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Pharmacology Multiple Choice Questions

Pharmacology Multiple Choice Questions bank for govt. service exams. Important MCQs from Pharmacology Multiple Choice Questions Quiz, Pharmacist Exam MCQs, Noteskarts Test Series
This test is Improve for Pharmacy exam like Diploma in Pharmacy exit exam MCQs (DPEE), GPAT, & other competitive exam.

541

Created by

Noteskarts

Pharmacology MCQs for DPEE and GPAT

1 / 51

Indicate the drug, which is rapidly and fully distributed into CNS and has a greater effect than most other antimuscarinic
agents?

Scopolamine

Homatropine

Ipratropium

Atropine

2 / 51

What does “affinity” mean?

A measure of bioavailability of a drug

A measure of how tightly a drug binds to plasma proteins

A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a receptor

A measure of inhibiting potency of a drug

3 / 51

Pharmacokinetics is:

The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs

The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs

The study of methods of new drug development

The study of mechanisms of drug action

4 / 51

Which one of the following groups is responsible for the duration of the local anesthetic action?

Lipophylic group

Ionizable group

All of the above

Intermediate chain

5 / 51

Indicate the local anesthetic agent, which has a shorter duration of action:

Ropivacaine

Procaine

Lidocaine

Bupivacaine

6 / 51

Target proteins which a drug molecule binds are:

Only receptors

All of the above

Only ion channels

Only carriers

7 / 51

Acetylcholine is not used in clinical practice because:

It is very costly

It is very rapidly hydrolyzed

It is very toxic

The doses required are very high

8 / 51

Pick out the answer which is the most appropriate to the term “receptor”

Enzymes of oxidizing-reducing reactions activated by a drug

All types of ion channels modulated by a drug

Carriers activated by a drug

Active macromolecular components of a cell or an organism which a drug molecule has to combine with in order to elicit its specific effect

9 / 51

Which of the following drugs is a nondepolarizing muscle relaxant?

Hexamethonium

Succinylcholine

Scopolamine

Pancuronium

10 / 51

Indicate a muscarinic receptor-blocking drug:

Pipecuronium

Scopolamine

Pilocarpine

Trimethaphan

11 / 51

The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:

Active transport (carrier-mediated diffusion)

Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion)

Filtration (aqueous diffusion)

Endocytosis and exocytosis

12 / 51

The mechanism of atropine action is:

Competitive muscarinic blockade

Competitive ganglion blockade

Competitive neuromuscular blockade

Noncompetitive neuromuscular blockade

13 / 51

The effect of the drug on parasympathetic function declines rapidly in all organs EXCEPT:

Eye

Smooth muscle organs

Glands

Heart

14 / 51

What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

Drug biotransformation in the organism

Influence of drugs on metabolism processes

Influence of drugs on genes

Complications of drug therapy

15 / 51

Indicate a cholinomimetic agent, which is related to direct-acting drugs:

Isoflurophate

Carbachol

Physostigmine

Edrophonium

16 / 51

Ionizable group is responsible for:

The potency and the toxicity

The duration of action

The ability to diffuse to the site of action

All of the above

17 / 51

Which one of the following local anesthetics is an ester of benzoic acid?

Lidocaine

Procaine

Cocaine

Ropivacaine

18 / 51

Which of the following direct-acting cholinomimetics is mainly muscarinic in action?

Acetylcholine

Carbachol

Bethanechol

None of the above

19 / 51

An agonist is a substance that:

Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect

Interacts with the receptor without producing any effect

Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects

Increases concentration of another substance to produce effect

20 / 51

What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

b) Unwanted effects of drugs

d) Distribution of drugs in the organism

a) Pharmacological effects of drugs

c) Chemical structure of a medicinal agent

21 / 51

A good local anesthetic agent shouldn’t cause:

Systemic toxicity

Vasodilatation

Local irritation and tissue damage

Fast onset and long duration of action

22 / 51

Indicate the skeletal muscle relaxant, which is a depolarizing agent:

Vencuronium

Scopolamine

Hexamethonium

Succinylcholine

23 / 51

Acetylcholine is not a specific neurotransmitter at:

Parasympathetic postganglionic nerve endings

Sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings

Parasympathetic ganglia

Sympathetic ganglia

24 / 51

If an agonist can produce maximal effects and has high efficacy it’s called:

Agonist-antagonist

Partial agonist

Full agonist

Antagonist

25 / 51

Indicate the location of M2 cholinoreceptor type:

Heart

Endothelium

Smooth muscle

Glands

26 / 51

Which of the following cholinomimetics activates both muscarinic and nicotinic receptors?

Lobeline

Pilocarpine

Bethanechol

Nicotine

27 / 51

Parasympathomimetic drugs cause:

Mydriasis

Bradycardia

Bronchodilation

Constipation

28 / 51

What kind of substances can’t permeate membranes by passive diffusion?

Hydrophilic substances

Lipid-soluble

Hydrophobic substances

Non-ionized substances

29 / 51

Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following EXCEPT:

Drug interactions

Mechanisms of drug action

Biological and therapeutic effects of drugs

Absorption and distribution of drugs

30 / 51

What does the term “bioavailability” mean?

Permeability through the brain-blood barrier

Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route administration

Plasma protein binding degree of substance

Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial doze

31 / 51

Indicate the drug, which has greater potency of the local anesthetic action:

Lidocaine

Procaine

Bupivacaine

Mepivacaine

32 / 51

What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

Localization of drug action

Mechanisms of drug action

Interaction of substances

Excretion of substances

33 / 51

Indicate the local anesthetic, which is an ester of paraaminobenzoic acid:

Procaine

Cocaine

Mepivacaine

Lidocaine

34 / 51

Characteristics of carbachol include all of the following EXCEPT:

It decreases intraocular pressure

It is resistant to acethylcholiesterase

It exerts both nicotinic and muscarinic effects

It causes mydriasis

35 / 51

Which of the following drugs is both a muscarinic and nicotinic blocker?

Succinylcholine

Benztropine

Hexamethonium

Atropine

36 / 51

Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following?

Mechanisms of drug action

Biotransformation of drugs in the organism

Excretion of drug from the organism

Distribution of drugs in the organism

37 / 51

Which of the following agents is a ganglion-blocking drug?

Homatropine

Rapacuronium

Hexamethonium

Edrophonium

38 / 51

If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it’s called:

Partial agonist

Agonist-antagonist

Full agonist

Antagonist

39 / 51

Which one of the following groups is responsible for the potency and the toxicity of local anesthetics?

Lipophylic group

Ionizable group

Intermediate chain

All of the above

40 / 51

The symptoms of mushroom poisoning include all of the following EXCEPT:

Headache, abdominal colic

Bradycardia, hypotension and shock

Dryness of mouth, hyperpyrexia, hallucination

Salivation, lacrimation, nausea, vomiting

41 / 51

Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs through liver is minimized:

Rectal

Oral

Transdermal

Intraduodenal

42 / 51

The reasons determing bioavailability are:

Rheological parameters of blood

Extent of absorption and hepatic first-pass effect

Amount of a substance obtained orally and quantity of intakes

Glomerular filtration rate

43 / 51

An antagonist is a substance that:

Binds to the receptors without directly altering their functions

Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing maximal effect

Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing submaximal effect

Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect

44 / 51

The group of nicotinic receptor-blocking drugs consists of:

A. Ganglion-blockers

B. Atropine-similar drugs

C. Neuromuscular junction blockers

D. Both a and c

45 / 51

M3 receptor subtype is located:

In the myocardium

On the motor end plates

On effector cell membranes of glandular and smooth muscle cells

In sympathetic postganglionic neurons

46 / 51

Local anesthetics produce:

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

A stupor or somnolent state

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

47 / 51

What is implied by «active transport»?

Transport without energy consumption

Transport of drugs trough a membrane by means of diffusion

Engulf of drug by a cell membrane with a new vesicle formation

Transport against concentration gradient

48 / 51

Muscarinic receptors are located in:

Autonomic ganglia

Autonomic effector cells

Skeletal muscle neuromuscular junctions

Sensory carotid sinus baroreceptor zone

49 / 51

A hydrophilic medicinal agent has the following property:

Easy permeation through the blood-brain barrier

High reabsorption in renal tubules

Low ability to penetrate through the cell membrane lipids

Penetrate through membranes by means of endocytosis

50 / 51

Most local anesthetic agents consist of:

Intermediate chain (commonly including an ester or amide)

All of the above

Amino group

Lipophylic group (frequently an aromatic ring)

51 / 51

Pharmacodynamics involves the following?

Information about main mechanisms of drug absorption

Information about excretion of a drug from the organism

Information about unwanted effects

Information about biological barriers

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Your score is

The average score is 23%

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1658

Created on June 10, 2022 By

NotesKarts

Pharmaceutical Chemistry Section A

In this MCQs test 50 questions and 30 min for solve all question Noteskarts Test Series

1 / 50

In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is displayed so as to form a compactly structure with the resemblance of a butterfly wing?

A. Cyclopropane

B. Cyclobutane

C. Cyclopentane

D. Cyclohexane

2 / 50

IUPAC name of Dapsone is .......................

A. 4,4'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. 2,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

C. 4,2'-diamino diphenyl sulphone

D. 4,4'-diamino dimethyl sulphone

3 / 50

Which of the given is not ant amoebic drug

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Dapsone

D. Di-iodohydroxy quinoline

4 / 50

Heterocyclic ring present in INH...................

A. Pyridine

B. Imidazole

C. Pyrimidine

D. Pyrazine

5 / 50

DDS stands for......

A. Diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. Diamino divinyl sulphone

C. Dimethyl diphenyl sulphone

D. Diphenyl sulphone

6 / 50

Mechanism by which the antiseptic shows their action

A. Damage to DNA

B. Enzyme inhibition

C. Cell wall destruction

D. All of them

7 / 50

Leprosy is also known as.........

A. Crystalluria

B. Hansen's disease

C. Liver cirrhosis

D. Mendel disease

8 / 50

Disinfectants are _______

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

9 / 50

Extra intestinal infections include

A. Hepatic amoebiasis

B. Pulmonary amebiasis

C. Cerebral amobiasis

D. All of the above

10 / 50

Sulfonamides are....................... in action.

A. Vicucidal

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacteriostatic

D. Disinfectant

11 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to sulfone group

A. Moxifloxacin

B. Dapsone

C. Clofazimine

D. Ethambutol

12 / 50

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Entamoeba subtilis

D. Entamoeba chrysogenum

13 / 50

IUPAC name of INH is ...

A. Pyrazine-4- carbohydrazide

B. Pyridine-4- carbohydrazide

C. pyrimidine-4- carbohydrazide

D. pyridine-4-carboxamide

14 / 50

Name of drug containing dianilino group........

A. para amino salicylic acid

B. Clofazimine

C. Dapsone

D. Ethambutol

15 / 50

Which of these anti-tubercular drugs are also active against leprosy

A. Ethambutol

B. Diazepam

C. Haldol

D. Isoniazid

16 / 50

Functional group present in INH

A. Carbohydrazide

B. Carbonyl group

C. Carboxamide

D. Carboxylic group

17 / 50

Antiseptic are

A. Bacteriostatic

B. Bactericidal

C. Bacterial culture

D. Fungicidal

18 / 50

Vitamin B6 is administered along with INH to avoid....................

A. Jaundice

B. Diarrhea

C. Peripheral neuropathy

D. All of them

19 / 50

The heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine is

A. Piperidine

B. Pyridine

C. Oxazole

D. Pyrimidine

20 / 50

Given the following are long acting sulphonamides except.

A. Sulphadimethoxine

B. Sulphadoxine

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphadimethoxy pyridazine

21 / 50

Mechanism of sulfonamides antibacterial effect is

A. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase

B. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase

C. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase

D. Activation of DNA gyrase

22 / 50

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

A. Direct contact

B. Formites

C. Contaminated food and drink

D. Rodents

23 / 50

Which of the following is commonly used in treatment of acne

A. Benzoyl peroxide

B. Tramadol

C. Zidovudine

D. Fluoxetine

24 / 50

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethionamide

C. Triacetazone

D. None of the above

25 / 50

Which of the following is used as an antimicrobial cleanser to clean the skin site before surgery.

A. Chlorhexidine

B. Diazepam

C. Miglitol

D. Lorazepam

26 / 50

Sulfonamides are mainly used in treatment of eye infection is

A. Cotrimoxazole

B. Sulphadiazine

C. Sulphacetamide sodium

D. Sulphamethoxazole

27 / 50

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

A. Salicylic acid

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Dapsone

D. Methyl salicylic acid

28 / 50

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

A. Temperature below 15°c

B. Temperature above 15°c

C. Temperature should be 30°c

D. Temperature between 15-30°c

29 / 50

Major side effects of INH.....

A. Crystalluria

B. Peripheral neuropathy

C. Liver damage

D. Metabolic syndrome

30 / 50

Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is called_______

A. Methyl Group

B. Ethynyl group

C. Propionyl group

D. Propargyl group

31 / 50

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

A. Clofazimine and Rifampicin

B. Dopamine and Rifampicin

C. Clofazimine and ofloxacin

D. All of them

32 / 50

Which of the following is an active agent in antiseptic.

A. Alcohol

B. Phenol

C. Iodine

D. All of the above

33 / 50

Which of the following metal ion shows antimicrobial action.

A. Silver

B. Titanium

C. Lead

D. Tin

34 / 50

The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown by________

A. Specifying the number of carbon atoms associated with the bond

B. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at beginning of the C=C bond

C. Specifying the number of carbon atoms at end of the C=C bond

D. Specifying the number of carbon atoms in the entire chain

35 / 50

Septran is a trade name for

A. Sulphamethoxine

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Sulphadiazine

D. Sulphamethoxy pyridazine

36 / 50

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

A. Amoebic dysentery

B. Helminth infection

C. Fungal infection

D. None of them

37 / 50

Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular formula C₃₀H_{62 .}

A. Propdecane

B. Eicosane

C. Triacontane

D. Dodecane

38 / 50

Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as............................

A. Alkanes

B. Alkenes

C. Alkynes

D. Alkaloids

39 / 50

Excystation is _______

A. Formation of trophozoites from cyst

B. Formation of cyst from trophozoites

C. Both of them

D. None of them

40 / 50

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Isoniazid

D. Ethambutol

41 / 50

Dienes are the name given to compounds with_______

A. Exactly a double bond

B. Exactly a triple bond

C. Exactly two double bond

D. More than two double bond

42 / 50

The destruction of all micro organism on inanimate objects or surfaces is known as

A. Disinfection

B. Antisepsis

C. Sterilization

D. Coronisation

43 / 50

Antiseptic have lower bacterial resistance

A. Compared to antibiotics

B. Compared to statins

C. Compared to sulpha drugs

D. Compared to antitubercular drugs

44 / 50

Which of the following is not susceptible to alcohol compounds.

A. Bacteria

B. Spores

C. Fungi

D. Viruses

45 / 50

N-[(4-amino phenyl) sulfonyl] acetamide the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphacetamide

B. Sulphasalazine

C. Sulphapyridine

D. Sulphadoxine

46 / 50

4-amino-N-(diaminomethylidene) benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of

A. Sulphamethoxazole

B. Sulfafuraole

C. Sulphadimidine

D. Sulphapyridine

47 / 50

The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the "ane" in the alkanes by________.

A. ene

B. ic

C. one

D. yl

48 / 50

The substituent groups that are commonly associated with benzene are______

A. Phenyl and benzyl

B. Propyl and phenyl

C. Methyl and benzyl

D. Butyl and phenyl

49 / 50

The first step in IUPAC namenclatute is to identify the total number of carbon atoms present in the compound.

A. True

B. False

50 / 50

Functional group present in dapsone is ............

A. Aniline

B. Sulfone

C. Amine

D. All of them

Your score is

The average score is 22%

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2425

Created by

NotesKarts

Pharmacology & Toxicology MCQs for DPEE | D.Pharma Exit Exam Most Important Question 2022-23

1 / 50

Tolbutamide is contraindicated in

All of the above

IDDM

Pregnancy

Renal insufficiency

2 / 50

In belladonna poisoning convulsions can be controlled by

Diazepam

Paraldehyde

Phenytoin

Carbamazepine

3 / 50

Most serious adverse effect of antithyroid drug, propylthiouracil is

Agranulocytosis

Nephritis

Drug fever

Alopecia

4 / 50

Local anesthetics produce:

A stupor or somnolent state

Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness

Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness

Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness

5 / 50

Morphine affects the eyes by:

Decreasing pupillary responses to light

Producing mydriasis through an action on the sympathetic system

Producing miosis through an action on the oculomotor nerve

Directly acting on the smooth muscle of the iris

6 / 50

Which of the following agent irreversibly bound with acetyl cholinesterase.

Physostigmine

Both a and b

Ecothiopate

Dispropyl flurophosphate

7 / 50

Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is

Epinephrine

Dopamine

Isopropanol

All of the above

8 / 50

Isolated rabbit jejunum is used

None of the above

To check adrenergic activity and mechanism

To check the activity of skeletal muscle

To check the activity straight muscle

9 / 50

Beta agonist used in bronchial asthma exert action by

Stimulating B2 receptor

Blocking B2 receptor

Stimulating B1 receptor

Blocking B1 receptor

10 / 50

Major adverse effect of clonidine is

Dry mouth

Tachycardia

Hypertension

Bradycardia

11 / 50

Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite is

None of the above

Canrenone

Desmethyl spironolactone

Acetylspironolactone

12 / 50

Which of the following is CYP450 enzyme inhibitor?

Carbamazepine

Grape juice

Barbiturates

Rifampicin

13 / 50

In urinary incontinence following drug is widely used:

Hyoscine

Pirenzepine

Cyclopentolate

Darifenacin

14 / 50

Neostigmine effectively antagonizes skeletal muscle relaxation produced by

Tubocurarine

Pancuronium

Gallamine

All of the above

15 / 50

Sweating is inhibited by

Phenothiazines

Atropine

Scopolamines

All of the above

16 / 50

All of the following may enhance the action of sulfonylureas except

Salicylates

Ethanol

Clofibrate

Prednisolone

17 / 50

Muscarinic receptor M4 are mainly located at

Cerebral cortex

Exocrine gland

Corpus striatum

Heart

18 / 50

In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, the best agent for distinguishing between myashenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, given intravenously is

Edrophonium

Neostigmine

Pyridostigmine

Physostigmine

19 / 50

Most common Phase -2nd reaction is

Glucuronide conjugation

Methylation

α amino acid conjunction

Sulfate conjunction:

20 / 50

Drug of the following drugs. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

All of the above

Atropine

21 / 50

Which of the following a is directly acting sympathomimetic agent?

All of the above

Dopamine

Ephedrine

Amphetamine

22 / 50

Drug of choice in motion sickness is

Scopolamine

Metoclopramide

Atropine

Carbamazepine

23 / 50

Antidote of atropine is

None of the above

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

Pralidoxime

24 / 50

Neostigmine may cause all of the following except

Constipation

Reversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase

Bronchoconstriction

Block accommodation reflex

25 / 50

In the bioassay the conviction activity in mice is observed during……………use.

Oxytocin

Histamine

Prolactin

Insulin

26 / 50

Ganglionic blocking agent may cause all of the following except

Reduced sweating

Inhibit erection and ejaculation

Mydriasis

Loss of accommodation

27 / 50

Mechanism of action of organic phosphate parathion is

Phosphorylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the esteratic site of cholinesterase

Acetylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

Phosphorylation of the cationic site of cholinesterase

28 / 50

Atropine over Dosage may cause all of the following except

Increased heart rate

Mental aberration

Miosis

Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle

29 / 50

………………drug having highest volume of distribution.

Alcohol

Amitriptyline

Warfarin

Digoxin

30 / 50

All of the following statement related to neostigmine are correct except

Neostigmine has indirect effect on neuromuscular junctions

All of the above

Neostigmine is medium duration of action

Neostigmine is a quaternary ammonium compound

31 / 50

Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?

Ion channel

GPCR

Enzyme linked

Steroid receptor

32 / 50

Pilocarpine is classified as

Sympathomimetic

Cholinomimetic

Cholinolytics

Cholinesterase inhibitor

33 / 50

Phentolamine is competitive antagonism of

Isoprenaline

Noradrenaline

Acetylcholine

Atropine

34 / 50

Action of D-tubocurarine is

Competitive blockade of muscarinic receptors

None of above

Irreversible blockade of muscarinic receptor

Competitive blockade of nicotinic receptors

35 / 50

Hormones that increase cyclic AMP in the larger organ include all except

Vasopressin

Prolactin

F S H

36 / 50

Darifenacin is a

M3 agonist

M2 antagonist

M1 antagonist

M3 antagonist

37 / 50

Bioassays are carried out to:

Screen from pharmacogenetic influences of new drugs

Avoid clinical trials for new drugs

Detect the impurity in a given drug

Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug

38 / 50

Atropine blocks the muscarinic actions of acetylcholine by

Inhibiting synthesis of ACH

Competing at receptor sites

Inhibiting release from storage sites

All of the above

39 / 50

Alcuronium is a semisynthetic derivative with similar properties of

Hexamethonium

Succinylcholine

D-tubocurarine

Gallamine

40 / 50

Which of the following drug may cause cycloplegia when used topically in the eye?

Physostigmine

Pilocarpine

Atropine

Bethanechol

41 / 50

Activation of alpha-2 receptors in the pancreatic islets causes

Suppression of glucagon secretion

Stimulation of insulin release

Suppression of insulin secretion

None of above

42 / 50

Antidote of organo phosphorus poisoning is

Tubocurarine

Pralidoxime

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

43 / 50

Undesirable effects of oral contraceptives include all except

Dysmenorrhoea

Cerebral thrombosis

Breast Carcinoma

Hypertension

44 / 50

Drug having high affinity but low intrinsic activity is called

Non-competitive antagonism

Antagonist

Competitive antagonism

Partial agonist

45 / 50

Following are the chloride channel blocker
(P) Amiloride (Q) Cadmium
(R) Picrotoxin. (S) Ketamine

Q and R

R and S

Q and S

P and S

46 / 50

Atropine is used prior the administration of a general Anesthetics agent due to become it

Inhibits GIT motility

Prevents miosis

Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

Inhibits salivation and secretion of respiratory tract

47 / 50

Serious unwanted effect of epinephrine is

Cerebral heamorrhage

Palpitation

Respiratory difficulty

Tremor

48 / 50

Acetylcholine and physostigmine are examples of……………… type drug interaction.

Synergism

Potentiation

Addition

Antagonism

49 / 50

Epinephrine is added to local anaesthetics

To prolong the action of local anaesthetics

To stimulate would healing

All of the above

To cause haemeostasis

50 / 50

Most of the drug is absorbed through

Active transport

Facilitated diffusion

Ion pair transport

Passive diffusion

Your score is

The average score is 30%

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1624

Pharmacy Law & Ethics Quiz | MCQs

1 / 25

1. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires.

a. Form 20

b. Form 21

c. Form 25E

d. Form 24D

2 / 25

2. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drugs requires.

a. Form36

b. Form 32

c. Form 30

d. Form 31

3 / 25

3. In the "Joint State Pharmacy Council" elected member(s) among the Registered Pharmacists is/are

a. 2

b. 5

c. 1

d. 3

4 / 25

4. Insulin comes under

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule J

c. Schedule H

d. Schedule G

5 / 25

5. Blood Bank comes under the schedule

a. Schedule B

b. Schedule F

c. Schedule G

d. Schedule D

6 / 25

6. Pharmacy Act is established in

a. 1995

b. 1919

c. 1948

d. 1940

7 / 25

7. Standard for disinfectant fluids come under.

a. Schedule O

b. Schedule R

c. Schedule S

d. Schedule E

8 / 25

8. Nominated or elected members in "State Pharmacy Council" hold office for a term of

a. Six years

b. Five years

c. Three years

d. Four years

9 / 25

9. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be stored

a. At temperature which not exceed 20°C

b. At temperature 2°C to 8 °C and it must not allow to freeze

c. At temperature which not exceed 5°C

d. In cold place

10 / 25

10. Crocin is sale under

a. Schedule G

b. Schedule H

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule W

11 / 25

11. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic manufacture.

a. Form 32

b. Form 20

c. Form 36

d. Form 24

12 / 25

12. "Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months." This statement comes under

a. Schedule M

b. Schedule P

c. Schedule R

d. Schedule C

13 / 25

13. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in Schedule C?

a. Antigen

b. Capsule

c. Sera

d. Toxins

14 / 25

14. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic names only come under

a. Schedule X

b. Schedule W

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule U

15 / 25

15. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func tions except

a. To regulate minimum educational standard in pharmacy institute

b. To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist

c. To prescribe drug

d. To prescribe the minimum standard of education required for registered as a pharmacist

16 / 25

16. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed substance then is known as

a. Misbranded drug

b. Adulterated drug

c. Spurious drug

d. Drug

17 / 25

17. Appendix II is about

a. Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies

b. Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clinical trial

c. Format for submission of clinical trial reports

d. Four groups of fixed dose combination and their data requirements

18 / 25

18. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are included in which schedule?

a. Schedule V

b. Schedule U1

c. Schedule Y

d. Schedule U

19 / 25

19. How many members are elected among themselves by registered Pharmacist of state

a. Five

b. Three

c. Four

d. Six

20 / 25

20. Spurious drug comes under

a. Section 3B

b. Section 17A

c. Section 17

d. Section 17B

21 / 25

21. Schedule M, states that

a. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of cosmetics

b. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of homeopathy

c. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of medical devices

d. Requirements of factory premises for the manu facture of allopathy

22 / 25

22. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by

a. State Government of Delhi

b. President

c. Election of Registered Pharmacists

d. Central Government

23 / 25

23. Pharmacy council of India has ______ state government nominated member(s)

a. 2

b. 4

c. 1

d. 3

24 / 25

24. Form 20 states that

a. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1

b. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 and X.

c. Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

d. Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X.

25 / 25

25. "Schedule F3" is related with

a. Standard for surgical dressing

b. Standard for ophthalmic preparation

c. Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes

d. Standard for production of sera

Your score is

The average score is 39%

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154

Created on June 11, 2022 By

NotesKarts

Pharmaceutical Chemistry 2nd Class test

1 / 53

Which of the following amoebicidal drug is a natural product?

A. Ivermectin

B. Emetine

C. Digitalis

D. Quinidine

2 / 53

The heterocyclic ring system present in metronidazole is :

A. Imidazole

B. Imidazolidine

C. Pyrazole

D. Pyrazolidine

3 / 53

Diazepam exist under which brands.........................

A. Valium

B. Calmpose

C. Alzepam

D. All of them

4 / 53

Select an anti-leprotic drug among the given...........

A. Salicylic acid

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Dapsone

D. Methyl salicylic acid

5 / 53

DDS stands for......

A. Diamino diphenyl sulphone

B. Diamino divinyl sulphone

C. Dimethyl diphenyl sulphone

D. Diphenyl sulphone

6 / 53

Which of the following antibiotics have amoebicidal activity ?

A. Dihydrothiazine

B. Tetracycline

C. Carbapenems

D. Penicillin

7 / 53

Name the antibiotics having following structure

A. Ampicillin

B. Penicillin G

C. Penicillin V

D. Amoxicillin

8 / 53

Protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis is ________

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Entamoeba subtilis

D. Entamoeba chrysogenum

9 / 53

Transmission of amoebiasis occur through_________

A. Direct contact

B. Fomites

C. Contaminated food and drink

D. Rodents

10 / 53

Which of the following antibiotics is macrolides?

A. Erythromycin

B. Neomycin

C. Cefotaxime

D. Doxycycline

11 / 53

Name the antifungal belonging to Systemic azoles class

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Ketoconazole

D. Terbenafine

12 / 53

Antibiotics Act by Inhibition of Nucleic acid metabolism

A. Beta-Lactum antibiotics

B. Glycopeptides

C. Tetracyclines

D. Griseofulvin

13 / 53

Brand name of chlorpromazine ...............................

A. Oset

B. Neocalm

C. Senorm

D. Emetil

14 / 53

Functional group present in INH

A. Carbohydrazide

B. Carbonyl group

C. Carboxamide

D. Carboxylic group

15 / 53

Dapsone is use in combination with...........

A. Clofazimine and Rifampicin

B. Dopamine and Rifampicin

C. Clofazimine and ofloxacin

D. All of them

16 / 53

Which of this is not an antifungal among the given............... :

A. Anidula fungin

B. Acetyl salicylic acid

C. Voriconazole

D. Miconazole

17 / 53

Aralen is a brand name for:

A. Chloroquine

B. Amodiaquine

C. Pamaquine

D. Primaquine

18 / 53

Which of the following drug is used in the treatment amoebiasis?

A. Nitrofurantoin

B. Iodoquinol

C. Isoniazid

D. Mefloquine

19 / 53

Nitromidazole derivative is _______

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Dapsone

D. Emetine

20 / 53

Which of the following is not Antibiotics?

A. Streptomycin

B. Chloramphenicol

C. Penicillin

D. Co-trimoxazole

21 / 53

Name the drug containing pyrazine ring.........

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Isoniazid

D. Ethambutol

22 / 53

The drugs used is the treatment of insomnia...................

A. Trifluperidol

B. Haloperidol

C. Diazepam

D. Trifluoperazine

23 / 53

Which of the following group is present in Penicillin V ?

A. Benzyl

B. Phenoxy methyl

C. Benzoyl

D. Phenyl

24 / 53

Which of the following group is present in Penicillin G ?

A. Benzyl

B. Benzoyl

C. Phenoxy methyl

D. Phenyl

25 / 53

The cephalosporin molecule consists of two ring system which includes a Beta-Lactum ring and

A. Dihydrothiazine

B. Thiazolidine

C. Isoxazole

D. Pyridine

26 / 53

Griseofulvin is ............................ :

A. Triazoles class

B. Topical azoles

C. Benzfuran heterocyclic containing antifungal

D. Antibiotics

27 / 53

Storage condition for Rifampicin is...............

A. Temperature below 15°c

B. Temperature above 15°c

C. Temperature should be 30°c

D. Temperature between 15-30°c

28 / 53

Antibiotics act by inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis are

A. Beta-Lactum antibiotics

B. Tetracyclines

C. Isoniazid

D. Aminoglycosides

29 / 53

Haloperidol comes under which of the following class....................

A. Butyrophenone

B. Phenothiazine

C. Benzodiazepine

D. Carbamates

30 / 53

Select the Anthelmintic drugs which is a amide derivative:

A. Praziquantel

B. Mebendazole

C. Piperazine

D. Niclosamide

31 / 53

Itraconazole is from_________:

A. Triazoles class

B. Topical azoles

C. Allylamines

D. Antibiotics

32 / 53

Major tranquilizers are also known as ..........................

A. Anxiolytic

B. Antianxiolytic

C. Antipsychotic

D. Sedative

33 / 53

Luminal agents are administered

A. After tissue amebicide therapy

B. Before tissue amebicide therapy

C. With tissue amebicide therapy

D. None of them

34 / 53

Select the name of drug having following structure:

A. Metronidazole

B. Iodoquinol

C. Mebendazole

D. Diethylcarbamazine

35 / 53

Drugs used in asymptomatic treatment are _________

A. Tissue amebicide

B. Luminal amebicide

C. Bactericide

D. Fungicide

36 / 53

Which of the following Anthelmintic is a natural product ?

A. Ivermectin

B. Emetine

C. Digitalis

D. Quinidine

37 / 53

Excystation is _______

A. Formation of trophozoites from cyst

B. Formation of cyst from trophozoites

C. Both of them

D. None of them

38 / 53

Which of following Anthelmintic is a benzimidazole derivative ?

A. Praziquantel

B. Niclosamide

C. Mebendazole

D. Levamisole

39 / 53

Extra intestinal infections include

A. Hepatic amoebiasis

B. Pulmonary amobiasis

C. Cerebral amobiasis

D. All of the above

40 / 53

Which of this is an alkaloid used in treatment of amoebiasis?

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Emetine hydrochloride

D. Di-iodohydroxy quinoline

41 / 53

Name the drug belonging to topical azoles class:

A. Para amino salicylic acid

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Ketoconazole

D. Terbenafine

42 / 53

Haloperidol come under which of the following category........................

A. Tranquilizers

B. Anti TB

C. Anti-malaria

D. Analgesic

43 / 53

Name the antibiotics having following structure

A. Penicillin V

B. Penicillin G

C. Ampicillin

D. Amoxicillin

44 / 53

IUPAC name of INH is ...

A. Pyrazine-4- carbohydrazide

B. Pyridine-4- carbohydrazide

C. pyrimidine-4- carbohydrazide

D. pyridine-4-carboxamide

45 / 53

Which of the following drug belongs to 1st line

A. Ethambutol

B. Ethionamide

C. Triacetazone

D. None of the above

46 / 53

Given the following are amoebicidal amides except :

A. Diloxamide furoate

B. Teclozan

C. Iodoquinol

D. Etofamide

47 / 53

Select an polyene antibiotic among the given....................... :

A. Anidulafungin

B. Natamycin

C. Voriconazole

D. Miconazole

48 / 53

Which of these are from benzodiazepine class except.....................

A. Diazepam

B. Nitrazepam

C. Flutoprazepam

D. Haldol

49 / 53

Major side effects of INH.....

A. Crystalluria

B. Peripheral neuropathy

C. Liver damage

D. Metabolic syndrome

50 / 53

Chlorpromazine HCI belongs to ...............

A. Benzodiazepine

B. Phenothiazine

C. Butyrophenone

D. Other

51 / 53

Which of the given is not anti amoebic drug

A. Metronidazole

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Dapsone

D. Di-iodohydroxy quinoline

52 / 53

5-FC stand for................. :

A. 5-flucytosine

B. 5-flurouracil

C. 5-flucystine

D. 5-flucerine

53 / 53

Amobiasis is also known as.........................

A. Amoebic dysentery

B. Helminth infection

C. Fungal infection

D. None of them

Your score is

The average score is 32%

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