prescribed a medication that improves blood flow to the heart. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

3 / 25

A patient who has had a stroke is prescribed a medication to dissolve blood clots. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

4 / 25

A patient with Alcoholic liver disease is prescribed a medication to reduce inflammation and fibrosis in the liver. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

5 / 25

A patient with epilepsy is prescribed a medication to prevent seizures. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

6 / 25

A patient with Peptic Ulcer Disease is prescribed a medication to inhibit acid and pepsin secretion. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

7 / 25

A patient with COPD is prescribed a medication to help clear mucus from the lungs. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

8 / 25

A patient with hypothyroidism is prescribed a medication to replace the thyroid hormone. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

9 / 25

A patient with migraines is prescribed a medication to prevent headaches. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

10 / 25

A patient with hyperlipidemia is prescribed a medication to lower cholesterol levels. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

11 / 25

A patient with anemia is prescribed a medication to increase red blood cell production. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

12 / 25

A patient with COPD is prescribed a medication to help with breathing. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

13 / 25

A patient with Alzheimer's disease is prescribed a medication to improve memory and cognitive function. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

14 / 25

A patient with asthma is prescribed a medication to reduce inflammation in the airways. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

15 / 25

A patient with COPD is prescribed a medication to reduce inflammation in the airways. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

16 / 25

A patient with asthma is prescribed a medication to open up constricted airways. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

17 / 25

A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed a medication to lower blood sugar levels. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

18 / 25

A patient with hyperthyroidism is prescribed a medication to block the effects of thyroid hormone. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

19 / 25

A patient with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed a medication to prevent future heart attacks. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

20 / 25

A patient with hyperthyroidism is prescribed a medication to reduce thyroid hormone production. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

21 / 25

Which of the following is considered a first-line therapy for hypertension?

22 / 25

A patient with congestive heart failure is prescribed a medication to improve blood flow and reduce the workload on the heart. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

23 / 25

A patient with Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed a medication to reduce stomach acid. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

24 / 25

A patient with Parkinson's disease is prescribed a medication to increase dopamine levels in the brain. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

25 / 25

A patient with sickle cell anemia is prescribed a medication to prevent sickle cell crises. What class of drugs is this medication likely from?

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1658
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Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

2 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

3 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

4 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

5 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

6 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

7 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

8 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

9 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

10 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

11 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

12 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

13 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

14 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

15 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

16 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

17 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

18 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

19 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

20 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

21 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

22 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

23 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

24 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

25 / 50

DDS stands for......

26 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

27 / 50

Excystation is _______

28 / 50

Functional group present in INH

29 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

30 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

31 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

32 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C30H62 . 

33 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

34 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

35 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

36 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

37 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

38 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

39 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

40 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

41 / 50

Antiseptic are

42 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

43 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

44 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

45 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

46 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

47 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

48 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

49 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

50 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

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The average score is 22%

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Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

2 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

3 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

4 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

5 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

6 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

7 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

8 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

9 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

10 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

11 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

12 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

13 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

14 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

15 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

16 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

17 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

18 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

19 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

20 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

21 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

22 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

23 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

24 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

25 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

26 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

27 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

28 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

29 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

30 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

31 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

32 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

33 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

34 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

35 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

36 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

37 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

38 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

39 / 50

Darifenacin is a

40 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

41 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

42 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

43 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

44 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

45 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

46 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

47 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

48 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

49 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

50 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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1624

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

2 / 25

2. Schedule M, states that

3 / 25

3. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

4 / 25

4. Crocin is sale under

5 / 25

5. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

6 / 25

6. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

7 / 25

7. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

8 / 25

8. Appendix II is about

9 / 25

9. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

10 / 25

10. Spurious drug comes under

11 / 25

11. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

12 / 25

12. Form 20 states that

13 / 25

13. Insulin comes under

14 / 25

14. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

15 / 25

15. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

16 / 25

16. "Schedule F3" is related with

17 / 25

17. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

18 / 25

18. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

19 / 25

19. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

20 / 25

20. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

21 / 25

21. Pharmacy Act is established in

22 / 25

22. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

23 / 25

23. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

24 / 25

24. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

25 / 25

25. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

Your score is

The average score is 39%

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346

1 / 50

1. DTAB has ———————– ex officio members

2 / 50

2. Purpose of Phase-3 trial is

3 / 50

3. Post marketing surveillance comes under clinical trial

4 / 50

4. For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum area required is

5 / 50

5. Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises…….. Members (s) from AICTE and UGC.

6 / 50

6. In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio members except.

7 / 50

7. One of the following is/all ex officio member(s) of State Pharmacy Council

8 / 50

8. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members.

9 / 50

9. As per schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder Should be Stored in/at

10 / 50

10. For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in schedule C and C(1) drugs from no. require is

11 / 50

11. Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with

12 / 50

12. Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in

13 / 50

13. Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?

14 / 50

14. The Education Regulation (ER) is published in official gazette by

15 / 50

15. In Phase-2 trial following number of patient should be studied

16 / 50

16. Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires.

17 / 50

17. Schedule…………… of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in Cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs.

18 / 50

18. Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises

19 / 50

19. Pro-forma for sending memorandum is included in which schedule?

20 / 50

20. As per D and C act schedule T stated about

21 / 50

21. Patent Act is established in

22 / 50

22. Injection syringe and needles are covered under

23 / 50

23. If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is

24 / 50

24. Aspirin sodium comes under

25 / 50

25. The first edition of India Pharmacopoeia was published in the year :

26 / 50

26. Schedule N states

27 / 50

27. List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions are included in schedule.

28 / 50

28. Insulin injection according to schedule P is should be stored

29 / 50

29. Kala jadu or Kavach comes under

30 / 50

30. MHRA is regulatory agency of ……….....

31 / 50

31. List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under………..as per D & C Act.

32 / 50

32. List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under.

33 / 50

33. Example of Schedule G drug is

34 / 50

34. Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under Schedule ………………as per D & C Act

35 / 50

35. MCC is regulatory agency of ……………

36 / 50

36. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted:

37 / 50

37. Coca, opium and hemp come under:

38 / 50

38. As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with

39 / 50

39. If drug is so colored, coated or polished that damage its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is known as

40 / 50

40. Hatch Waxman Act is related to

41 / 50

41. Biological and Biotechnological products are included in schedule.

42 / 50

42. Schedule J is related to

43 / 50

43. For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is

44 / 50

44. Dettol comes under

45 / 50

45. Pack size of drug is covered under

46 / 50

46. As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with

47 / 50

47. In 1954 one of the following act is passed

48 / 50

48. Schedule C is related to

49 / 50

49. The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial, import and manufacture of new drug is

50 / 50

50. TGA is regulatory agency of………….

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The average score is 37%

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